India features one of the most extensive and rigorous competitive examination ecosystems in the world, serving as the primary gateway for prestigious government administrative positions, public sector banking roles, defense services, and elite professional or academic admissions. These examinations span diverse sectors including civil services via UPSC, staff selection boards, national banking tests, and professional entrance benchmarks like JEE, NEET, and CAT. Understanding the distinct structures, eligibility requirements, and multi-stage testing patterns of these major competitive evaluations is essential for aspirants navigating career paths in the public and private sectors.
1. What is the full form of UPSC, the body that conducts the Civil Services Examination in India?
Correct Answer: a) Union Public Service Commission
Explanation:
UPSC stands for Union Public Service Commission, which is the premier central recruiting agency in India for Group A services.
2. Which of the following papers in the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination is qualifying in nature?
Correct Answer: b) General Studies Paper-II (CSAT)
Explanation:
The CSAT (General Studies Paper-II) is a qualifying paper, requiring a minimum of 33% marks for the candidate's GS Paper-I to be evaluated.
3. What is the maximum number of attempts allowed for a General Category candidate in the UPSC Civil Services Examination?
Correct Answer: c) 6
Explanation:
A General Category candidate is allowed a maximum of 6 attempts in the UPSC Civil Services Examination up to the age of 32.
4. Where is the Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration (LBSNAA) located?
Correct Answer: b) Mussoorie
Explanation:
LBSNAA, the training academy for Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officers, is located in Mussoorie, Uttarakhand.
5. Which institution conducts the SSC CGL examination?
Correct Answer: b) Staff Selection Commission
Explanation:
The SSC (Staff Selection Commission) conducts the Combined Graduate Level (CGL) examination for recruiting staff to various posts in ministries, departments, and organizations of the Government of India.
6. What is the minimum educational qualification required to apply for the SSC CHSL examination?
Correct Answer: b) 12th standard (Higher Secondary)
Explanation:
SSC CHSL stands for Combined Higher Secondary Level, and the minimum qualification required is passing the 12th standard from a recognized board.
7. Which of the following organizations conducts the IBPS PO examination?
Correct Answer: c) Institute of Banking Personnel Selection
Explanation:
The Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) conducts the Probationary Officer (PO) exam for recruiting candidates in participating public sector banks.
8. The RRB NTPC examination is conducted for recruitment in which sector?
Correct Answer: c) Railways
Explanation:
The Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) conducts the Non-Technical Popular Categories (NTPC) examination for various non-technical posts in Indian Railways.
9. Which national-level examination is required for admission to undergraduate medical courses (MBBS/BDS) in India?
Correct Answer: b) NEET UG
Explanation:
The National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET UG) is the single national-level entrance exam for admission to undergraduate medical courses in India.
10. Which agency is responsible for conducting the NEET UG and JEE Main examinations?
Correct Answer: c) NTA
Explanation:
The National Testing Agency (NTA) is an independent autonomous organization that conducts major entrance exams like NEET UG, JEE Main, and UGC NET.
11. The JEE Advanced examination is exclusively conducted for admission to which premier institutes?
Correct Answer: c) IITs
Explanation:
JEE Advanced is the second phase of the Joint Entrance Examination and is the sole prerequisite for admission to the Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs).
12. What is the full form of GATE, an examination for postgraduate engineering admissions?
Correct Answer: b) Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering
Explanation:
GATE stands for Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering, which tests the comprehensive understanding of undergraduate engineering and science subjects.
13. Apart from postgraduate admissions, GATE scores are predominantly used for recruitment by which type of organizations in India?
Correct Answer: b) Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs)
Explanation:
Many major Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) like ONGC, BHEL, and IOCL use GATE scores as a primary criterion for recruiting management trainees and executive officers.
14. Which national-level entrance exam is primarily accepted for admission to the prestigious Indian Institutes of Management (IIMs)?
Correct Answer: c) CAT
Explanation:
The Common Admission Test (CAT) is a computer-based test conducted by the IIMs for admission to their management programs.
15. The XAT (Xavier Aptitude Test) is conducted by which premier management institute?
Correct Answer: b) XLRI Jamshedpur
Explanation:
XLRI Jamshedpur conducts the Xavier Aptitude Test (XAT) on behalf of XAMI to select students for management education.
16. Which competitive exam must be cleared to seek admission into the National Law Universities (NLUs) in India for undergraduate courses?
Correct Answer: c) CLAT
Explanation:
The Common Law Admission Test (CLAT) is a centralized national level entrance test for admissions to 24 National Law Universities (NLUs) in India.
17. The AILET (All India Law Entrance Test) is exclusively conducted for admission to which law university?
Correct Answer: c) NLU Delhi
Explanation:
NLU Delhi does not participate in CLAT; instead, it conducts its own entrance exam known as the All India Law Entrance Test (AILET).
18. Which exam is conducted by the UPSC for recruitment into the Indian Military Academy, Naval Academy, and Air Force Academy?
Correct Answer: b) CDS
Explanation:
The Combined Defence Services (CDS) Examination is conducted by the UPSC for recruitment of commissioned officers in the Indian Military, Naval, and Air Force Academies.
19. The NDA (National Defence Academy) entrance examination is conducted how many times a year?
Correct Answer: b) Twice
Explanation:
The NDA exam is conducted twice a year by the UPSC for admission to the Army, Navy, and Air Force wings of the NDA.
20. Which exam evaluates candidates to determine eligibility for the post of Assistant Professor and for the Junior Research Fellowship (JRF) award?
Correct Answer: b) UGC NET
Explanation:
The University Grants Commission National Eligibility Test (UGC NET) determines the eligibility for Assistant Professor and Junior Research Fellowship.
21. For candidates from Science backgrounds, which equivalent exam to UGC NET is conducted by NTA?
Correct Answer: b) CSIR NET
Explanation:
The Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) NET is conducted for Science subjects to determine eligibility for JRF and Lectureship.
22. The Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) is conducted by which organization?
Correct Answer: c) CBSE
Explanation:
The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) conducts the Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) to determine the eligibility of teachers for Classes I to VIII.
23. What is the validity period of the CTET qualifying certificate for appointment?
Correct Answer: d) Lifetime
Explanation:
The validity period of the CTET qualifying certificate for appointment has been extended to lifetime for all categories.
24. The AFCAT examination is conducted to recruit officers in which branch of the Indian Armed Forces?
Correct Answer: c) Indian Air Force
Explanation:
The Air Force Common Admission Test (AFCAT) is conducted by the Indian Air Force to recruit officers in Flying and Ground Duty branches.
25. What does INI-CET stand for in the context of medical PG entrance exams?
Correct Answer: b) Institute of National Importance Combined Entrance Test
Explanation:
INI-CET stands for Institute of National Importance Combined Entrance Test, which is for admission to PG medical courses in AIIMS, JIPMER, PGIMER, and NIMHANS.
26. Which examination is conducted for recruitment to the post of Assistant Commandant in the Central Armed Police Forces?
Correct Answer: a) UPSC CAPF (AC)
Explanation:
The UPSC conducts the Central Armed Police Forces (Assistant Commandants) Examination to recruit officers in forces like BSF, CRPF, CISF, ITBP, and SSB.
27. The SSC MTS (Multi Tasking Staff) exam primarily recruits candidates for which level of posts?
Correct Answer: d) Group C (Non-Gazetted, Non-Ministerial)
Explanation:
SSC MTS is a national level exam conducted for the recruitment of Group C Non-Gazetted, Non-Ministerial posts in various Central Government Ministries.
28. Which public sector bank conducts its own independent recruitment exams and does not participate in the IBPS PO/Clerk exams?
Correct Answer: c) State Bank of India
Explanation:
The State Bank of India (SBI) conducts its own independent examinations for the recruitment of Probationary Officers (PO) and Junior Associates (Clerks).
29. The RBI Grade B examination recruits officers for which organization?
Correct Answer: b) Reserve Bank of India
Explanation:
The RBI Grade B exam is conducted by the Reserve Bank of India to recruit Grade B officers for various managerial roles within the central bank.
30. What is the specialized exam conducted for recruiting agriculture, IT, and law officers in public sector banks?
Correct Answer: c) IBPS SO
Explanation:
The IBPS SO (Specialist Officer) exam recruits candidates with specific qualifications like IT, Agriculture, Law, HR, and Marketing into participating banks.
31. The IBPS RRB exam is conducted specifically for recruitment in which type of banks?
Correct Answer: c) Regional Rural Banks
Explanation:
IBPS RRB (Regional Rural Banks) exams are conducted to recruit Group A Officers (Scale I, II, III) and Group B Office Assistants in RRBs across India.
32. Which of the following bodies conducts the NABARD Grade A exam?
Correct Answer: b) NABARD itself
Explanation:
The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) conducts its own recruitment exam for the post of Grade A Assistant Managers.
33. Which tier of the SSC CGL exam involves a computer-based Typing / Data Entry skill test?
Correct Answer: b) Tier II
Explanation:
Under the revised SSC CGL pattern, the Computer Knowledge and Typing Test (DEST) is conducted as part of the Tier II examination.
34. For which post under SSC CGL is the age limit exceptionally extended up to 32 years?
Correct Answer: c) Junior Statistical Officer (JSO)
Explanation:
The maximum age limit for the post of Junior Statistical Officer (JSO) under the SSC CGL exam is 32 years.
35. In the UPSC Civil Services Mains Examination, how many papers are counted for merit (excluding the qualifying language papers)?
Correct Answer: b) 7
Explanation:
The UPSC Mains has 9 papers in total, but only 7 (Essay, 4 General Studies, 2 Optional Subject papers) are counted for the final merit ranking.
36. What is the total marks allocation for the UPSC Civil Services Personality Test (Interview)?
Correct Answer: b) 275
Explanation:
The UPSC Civil Services Interview (Personality Test) carries 275 marks, bringing the grand total for merit to 2025 marks.
37. What does RRB ALP stand for in the context of railway exams?
Correct Answer: a) Railway Recruitment Board Assistant Loco Pilot
Explanation:
RRB ALP stands for Assistant Loco Pilot. The exam recruits candidates who assist the loco pilot in driving trains.
38. Which of the following tests is a mandatory psychological evaluation phase for RRB ALP candidates?
Correct Answer: a) Computer Based Aptitude Test (CBAT)
Explanation:
Candidates applying for the ALP post in Railways must clear the CBAT, which tests psychological aptitude and cognitive skills.
39. What is the minimum educational qualification for applying to the RRB Group D (Level 1) posts?
Correct Answer: b) 10th Pass (Matriculation) or ITI
Explanation:
The basic qualification required for RRB Group D posts is a 10th pass certificate or an Industrial Training Institute (ITI) certification.
40. In negative marking for mostly all RRB (Railway) exams, what fraction of marks is deducted for a wrong answer?
Correct Answer: b) 1/3
Explanation:
In RRB exams like NTPC, ALP, and Group D, 1/3rd of the marks allotted to a question are deducted for every incorrect answer.
41. Which exam acts as a single window clearance for entry into postgraduate medical courses (MD/MS) as well as a licensing exam for MBBS graduates in the future?
Correct Answer: c) NExT
Explanation:
The National Exit Test (NExT) has been proposed to act as a common qualifying final-year MBBS exam, a licentiate exam, and a PG entrance exam replacing NEET PG.
42. Total marks for the NEET UG exam are?
Correct Answer: a) 720
Explanation:
The NEET UG exam comprises 180 questions (out of 200) carrying 4 marks each, making the total maximum marks 720.
43. Which of these subjects is NOT tested in the NEET UG exam?
Correct Answer: c) Mathematics
Explanation:
NEET UG tests candidates on Physics, Chemistry, and Biology (which is divided into Botany and Zoology). Mathematics is not included.
44. The BITSAT exam is an online entrance test conducted by which institute?
Correct Answer: b) BITS Pilani
Explanation:
The Birla Institute of Technology and Science Admission Test (BITSAT) is conducted by BITS Pilani for admission to its various campuses.
45. What is the purpose of the NATA examination?
Correct Answer: b) Admission to B.Arch (Architecture) programs
Explanation:
The National Aptitude Test in Architecture (NATA) is a national level exam for admission to undergraduate courses in Architecture.
46. Which exam is widely accepted for admission to MBA programs in Symbiosis International University?
Correct Answer: c) SNAP
Explanation:
Symbiosis National Aptitude Test (SNAP) is the mandatory entrance exam for admission to MBA programs offered by institutes under Symbiosis International University.
47. The NMAT (NMIMS Management Aptitude Test) exam is now owned and conducted by which organization?
Correct Answer: c) GMAC
Explanation:
The NMAT by GMAC is a national-level MBA entrance exam owned and managed by the Graduate Management Admission Council (GMAC).
48. MAT (Management Aptitude Test) is conducted by which organization?
Correct Answer: a) All India Management Association (AIMA)
Explanation:
AIMA has been conducting the Management Aptitude Test (MAT) since 1988 to screen candidates for admission to MBA and allied programs.
49. What is the typical duration of the Common Admission Test (CAT) as per recent patterns?
Correct Answer: a) 120 minutes (2 hours)
Explanation:
Since 2020, the CAT exam duration has been reduced to 120 minutes, with 40 minutes allocated to each of the three sections.
50. How many attempts are permitted for JEE Main in a single academic year (based on recent NTA guidelines)?
Correct Answer: b) 2
Explanation:
NTA currently conducts the JEE Main examination twice a year (January and April sessions), allowing candidates two attempts per academic year.
51. For admission into which programs is the CEED (Common Entrance Exam for Design) conducted?
Correct Answer: b) M.Des and Ph.D. in Design
Explanation:
CEED is a joint entrance exam for post-graduate studies in the field of technological design (M.Des and Ph.D.) conducted by IIT Bombay.
52. Which exam is primarily meant for undergraduate admission into design programs at NIDs (National Institutes of Design)?
Correct Answer: c) NID DAT
Explanation:
The NID Design Aptitude Test (DAT) is conducted for admission to the B.Des and M.Des programs at the National Institutes of Design.
53. Which body conducts the UCEED exam for admission to B.Des programs at IITs?
Correct Answer: a) IIT Bombay
Explanation:
The Undergraduate Common Entrance Examination for Design (UCEED) is conducted by IIT Bombay for admission to B.Des programs at IITs and other participating institutes.
54. The SSC CPO (Central Police Organization) exam is primarily conducted to recruit for which position?
Correct Answer: b) Sub-Inspector in Delhi Police and CAPFs
Explanation:
The SSC CPO exam is conducted for the recruitment of Sub-Inspectors (SI) in Delhi Police and various Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs).
55. SSC Stenographer exams are conducted for which specific grades?
Correct Answer: c) Grade C and D
Explanation:
The SSC conducts the Stenographer examination for the recruitment of Stenographer Grade 'C' (Group B Non-Gazetted) and Grade 'D' (Group C) posts.
56. What is the age limit for general category candidates applying for the NDA exam?
Correct Answer: a) 16.5 to 19.5 years
Explanation:
Candidates applying for the National Defence Academy (NDA) must be unmarried males/females between the ages of 16.5 and 19.5 years.
57. In the SSB (Services Selection Board) interview for defense exams, how many days does the process usually take?
Correct Answer: c) 5 days
Explanation:
The SSB interview is an extensive personality and intelligence assessment that takes place over a period of 5 days.
58. The INET exam is conducted for officer level recruitment in which defense force?
Correct Answer: b) Indian Navy
Explanation:
The Indian Navy Entrance Test (INET) is an officers' entry exam conducted by the Indian Navy for various branches.
59. The Territorial Army (TA) exam is unique because its age limit for civilian candidates is?
Correct Answer: b) 18 to 42 years
Explanation:
The Territorial Army invites gainfully employed citizens to serve part-time. The age limit for civilian candidates is 18 to 42 years.
60. Which of the following describes the validity of a GATE score?
Correct Answer: c) 3 years
Explanation:
A GATE score card is valid for 3 years from the date of announcement of the results.
61. Which national level exam is conducted for admission to undergraduate agriculture programs in India?
Correct Answer: b) ICAR AIEEA
Explanation:
The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) conducts the All India Entrance Examination for Admission (AIEEA) for UG and PG agricultural programs.
62. The CMAT (Common Management Admission Test) is conducted by which organization?
Correct Answer: c) NTA
Explanation:
The National Testing Agency (NTA) conducts the CMAT to facilitate AICTE-affiliated institutions to select graduate candidates for management courses.
63. Which section is unique to the XAT exam compared to the CAT exam?
Correct Answer: b) Decision Making
Explanation:
XAT includes a unique 'Decision Making' section that tests candidates on ethical dilemmas and business decision scenarios, which is not present in CAT.
64. For admission into the Indian Institute of Foreign Trade (IIFT), how are candidates primarily selected as of the latest updates?
Correct Answer: b) Through CAT scores
Explanation:
Recently, IIFT canceled its separate entrance exam and decided to accept CAT scores for MBA (International Business) admissions.
65. What is the full form of SBI PO?
Correct Answer: b) State Bank of India Probationary Officer
Explanation:
SBI PO stands for State Bank of India Probationary Officer, an entry-level managerial position in the bank.
66. In IBPS PO exams, which of the following is evaluated in the Descriptive Test?
Correct Answer: b) English Letter Writing and Essay
Explanation:
The IBPS PO Mains exam includes a Descriptive Test to evaluate candidates' English writing skills through an Essay and a Letter writing task.
67. How long is the validity of the IBPS score card for PO/Clerk positions?
Correct Answer: b) 1 year (from April 1st of the financial year)
Explanation:
The IBPS scorecard is valid for one financial year (until March 31st of the following year) for the allotment process.
68. Which exam evaluates candidates for the position of Assistant in the Life Insurance Corporation of India?
Correct Answer: c) LIC Assistant
Explanation:
The LIC Assistant exam is specifically conducted by the Life Insurance Corporation of India to recruit candidates for clerical duties.
69. LIC AAO stands for?
Correct Answer: a) Life Insurance Corporation Assistant Administrative Officer
Explanation:
LIC AAO stands for Assistant Administrative Officer, a prestigious officer-level post in the Life Insurance Corporation.
70. Which regulatory body conducts the Grade A Officer exam for the Securities Market in India?
Correct Answer: c) SEBI
Explanation:
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) conducts the Grade A Officer (Assistant Manager) exam to recruit professionals for market regulation.
71. FCI (Food Corporation of India) recruits candidates under various categories (Category I, II, III). Which agency historically conducts its computer-based test?
Correct Answer: c) IBPS
Explanation:
The Food Corporation of India (FCI) typically partners with IBPS to conduct its national-level computer-based recruitment examinations.
72. The SSC JE (Junior Engineer) exam requires a degree or diploma in which of the following streams?
Correct Answer: a) Civil, Mechanical, and Electrical only
Explanation:
The SSC JE exam specifically recruits Junior Engineers with diplomas or degrees in Civil, Mechanical, and Electrical engineering disciplines.
73. For recruitment into the Indian Foreign Service (IFS), which exam must a candidate clear?
Correct Answer: a) UPSC Civil Services Exam
Explanation:
The Indian Foreign Service (IFS) officers are recruited through the UPSC Civil Services Examination alongside IAS and IPS.
74. UPSC also conducts a separate preliminary exam combined with the Civil Services Prelims for which other all-India service?
Correct Answer: b) Indian Forest Service (IFoS)
Explanation:
The Preliminary exam for the Indian Forest Service (IFoS) is the same as the Civil Services Prelims, though the cutoff is usually higher.
75. What is the purpose of the UPSC IES/ISS examination?
Correct Answer: b) To recruit Indian Economic Service and Indian Statistical Service officers
Explanation:
UPSC conducts the IES/ISS exam to recruit Grade A officers into the Indian Economic Service and the Indian Statistical Service.
76. The ESE (Engineering Services Examination) conducted by UPSC is primarily for:
Correct Answer: b) Group A engineering posts in central government departments like Railways, CPWD
Explanation:
UPSC ESE recruits engineers for prestigious Group A/B posts in technical departments of the Government of India.
77. What is the IB ACIO exam?
Correct Answer: a) Recruitment for Assistant Central Intelligence Officer in the Intelligence Bureau
Explanation:
The Ministry of Home Affairs conducts the IB ACIO exam to recruit Grade II Executive officers in the Intelligence Bureau.
78. The EPF (Employees' Provident Fund Organization) conducts the SSA exam. What does SSA stand for?
Correct Answer: b) Social Security Assistant
Explanation:
EPFO recruits Social Security Assistants (SSA) to handle provident fund accounts and beneficiary issues.
79. The EPFO also conducts recruitment for a prestigious Group A equivalent post through UPSC. What is this post?
Correct Answer: b) Enforcement Officer/Accounts Officer (EO/AO)
Explanation:
UPSC conducts a direct recruitment exam for the post of Enforcement Officer/Accounts Officer (EO/AO) in the EPFO.
80. In the CLAT UG exam, which of the following subjects tests the candidate's understanding of passages related to current events and laws?
Correct Answer: b) Legal Reasoning
Explanation:
The Legal Reasoning section in CLAT tests the ability to read legal passages and apply the principles to given factual scenarios.
81. Which private law entrance exam is conducted by the Law School Admission Council (LSAC) for various private law colleges in India?
Correct Answer: c) LSAT India
Explanation:
LSAT India is a standardized test of reading and reasoning skills used for admission to multiple private law colleges in India, administered by Pearson VUE for LSAC.
82. State-level TETs (Teacher Eligibility Tests) like UPTET and REET are essential for becoming a teacher in which types of schools?
Correct Answer: b) State government and state-aided schools
Explanation:
State TETs certify candidates to teach in primary and upper primary classes in schools run by or aided by the respective state governments.
83. Which of the following bodies conducts the CGL, CHSL, and MTS exams?
Correct Answer: c) SSC
Explanation:
The Staff Selection Commission (SSC) conducts the CGL, CHSL, and MTS examinations for various government posts.
84. In competitive banking exams like IBPS PO, which section is typically absent in the Preliminary phase but present in the Mains?
Correct Answer: d) General/Financial Awareness
Explanation:
General, Economy, and Financial Awareness is tested in the Mains phase, whereas the Prelims only consist of English, Reasoning, and Quantitative Aptitude.
85. For RRB Group D physical efficiency tests (PET), male candidates are generally required to run 1000 meters in how much time?
Correct Answer: b) 4 minutes 15 seconds
Explanation:
Male candidates must run 1000 meters in 4 minutes and 15 seconds in one chance during the RRB Group D PET.
86. The JIPMER MBBS entrance exam was replaced by which unified entrance exam?
Correct Answer: b) NEET UG
Explanation:
The JIPMER and AIIMS separate undergraduate entrance exams were scrapped, and admission is now done exclusively through NEET UG.
87. What is the purpose of the FMGE exam conducted by the National Board of Examinations (NBE)?
Correct Answer: b) A screening test for Indian citizens holding medical degrees from foreign universities to practice in India
Explanation:
The Foreign Medical Graduate Examination (FMGE) is a screening test for Indian citizens who possess a medical qualification from outside India and wish to practice in India.
88. In the context of management exams, which of the following is true about the GMAT?
Correct Answer: b) It is a global exam accepted by many Indian business schools for executive programs.
Explanation:
The Graduate Management Admission Test (GMAT) is an international exam. In India, it is widely accepted for Executive MBAs and by private schools like ISB.
89. The ISB (Indian School of Business) primarily accepts scores from which two exams for its flagship PGP program?
Correct Answer: b) GMAT and GRE
Explanation:
ISB requires candidates to submit a valid GMAT or GRE score for admission to its Post Graduate Programme in Management (PGP).
90. The MHT CET is a state-level entrance exam conducted for admission to engineering and pharmacy colleges in which state?
Correct Answer: b) Maharashtra
Explanation:
Maharashtra Common Entrance Test (MHT CET) is the state-level exam for admissions to B.E./B.Tech, B.Pharm, and agricultural courses in Maharashtra.
91. Which of the following states conducts the WBJEE for engineering admissions?
Correct Answer: a) West Bengal
Explanation:
The West Bengal Joint Entrance Examinations Board conducts the WBJEE for admission to undergraduate courses in engineering and technology in West Bengal.
92. In the UPSC Civil Services Exam, what is the 'Indian Heritage and Culture, History and Geography of the World and Society' paper commonly known as?
Correct Answer: a) General Studies Paper I
Explanation:
In the Mains exam, General Studies Paper I covers History, Geography, and Indian Society/Culture.
93. Which General Studies paper in the UPSC Mains focuses on 'Ethics, Integrity and Aptitude'?
Correct Answer: d) GS Paper IV
Explanation:
General Studies Paper IV is dedicated to Ethics, Integrity, and Aptitude, evaluating a candidate's moral reasoning and problem-solving in governance.
94. Which constitutional article empowers the UPSC to conduct examinations for appointments to the services of the Union?
Correct Answer: c) Article 320
Explanation:
Article 320 of the Indian Constitution lays down the functions of the Public Service Commissions, which includes conducting examinations for appointments to the services.
95. For the CDS (Combined Defence Services) exam, which academy allows entry for female candidates?
Correct Answer: d) Officers Training Academy (OTA)
Explanation:
Female candidates applying through the CDS exam are only eligible for the Short Service Commission Non-Technical course at the Officers Training Academy (OTA).
96. In the banking sector, what does the acronym CRARP stand for in relation to the IBPS common recruitment process?
Correct Answer: b) Common Recruitment Process for Regional Rural Banks
Explanation:
IBPS CRP RRB stands for Common Recruitment Process for Regional Rural Banks, conducted for hiring in Gramin Banks.
97. Which of the following competitive exams is NOT conducted by the NTA?
Correct Answer: c) GATE
Explanation:
GATE is jointly conducted by the Indian Institute of Science (IISc) and seven Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs), not the NTA.
98. What is the purpose of the CUET examination?
Correct Answer: a) Central Universities Entrance Test for undergraduate and postgraduate admissions
Explanation:
CUET (Common University Entrance Test) is an all-India test organized by NTA for admission to various Under-Graduate, Post-Graduate, and Research Programmes in Central Universities.
99. How many participating National Law Universities currently accept CLAT scores for their UG programs?
Correct Answer: c) 24
Explanation:
Currently, 24 National Law Universities (NLUs) in India participate in the centralized Common Law Admission Test (CLAT).
100. The SSC GD (General Duty) exam recruits constables for which organizations?
Correct Answer: b) Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs), SSF, and Assam Rifles
Explanation:
SSC GD is conducted to recruit Constables (General Duty) in various CAPFs, NIA, SSF, and Rifleman (GD) in Assam Rifles.
101. What is the highest post offered through the SSC CGL examination (in terms of grade pay)?
Correct Answer: b) Assistant Audit Officer / Assistant Accounts Officer
Explanation:
The AAO (Assistant Audit Officer and Assistant Accounts Officer) posts under CAG are the only Gazetted (Group B) posts in SSC CGL and carry the highest grade pay (4800).
102. Which of the following is required for a candidate applying for the Indian Police Service (IPS) physically?
Correct Answer: b) Strict height and chest measurement standards
Explanation:
Unlike the IAS, the IPS has specific physical requirements including minimum height, chest girth, and eyesight standards.
103. The Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy (SVPNPA), where IPS officers are trained, is located in:
Correct Answer: c) Hyderabad
Explanation:
SVPNPA, the premier police training institution in India for IPS officers, is situated in Hyderabad, Telangana.
104. Candidates clearing the Indian Forest Service (IFoS) exam are trained at the Indira Gandhi National Forest Academy (IGNFA) located in:
Correct Answer: a) Dehradun
Explanation:
The IGNFA is situated in Dehradun, Uttarakhand, and provides training to the officers of the Indian Forest Service.
105. Which section is NOT a part of the standard CAT (Common Admission Test) paper?
Correct Answer: d) General Awareness (GA)
Explanation:
The CAT exam evaluates candidates on VARC, DILR, and QA. It does not contain a General Awareness section, unlike XAT or CMAT.
106. What does SLET/SET stand for in the context of academic examinations in India?
Correct Answer: a) State Level Eligibility Test
Explanation:
SLET or SET stands for State Level Eligibility Test, which determines the eligibility for Assistant Professorship within a specific state's universities and colleges.
107. Which of these exams is the premier gateway for securing a job as a scientist or engineer in ISRO?
Correct Answer: a) ICRB (ISRO Centralized Recruitment Board) Exam
Explanation:
ISRO conducts its own recruitment through the ISRO Centralized Recruitment Board (ICRB) exam for Scientists/Engineers, often taking candidates with or without GATE scores depending on the cycle.
108. What is the maximum age limit for general category candidates applying for the JRF (Junior Research Fellowship) through UGC NET?
Correct Answer: b) 30 years
Explanation:
The maximum age limit for applying for the JRF for general category candidates is typically 30 years (with relaxations for reserved categories). There is no age limit for the Assistant Professor role.
109. A candidate clearing the UGC NET exam receives the JRF. What does JRF stand for?
Correct Answer: b) Junior Research Fellowship
Explanation:
JRF stands for Junior Research Fellowship, which provides financial assistance to candidates pursuing advanced research (M.Phil/Ph.D.).
110. The RPF (Railway Protection Force) Sub-Inspector (SI) exam is conducted by:
Correct Answer: c) Ministry of Railways (RRB)
Explanation:
Recruitment for the Railway Protection Force (RPF), including Constables and Sub-Inspectors, is conducted by the Ministry of Railways through RRBs.
111. Which examination must law graduates clear to practice law in courts across India after obtaining their degree?
Correct Answer: b) AIBE
Explanation:
The All India Bar Examination (AIBE) is a certification exam conducted by the Bar Council of India that law graduates must pass to obtain the 'Certificate of Practice'.
112. Which of the following tests is conducted by the Indian Coast Guard for the recruitment of Assistant Commandants?
Correct Answer: a) CGCAT (Coast Guard Common Admission Test)
Explanation:
The Indian Coast Guard conducts the CGCAT (Coast Guard Common Admission Test) for the recruitment of General Duty officers (Assistant Commandants).
113. In the context of the JEE examination, which paper is specifically designed for students seeking admission to B.Arch programs?
Correct Answer: b) JEE Main Paper 2A
Explanation:
JEE Main Paper 2A is conducted for admission to B.Arch programs, while Paper 2B is for B.Planning.
114. The NIMCET exam is an entrance test for admission to which post-graduate course?
Correct Answer: b) MCA (Master of Computer Applications) in NITs
Explanation:
NIMCET is the NIT MCA Common Entrance Test, conducted by the National Institutes of Technology for admission to their MCA programs.
115. Which organization conducts the recruitment for the post of Grade A / B Officers in the Intelligence Bureau (IB)?
Correct Answer: b) Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA)
Explanation:
The Ministry of Home Affairs directly conducts the recruitment exams, such as ACIO, for the Intelligence Bureau.
116. The KVPY (Kishore Vaigyanik Protsahan Yojana) was a national program fellowship in Basic Sciences. It was recently subsumed into which program?
Correct Answer: a) INSPIRE
Explanation:
The KVPY fellowship scheme has been subsumed into the INSPIRE (Innovation in Science Pursuit for Inspired Research) program by the Department of Science and Technology.
117. The NTSE (National Talent Search Examination) is conducted by NCERT for students studying in which class?
Correct Answer: b) Class 10
Explanation:
NTSE is a national-level scholarship program conducted for students studying in Class 10 to identify and nurture high intellectual ability.
118. In the SSC CHSL exam, what does the skill test/typing test evaluate?
Correct Answer: b) Typing speed in English or Hindi on a computer
Explanation:
The Tier-II of SSC CHSL includes a Skill Test/Typing Test where candidates must demonstrate a specific typing speed in English or Hindi on a computer.
119. What is the primary function of the UPPSC (Uttar Pradesh Public Service Commission) exams, similar to the UPSC?
Correct Answer: b) Recruitment of state civil services officers like SDM and DSP
Explanation:
UPPSC conducts the Provincial Civil Services (PCS) exam to recruit Group A and B officers for state administration, such as Deputy Collectors (SDM) and Deputy Superintendents of Police (DSP).
