The Staff Selection Commission Multi-Tasking Staff (SSC MTS) examination is structured into a streamlined computer-based test divided into two mandatory sessions. Understanding the precise session-wise blueprint, sectional question distribution, and negative marking regulations is essential for optimizing time management and securing selection for General Central Service Group-C non-gazetted, non-ministerial posts. Session 1 evaluates basic quantitative and reasoning aptitude without negative marking, while Session 2 tests general awareness and English language proficiency with strict penalty rules. Mastery of this structural framework allows candidates to approach the exam with an effective, high-scoring strategy.
1. What is the conducting body of the SSC MTS examination?
Correct Answer: b) Staff Selection Commission
Explanation:
The Staff Selection Commission (SSC) is responsible for conducting the Multi-Tasking (Non-Technical) Staff and Havaldar examination.
2. What is the minimum educational qualification required to apply for the SSC MTS exam?
Correct Answer: c) Passed 10th Standard (Matriculation)
Explanation:
Candidates must have passed the 10th standard or equivalent examination from a recognized board to be eligible for SSC MTS.
3. How many sessions are there in the computer-based examination of the SSC MTS paper?
Correct Answer: b) Two sessions
Explanation:
The SSC MTS computer-based test is conducted in two mandatory sessions (Session I and Session II) on the same day.
4. Which subjects are included in Session I of the SSC MTS exam?
Correct Answer: b) Numerical & Mathematical Ability and Reasoning Ability & Problem-Solving
Explanation:
Session I of the SSC MTS exam comprises Numerical & Mathematical Ability and Reasoning Ability & Problem-Solving.
5. Which subjects are included in Session II of the SSC MTS exam?
Correct Answer: b) General Awareness and English Language & Comprehension
Explanation:
Session II covers General Awareness and English Language & Comprehension, each consisting of 25 questions.
6. What is the total number of questions in the SSC MTS computer-based examination?
Correct Answer: b) 90 questions
Explanation:
The exam features a total of 90 questions (40 in Session I and 50 in Session II).
7. What is the total marks weightage for the SSC MTS computer-based examination?
Correct Answer: c) 270 marks
Explanation:
Session I carries 120 marks and Session II carries 150 marks, making a total of 270 marks.
8. Is there negative marking in Session I of the SSC MTS exam?
Correct Answer: c) No negative marking is applicable in Session I
Explanation:
Session I of the SSC MTS exam has no negative marking, whereas Session II carries negative marking.
9. What is the negative marking scheme for Session II of the SSC MTS exam?
Correct Answer: b) 1 mark for each incorrect answer
Explanation:
In Session II, 1 mark is deducted for every incorrect response.
10. How many marks are awarded for each correct answer in the SSC MTS exam?
Correct Answer: c) 3 marks
Explanation:
Each correct answer carries 3 marks across both sessions of the updated exam pattern.
11. What is the time duration allotted for each session of the SSC MTS computer-based test?
Correct Answer: b) 45 minutes
Explanation:
Candidates are given 45 minutes to complete Session I, and a separate 45 minutes for Session II.
12. What is the age limit range generally specified for the standard Multi-Tasking Staff (MTS) posts?
Correct Answer: a) 18 to 25 years
Explanation:
The age limit for certain categories of MTS posts is typically 18 to 25 years, while some posts extend up to 27 years.
13. Which additional physical test is mandatory for candidates applying for the post of Havaldar through SSC?
Correct Answer: b) Physical Efficiency Test (PET) / Physical Standard Test (PST)
Explanation:
Candidates aiming for the Havaldar post must qualify the Physical Efficiency Test (PET) and Physical Standard Test (PST).
14. In how many regional languages, besides Hindi and English, is the SSC MTS computer-based exam conducted?
Correct Answer: c) 13 regional languages
Explanation:
The examination is conducted in English, Hindi, and 13 regional languages to accommodate diverse candidates.
15. What type of questions are asked in the SSC MTS Paper 1 examination?
Correct Answer: b) Multiple-Choice Questions (MCQs)
Explanation:
The computer-based test exclusively features objective type multiple-choice questions.
16. Which of the following topics is part of the Numerical and Mathematical Ability syllabus?
Correct Answer: b) BODMAS and Whole Numbers
Explanation:
Fundamental arithmetic operations, BODMAS, integers, and whole numbers fall under Numerical and Mathematical Ability.
17. Which of the following is evaluated under Reasoning Ability and Problem-Solving?
Correct Answer: b) Alpha-numeric series and directions
Explanation:
Reasoning covers logical puzzles, coding-decoding, alpha-numeric series, and direction sense tests.
18. The General Awareness section in SSC MTS majorly tests knowledge up to which standard?
Correct Answer: b) 10th Standard level
Explanation:
General Awareness questions are broadly based on social studies, general science, and environmental studies up to the 10th standard level.
19. What is tested under the English Language and Comprehension section?
Correct Answer: b) Basic vocabulary, grammar, and sentence structure
Explanation:
English Language checks grammar, vocabulary usage, sentence structure, synonyms, antonyms, and reading comprehension.
20. What is the age relaxation provided to SC/ST candidates for the SSC MTS exam?
Correct Answer: b) 5 years
Explanation:
Scheduled Caste (SC) and Scheduled Tribe (ST) candidates receive an upper age relaxation of 5 years.
21. What is the age relaxation provided to OBC candidates for the SSC MTS exam?
Correct Answer: a) 3 years
Explanation:
Other Backward Classes (OBC) candidates are granted an upper age relaxation of 3 years.
22. Are female candidates required to pay the application fee for the SSC MTS examination?
Correct Answer: c) No, they are exempted from the application fee
Explanation:
Female candidates, along with candidates belonging to SC, ST, PwBD, and Ex-servicemen, are exempt from paying the application fee.
23. What is the standard application fee for unreserved male candidates in the SSC MTS exam?
Correct Answer: b) Rs. 100
Explanation:
The application fee for general and unreserved male candidates is Rs. 100.
24. To which recruitment group does the SSC MTS post belong?
Correct Answer: c) Group C
Explanation:
SSC MTS positions fall under Group 'C' non-gazetted, non-ministerial posts in various central government departments.
25. What happens if a candidate fails to attempt either Session I or Session II of the computer-based exam?
Correct Answer: b) The candidate is disqualified
Explanation:
Both sessions are mandatory; failing to attempt either session results in immediate disqualification.
26. What is the walking criterion for male candidates during the Havaldar PET test?
Correct Answer: b) 1600 meters in 15 minutes
Explanation:
Male candidates for the Havaldar post must cover a walking distance of 1600 meters in 15 minutes.
27. What is the walking criterion for female candidates during the Havaldar PET test?
Correct Answer: a) 1000 meters in 20 minutes
Explanation:
Female candidates applying for Havaldar must complete a walking distance of 1000 meters in 20 minutes.
28. What is the minimum height requirement for male candidates applying for the Havaldar post (without general relaxations)?
Correct Answer: b) 157.5 cms
Explanation:
The standard minimum height requirement for male Havaldar candidates is 157.5 cms.
29. What is the minimum height requirement for female candidates applying for the Havaldar post?
Correct Answer: b) 152.0 cms
Explanation:
The standard minimum height requirement for female candidates for the Havaldar post is 152.0 cms.
30. Which of the following describes the numerical ability level expected in SSC MTS?
Correct Answer: b) Basic arithmetic and computational skills
Explanation:
The numerical section tests foundational arithmetic, percentages, ratios, averages, and time-work problems.
31. Which simplification rule is explicitly mentioned in the numerical ability syllabus?
Correct Answer: a) BODMAS
Explanation:
Fundamental arithmetic operations and the BODMAS rule form a core part of the syllabus.
32. Which of the following topics belongs to General Science under General Awareness?
Correct Answer: b) Physics, Chemistry, and Biology concepts up to 10th standard
Explanation:
General Science covers elementary physics, chemistry, and life sciences taught up to the matriculation level.
33. What does static GK in the context of SSC exams typically include?
Correct Answer: b) National parks, dances, festivals, and monuments
Explanation:
Static GK deals with unchanging factual information like Indian art, culture, sanctuaries, dams, and international organizations.
34. Why is time management crucial in Session I of the SSC MTS exam?
Correct Answer: a) Because there are 40 questions to solve in 45 minutes without negative marking pressure
Explanation:
Candidates must solve 40 math and reasoning questions within a strict 45-minute window.
35. What is the primary role of an employee selected under SSC MTS?
Correct Answer: b) Handling routine office duties, upkeep of records, and administrative tasks
Explanation:
Multi-Tasking Staff handle general administration, file maintenance, routine office work, and branch upkeep.
36. What is the primary duty associated with an SSC Havaldar in CBIC or CBN?
Correct Answer: b) Physical security, guarding, and assisting in preventive operations
Explanation:
Havaldars deployed in the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) or Narcotics (CBN) handle security and surveillance tasks.
37. Which online portal is used by candidates to submit their application forms for SSC exams?
Correct Answer: a) ssc.gov.in / ssc.nic.in portal
Explanation:
Candidates must register and submit online applications through the official Staff Selection Commission website.
38. What document is mandatory for identity verification at the SSC MTS exam center?
Correct Answer: a) Valid photo-bearing government ID proof (Aadhaar, Voter ID, PAN, etc.)
Explanation:
A valid government-issued photo identity card matching the admission certificate details is mandatory for entry.
39. What is the penalty if a candidate uses unfair means during the computer-based exam?
Correct Answer: b> Debarment from SSC examinations for a specified period
Explanation:
Malpractice or unfair means leads to immediate disqualification and long-term debarment from future SSC tests.
40. Which of the following best describes the difficulty level of the SSC MTS exam?
Correct Answer: b) Easy to moderate, focusing on core concepts
Explanation:
The exam is designed for matriculate candidates, keeping the overall difficulty level easy to moderate.
41. What is the significance of the normalization process in SSC computer-based multi-shift exams?
Correct Answer: a) It adjusts scores across different shifts based on difficulty levels to ensure fairness
Explanation:
Normalization standardizes scores across multiple shifts with varying paper difficulty levels.
42. How are candidates shortlisted for the final merit list in SSC MTS (non-Havaldar posts)?
Correct Answer: a) Based purely on performance in Session II (subject to qualifying Session I)
Explanation:
Session I acts as a qualifying filter, while the merit list is prepared based on marks scored in Session II (General Awareness and English).
43. Which of the following topics is included under History in the SSC MTS General Awareness syllabus?
Correct Answer: b) Ancient, Medieval, and Modern Indian History including the freedom struggle
Explanation:
History covers major historical periods of India, emphasizing the Indian national movement and freedom struggle.
44. What does Geography under SSC General Awareness primarily cover?
Correct Answer: b) Physical, social, and economic geography of India and the world
Explanation:
Geography questions explore rivers, climate, soils, mountains, population, and economic resources.
45. Which Indian polity topic is frequently tested in SSC MTS?
Correct Answer: b) Indian Constitution, Fundamental Rights, and parliamentary structure
Explanation:
Polity questions revolve around the Constitution, schedules, articles, fundamental rights, and political bodies.
46. What does Indian Economy cover within the SSC MTS syllabus?
Correct Answer: a) Basic economic concepts, five-year plans, poverty, and budgeting
Explanation:
Economy questions test elementary principles, national income basics, inflation, planning, and government welfare schemes.
47. Which type of reasoning question involves identifying the odd figure or word out of a set?
Correct Answer: a) Classification / Odd One Out
Explanation:
Classification tests ask candidates to spot the item or number that does not share the common property of the group.
48. What is a 'Blood Relation' problem in reasoning designed to evaluate?
Correct Answer: b) Analytical capability to decipher family tree relationships
Explanation:
Blood relation tests check how well a candidate can trace generational links and familial connections from given clues.
49. What do coding-decoding questions evaluate in reasoning?
Correct Answer: b) Logical pattern recognition in letter or number substitutes
Explanation:
Coding-decoding checks the candidate's ability to decode rule-based letter shifts or numerical substitutions.
50. What is the objective of sentence improvement questions in English?
Correct Answer: b) To replace an underlined phrase with a grammatically correct alternative
Explanation:
Sentence improvement evaluates command over grammar by asking candidates to fix flawed phrases.
51. What do 'Idioms and Phrases' questions test in the English section?
Correct Answer: b) Understanding of figurative expressions and common sayings
Explanation:
Idioms and phrases test familiarity with popular figurative sayings and their exact implied meanings.
52. What is 'One-Word Substitution' in competitive English tests?
Correct Answer: a) Replacing a long descriptive phrase or definition with a single precise word
Explanation:
One-word substitution checks vocabulary depth by matching definitions with their precise single-word terms.
53. Why are previous years' question papers recommended for SSC MTS preparation?
Correct Answer: b) They help understand repeating question trends, difficulty levels, and time management
Explanation:
Practicing past papers builds familiarity with exam formats, high-yield topics, and speed requirements.
54. What is the significance of mock tests in SSC MTS preparation?
Correct Answer: a) They simulate actual computer-based test conditions and build exam temperament
Explanation:
Mock tests help aspirants manage time across sessions, evaluate accuracy, and identify weak areas.
55. What role do current affairs play in the SSC MTS General Awareness section?
Correct Answer: a) They constitute a substantial portion of questions regarding national and international events
Explanation:
Current affairs cover recent awards, sports, government schemes, summits, and national developments.
56. Which of the following describes a 'Percentage' problem in arithmetic?
Correct Answer: a) Calculating fractions and proportions relative to a base of 100
Explanation:
Percentages involve finding parts per hundred, percentage increase/decrease, and related application sums.
57. What does 'Ratio and Proportion' deal with in quantitative aptitude?
Correct Answer: a) Comparing quantities of the same units and equality of ratios
Explanation:
Ratio and proportion questions solve distribution, partnership, and relative quantity problems.
58. What is the core focus of 'Time and Work' problems in math?
Correct Answer: a) Calculating the time taken by individuals or groups to complete tasks individually or jointly
Explanation:
Time and work problems utilize efficiency rates and man-days formulas to determine completion times.
59. What do 'Speed, Time, and Distance' questions measure?
Correct Answer: a) Relationships between traveling speed, elapsed time, and distance covered
Explanation:
These problems apply fundamental kinematic formulas involving relative speed, trains, and streams.
60. What is the purpose of 'Average' calculations in arithmetic?
Correct Answer: a) Finding the arithmetic mean of a given set of numerical values
Explanation:
Averages involve summing quantities and dividing by the total count, along with weighted average applications.
61. What are 'Profit and Loss' problems designed to test?
Correct Answer: a) Commercial calculations involving cost price, selling price, markup, and discount percentages
Explanation:
Profit and loss questions test commercial arithmetic regarding buying, selling, margins, and successive discounts.
62. What is tested under 'Discount' and 'Simple/Compound Interest'?
Correct Answer: a) Interest accrual over time and markdown calculations
Explanation:
Interest and discount problems evaluate financial mathematics formulas for principal, rate, time, and interest.
63. What is the focus of 'Mensuration' questions in basic SSC math?
Correct Answer: a) Calculating areas, perimeters, and volumes of 2D and 3D geometric shapes
Explanation:
Mensuration covers formulas for squares, rectangles, circles, cylinders, cones, spheres, and cubes.
64. What do LCM and HCF concepts deal with in number systems?
Correct Answer: a) Lowest Common Multiple and Highest Common Factor of integer sets
Explanation:
LCM and HCF questions test divisibility rules, prime factorization, and LCM-HCF relationship properties.
65. What is evaluated in 'Decimals and Fractions'?
Correct Answer: a) Arithmetic operations and conversions involving decimal numbers and vulgar fractions
Explanation:
Decimals and fractions test basic fractional arithmetic, recurring decimals, and comparisons.
66. What is the function of the normalization formula in ensuring fair selection?
Correct Answer: a) It scales scores to account for varying difficulty levels across multiple exam shifts
Explanation:
Normalization mathematically balances out discrepancies caused by varying paper difficulties across exam shifts.
67. Why is it important to check the official SSC website regularly during the recruitment cycle?
Correct Answer: a) To stay updated on exam date announcements, admit cards, answer keys, and result declarations
Explanation:
Official notifications, status checks, admit cards, and final results are published directly on the SSC portal.
68. What does a candidate receive after successfully clearing all stages of the SSC MTS recruitment process?
Correct Answer: a) An offer of appointment to Group C posts in central government ministries/departments
Explanation:
Successful candidates are recommended for appointment as Multi-Tasking Staff or Havaldar in central government offices.
69. What is the primary language medium for the descriptive or written understanding tested in English?
Correct Answer: a) English
Explanation:
The English Language and Comprehension paper is conducted exclusively in English.
70. Can PwBD (Persons with Benchmark Disabilities) candidates avail extra time during the sessions?
Correct Answer: a) Yes, additional time such as 60 minutes is allotted to eligible candidates
Explanation:
Eligible PwBD candidates and scribes are provided extended duration (60 minutes per session) as per guidelines.
71. What is the primary purpose of the provisional answer key released after the CBT?
Correct Answer: a) To allow candidates to review answers and submit representations against discrepancies
Explanation:
The provisional answer key gives candidates a chance to challenge any incorrect official answers with proof.
72. How are correct answers scored in Session II where negative marking applies?
Correct Answer: a) +3 marks for correct, -1 mark for incorrect
Explanation:
Session II awards 3 marks for every correct answer and deducts 1 mark for every wrong answer.
73. What does 'Syllogism' test in the reasoning section?
Correct Answer: a) Logical deduction of conclusions from given statements
Explanation:
Syllogism questions require candidates to determine whether logical conclusions follow from premise statements.
74. What do non-verbal reasoning mirror image and paper folding tests evaluate?
Correct Answer: a) Visual and spatial aptitude through geometrical patterns
Explanation:
Non-verbal tests check spatial visualization, symmetry, mirror reflections, and pattern completion.
75. Why are static GK topics like national parks and folk dances important for SSC MTS?
Correct Answer: a) They form a major, direct scoring block within the General Awareness section
Explanation:
Factual static GK questions frequently appear in General Awareness and are crucial for boosting scores.
76. What is the focus of awards and honors questions in current affairs?
Correct Answer: a) Recognition of prominent civilian, sports, literary, and scientific achievements nationally and globally
Explanation:
Questions highlight recipients of prestigious awards like Padma honors, national sports awards, and global prizes.
77. What do sports-related current affairs questions typically cover?
Correct Answer: a) Major international tournaments, winners, records, and national sports trophies
Explanation:
Sports awareness tests knowledge of recent championships, Olympic events, cricket tournaments, and athlete achievements.
78. What is the significance of government schemes in the General Awareness section?
Correct Answer: a) They evaluate awareness of major welfare, financial inclusion, and developmental initiatives launched by the state
Explanation:
Central government welfare schemes, flagship programs, and socioeconomic initiatives form a core part of current affairs.
79. What is tested in reading comprehension passages in the English section?
Correct Answer: a) Ability to read a passage and answer questions based on its core themes and details
Explanation:
Reading comprehension assesses how well a candidate extracts information, infers meaning, and understands text.
80. What is the purpose of spelling-check questions in English?
Correct Answer: a) Identifying correctly or incorrectly spelled words among options
Explanation:
Spell check questions test orthographic accuracy by spotting misspellings or correct spellings of common words.
81. What does a 'Fill in the Blanks' question in English assess?
Correct Answer: a) Command over contextual vocabulary, prepositions, articles, and grammar
Explanation:
Fill in the blanks require selecting the most contextually and grammatically appropriate word for a sentence.
82. What are Synonyms and Antonyms used to test in the English exam?
Correct Answer: a) Lexical range through words with similar (synonyms) or opposite (antonyms) meanings
Explanation:
Synonyms and antonyms evaluate vocabulary breadth by testing word meanings and direct opposites.
83. Why is regular revision important for clearing the SSC MTS examination?
Correct Answer: a) It reinforces factual retention across vast static GK and formula-based math topics
Explanation:
Consistent revision ensures formulas, historical dates, and vocabulary are readily recalled during the timed test.
84. What is the recommended approach for tackling quantitative aptitude questions in SSC MTS?
Correct Answer: a) Memorizing shortcuts, practicing fundamental formulas, and managing time efficiently
Explanation:
Using shortcut methods and strong foundational arithmetic skills helps maximize attempts within the 45-minute limit.
85. What is the best way to prepare for the General Awareness section?
Correct Answer: a) Reading daily current affairs, static GK compendiums, and standard 10th-level NCERT social science books
Explanation:
A balanced mix of static GK, daily current affairs updates, and basic school-level social studies ensures comprehensive coverage.
86. What is the benefit of analyzing mock test results after taking them?
Correct Answer: a) It identifies conceptual weak spots, recurring errors, and time-management bottlenecks
Explanation:
Detailed error analysis helps candidates refine their strategy, fix mistakes, and improve score efficiency.
87. What does a comprehensive study plan for SSC MTS typically balance?
Correct Answer: a) Equal practice across math, reasoning, English, and general awareness alongside mock tests
Explanation:
A well-rounded schedule allocates balanced time slots to all four tested subjects and periodic test series.
88. How does clearing the SSC MTS exam impact career growth in government service?
Correct Answer: a) It provides a stable entry point into central government departments with promotional avenues to higher grades over time
Explanation:
SSC MTS serves as a stepping stone into central government service with departmental promotional opportunities.
89. What is the significance of the provisional status check before the exam date?
Correct Answer: a) To confirm application acceptance and check allotted exam city and date details
Explanation:
The application status link verifies that the form was accepted and lets candidates view their exam city and shift.
90. Why are clear passport-size photographs and correct signatures required during online application?
Correct Answer: a) To prevent application rejection and ensure smooth identity verification at exam checkpoints
Explanation:
Adhering strictly to photo and signature guidelines prevents form rejection and matches admit card credentials.
91. What is the recommended action if a candidate faces technical glitches during the computer-based test?
Correct Answer: a) Immediately inform the invigilator or technical staff at the exam center
Explanation:
Exam center invigilators and technical supervisors must be notified immediately to resolve system errors or freezes.
92. How does the sectional timing rule operate in the SSC MTS CBT?
Correct Answer: a) Each session has a fixed 45-minute duration after which the screen locks automatically
Explanation:
Session I automatically closes after 45 minutes before Session II begins, requiring strict adherence to section timers.
93. What is the main objective behind conducting the SSC MTS exam in multiple regional languages?
Correct Answer: a) To provide equal opportunity and comfort to candidates from diverse linguistic backgrounds across India
Explanation:
Offering regional languages removes linguistic barriers and enables regional aspirants to attempt questions easily.
94. What does the term 'Non-Technical' signify in the context of SSC Multi-Tasking Staff?
Correct Answer: a) That the positions do not require specialized engineering or technical professional degrees
Explanation:
'Non-technical' indicates that general administrative and support roles do not require technical degrees like B.Tech.
95. What is the primary utility of practicing previous year cut-off trends?
Correct Answer: a) It gives aspirants a realistic target score benchmark for their specific state and category
Explanation:
Analyzing past cut-offs helps candidates understand the level of competition and target safe score ranges.
96. Why is maintaining high accuracy alongside speed vital in Session II?
Correct Answer: a) Because negative marking (-1 mark) penalizes incorrect guesses heavily
Explanation:
Since wrong answers attract a 1-mark penalty against 3 marks for correct answers, wild guessing can lower net scores.
97. What is the role of the Staff Selection Commission in national employment?
Correct Answer: a) Recruiting staff for various Group B and Group C posts in ministries, departments, and subordinate offices
Explanation:
SSC acts as the premier centralized recruitment agency for subordinate government services across India.
