The Reading section of the PTE Academic exam tests a candidate’s ability to comprehend, analyze, and interpret written academic English across five distinct question types. Lasting approximately 29 to 30 minutes in the updated test format, this section operates on a single overall countdown timer rather than individual task timers, making strategic time management vital. Tasks include Reading & Writing: Fill in the Blanks, Multiple Choice (Multiple Answers), Re-order Paragraphs, Reading: Fill in the Blanks, and Multiple Choice (Single Answer). Beyond direct reading skills, several tasks contribute cross-module points to Writing through Pearson’s automated integrated scoring system. Mastering collocations, context clues, discourse markers, and specific scoring rules (including negative marking) is essential for maximizing score performance in this module.
1. What is the approximate total time allotted for the Reading section in the current standard PTE Academic test?
Correct Answer: b) 29-30 minutes
Explanation:
Since the PTE Academic format change in November 2021, the Reading section generally takes about 29 to 30 minutes to complete.
2. How many different item types are there in the PTE Reading section?
Correct Answer: c) 5
Explanation:
There are 5 item types: Multiple-choice (Single Answer), Multiple-choice (Multiple Answers), Re-order Paragraphs, Reading: Fill in the Blanks, and Reading and Writing: Fill in the Blanks.
3. Which of the following is NOT an item type in the PTE Reading section?
Correct Answer: c) Highlight Correct Summary
Explanation:
Highlight Correct Summary is an item type found in the Listening section of the PTE Academic test, not the Reading section.
4. Are test-takers allowed to navigate back to previous questions in the PTE Reading section?
Correct Answer: c) No, you cannot go back once you click 'Next'
Explanation:
The PTE Academic is a forward-only test. Once a test-taker clicks 'Next', they cannot return to previous questions.
5. Which item type in the Reading section carries negative marking?
Correct Answer: b) Multiple-choice, choose multiple answers
Explanation:
In Multiple-choice, choose multiple answers, test-takers lose points for incorrect options selected, though the minimum score for the item is zero.
6. What is the minimum score a candidate can get on a 'Multiple-choice, choose multiple answers' question?
Correct Answer: b) 0
Explanation:
Despite the negative marking for incorrect choices, the overall score for any single item cannot fall below zero.
7. Which two communicative skills are assessed in the 'Reading and Writing: Fill in the Blanks' item type?
Correct Answer: c) Reading and Writing
Explanation:
As the name suggests, this item type contributes to both the Reading and Writing communicative skill scores.
8. How do candidates interact with the interface in 'Reading: Fill in the Blanks'?
Correct Answer: c) By dragging words from a box and dropping them into the text
Explanation:
In 'Reading: Fill in the Blanks', test-takers drag words from a blue box at the bottom and drop them into the appropriate blanks in the text.
9. How do candidates interact with the interface in 'Reading and Writing: Fill in the Blanks'?
Correct Answer: c) By selecting answers from a drop-down list for each blank
Explanation:
This item type features a text with blanks, and clicking on a blank reveals a drop-down list of options to choose from.
10. In 'Re-order Paragraphs', how is the scoring determined?
Correct Answer: b) 1 point for each correctly ordered pair of adjacent paragraphs
Explanation:
Scoring for Re-order Paragraphs is based on adjacent pairs. If a candidate correctly places paragraph A immediately before paragraph B, they earn 1 point.
11. Roughly how many items total can a test-taker expect in the PTE Reading section?
Correct Answer: b) 13 to 18 items
Explanation:
In the updated PTE Academic format, the Reading section contains approximately 13 to 18 questions in total.
12. What is the primary reading strategy used to quickly find a specific date or name in a text?
Correct Answer: b) Scanning
Explanation:
Scanning involves moving the eyes quickly down the page seeking specific words, phrases, or facts like dates and names.
13. What does 'skimming' a text mean in the context of the PTE test?
Correct Answer: b) Reading quickly to get the general idea or gist of the text
Explanation:
Skimming is a rapid reading technique used to understand the main idea, overall theme, or gist of a passage without reading every word.
14. In the PTE Reading section, what governs the time management for individual questions?
Correct Answer: b) The section has an overall timer, and test-takers manage their own time per question
Explanation:
Unlike the Speaking section, the Reading section uses a single overall timer. Test-takers must allocate their own time wisely among the questions.
15. What linguistic concept is most helpful for solving 'Fill in the Blanks' questions?
Correct Answer: a) Collocations
Explanation:
Collocations are words that frequently occur together (e.g., 'heavy rain', 'make a decision'). Knowing these helps predict the correct word for a blank.
16. In 'Multiple-choice, choose single answer', how many points are awarded for a correct response?
Correct Answer: b) 1 point
Explanation:
This item type is scored as 1 point for the correct answer and 0 for an incorrect answer.
17. What is the recommended maximum time a test-taker should spend on a single 'Re-order Paragraphs' task?
Correct Answer: c) 2 to 3 minutes
Explanation:
To manage the overall section timer effectively, it is generally recommended to spend no more than 2 to 3 minutes on a Re-order Paragraphs question.
18. Which of the following describes a 'topic sentence' in the 'Re-order Paragraphs' task?
Correct Answer: c) A standalone sentence that introduces the main idea and does not depend on previous sentences
Explanation:
The topic sentence (or independent sentence) introduces the theme of the text and makes sense on its own without needing prior context.
19. If a paragraph begins with 'Furthermore, the study showed...', where is it likely to be placed in a 'Re-order Paragraphs' task?
Correct Answer: c) It follows a paragraph that already introduced the study or related findings.
Explanation:
'Furthermore' is an additive transition word, indicating that this sentence adds information to a previously established point (the study).
20. In a reading text, words like 'because', 'consequently', and 'therefore' indicate what kind of relationship?
Correct Answer: b) Cause and effect
Explanation:
These cohesive devices explicitly signal a cause-and-effect relationship between ideas.
21. Which of the following is a contrastive conjunction that could help link paragraphs in a Re-order task?
Correct Answer: c) Nevertheless
Explanation:
'Nevertheless' is used to show contrast or concession, linking a contrasting idea to the preceding text.
22. How many text boxes are typically presented in a 'Re-order Paragraphs' item?
Correct Answer: b) 4 to 5
Explanation:
Most Re-order Paragraph tasks contain 4 to 5 randomized text boxes that the candidate must drag and drop into the correct sequence.
23. In 'Reading: Fill in the Blanks' (drag and drop), how many options are usually provided in the box at the bottom?
Correct Answer: c) Up to three more options than there are blanks
Explanation:
There are always more words in the option box than there are blanks in the text, usually up to three extra words acting as distractors.
24. What is the typical text length for a 'Multiple-choice, choose single answer' item?
Correct Answer: b) Up to 300 words
Explanation:
The text prompt for a multiple-choice single answer question can be up to 300 words long.
25. For 'Multiple-choice, choose multiple answers', how many correct options are there typically?
Correct Answer: b) More than one, usually two or three
Explanation:
As the name suggests, there is always more than one correct answer, generally two or three out of the five to seven options provided.
26. What happens if a candidate selects 3 options in 'Multiple-choice, choose multiple answers', where 2 are correct and 1 is incorrect?
Correct Answer: c) They get 1 point
Explanation:
The candidate earns 2 points for the correct answers and loses 1 point for the incorrect answer, resulting in a net score of 1 point (2 - 1 = 1).
27. What happens if a candidate selects 2 incorrect options and 0 correct options in 'Multiple-choice, choose multiple answers'?
Correct Answer: c) They get 0 points for the item
Explanation:
While there is negative marking, the minimum score for any individual item is 0. Negative scores do not carry over to other items.
28. In 'Reading and Writing: Fill in the Blanks', how many options are present in each drop-down list?
Correct Answer: c) 4
Explanation:
When clicking on a blank in this item type, a drop-down list appears containing exactly 4 options to choose from.
29. Which grammar rule is often useful to determine the word class needed in a blank?
Correct Answer: b) Parts of speech identification (e.g., noun, verb, adjective)
Explanation:
Identifying whether a blank requires a noun, verb, adjective, or adverb based on the surrounding sentence structure is a primary strategy for Fill in the Blanks.
30. If a blank is immediately preceded by the article 'an', what can you deduce about the missing word?
Correct Answer: c) It must start with a vowel sound.
Explanation:
The indefinite article 'an' is used before singular countable nouns that begin with a vowel sound.
31. If a blank is preceded by the preposition 'to' (as part of an infinitive), the missing word is most likely:
Correct Answer: b) A base form verb
Explanation:
In English, the infinitive form consists of 'to' plus the base form of a verb (e.g., 'to run', 'to analyze').
32. What is a 'lexical set' in the context of reading comprehension?
Correct Answer: b) A group of words belonging to the same topic or semantic field
Explanation:
Lexical sets are words related to a specific topic (e.g., doctor, hospital, nurse, surgery). Recognizing them helps establish the context of a paragraph.
33. Which of the following best describes the 'General to Specific' rule in 'Re-order Paragraphs'?
Correct Answer: b) A general idea is introduced first, followed by specific details or examples.
Explanation:
Standard paragraph organization usually introduces a broad, general topic first before delving into specific instances or data.
34. Regarding acronyms in 'Re-order Paragraphs', which rule generally applies?
Correct Answer: b) The full name (e.g., World Health Organization) appears first, and the acronym (WHO) is used in subsequent paragraphs.
Explanation:
Writers introduce the full name of an entity first before referring to it by its acronym in later text.
35. How can the definite article 'the' help in 'Re-order Paragraphs'?
Correct Answer: b) It often refers back to a noun previously introduced with the indefinite article 'a' or 'an'.
Explanation:
Usually, a subject is introduced with 'a/an' (e.g., 'a researcher'). Later references use 'the' (e.g., 'the researcher'), helping establish order.
36. What is the purpose of the 'Next' button in the PTE Reading section?
Correct Answer: a) To save your answer and proceed to the next question
Explanation:
Clicking 'Next' submits the current response and moves you permanently to the next question in the test.
37. What is the consequence of leaving a question blank in the PTE Reading section?
Correct Answer: b) You get 0 points for that question.
Explanation:
Unanswered questions are simply scored as zero. There is no overall deduction from the section score for skipping a question.
38. Why is it generally advised to guess rather than leave a 'Multiple-choice, choose single answer' question blank?
Correct Answer: b) Because there is no negative marking for this item type, so a guess has a chance of earning a point without risk.
Explanation:
Since there is no penalty for an incorrect answer in the single answer MCQ, any guess is better than leaving it blank.
39. In 'Multiple-choice, choose multiple answers', when is it best to guess an option you are unsure about?
Correct Answer: b) Never guess, only select the options you are 100% sure of to avoid negative marking.
Explanation:
Because of negative marking (-1 for incorrect choices), guessing blindly can erase points earned from correct choices.
40. Which of the following transition words indicates an addition to a previous point?
Correct Answer: c) Moreover
Explanation:
'Moreover' is an additive transition word used to add another supporting point to an argument.
41. Which of the following transition words indicates a conclusion or result?
Correct Answer: b) Therefore
Explanation:
'Therefore' is a concluding transition word that shows the result or effect of the preceding statements.
42. What is the maximum number of items a candidate might face in the 'Reading and Writing: Fill in the Blanks' section?
Correct Answer: b) 5-6 items
Explanation:
Candidates typically receive around 5 to 6 texts for the 'Reading and Writing: Fill in the Blanks' task.
43. What is the maximum number of blanks typically found in a single 'Reading and Writing: Fill in the Blanks' text?
Correct Answer: b) 5
Explanation:
A text in this item type usually contains up to 5 drop-down blanks.
44. What skill is indirectly tested in the Reading section through the understanding of complex sentences?
Correct Answer: b) Grammar
Explanation:
Understanding sentence structure, clauses, and syntax in complex sentences relies heavily on grammatical knowledge.
45. In 'Re-order Paragraphs', if Paragraph A ends with 'new policy' and Paragraph B starts with 'This policy', what linking strategy is being used?
Correct Answer: b) Lexical cohesion / Pronoun referencing
Explanation:
The demonstrative pronoun 'This' paired with the repeated noun 'policy' explicitly links back to the 'new policy' mentioned previously.
46. What does a time-based sequencing look like in 'Re-order Paragraphs'?
Correct Answer: a) Arranging paragraphs from oldest historical date to the most recent.
Explanation:
Chronological sequence is a common paragraph ordering method, starting with the earliest dates or events and moving forward in time.
47. If you are running out of time in the Reading section, what is the best strategy?
Correct Answer: b) Quickly guess the remaining answers since there is no overall negative marking for the section.
Explanation:
Because blank answers earn zero and there's no section-wide penalty, quickly guessing the remaining single-answer items before time expires is the best strategy.
48. Is the text complexity in the PTE Reading section uniform across all questions?
Correct Answer: c) No, text difficulty varies, typically reflecting authentic academic English texts of different complexities.
Explanation:
The texts are sourced from authentic academic materials, so they vary in length, vocabulary, and syntactic complexity.
49. Which of the following prefixes implies 'against' or 'opposite'?
Correct Answer: b) Anti-
Explanation:
Understanding prefixes like 'anti-' (against) helps deduce the meaning of unfamiliar vocabulary in reading texts.
50. Which suffix often indicates that a word is a noun describing a state or condition?
Correct Answer: c) -tion
Explanation:
Suffixes like '-tion' (e.g., information, condition) typically form nouns. Recognizing this helps in Fill in the Blanks.
51. If the sentence structure is: 'The manager decided to _______ the meeting until tomorrow.', what part of speech is required?
Correct Answer: c) Verb
Explanation:
The structure 'to + [blank]' typically requires a base form verb (e.g., postpone).
52. What is the main challenge of 'Reading and Writing: Fill in the Blanks' compared to 'Reading: Fill in the Blanks'?
Correct Answer: b) The options in the drop-down list are often synonyms or grammatically similar, requiring precise contextual knowledge.
Explanation:
The drop-down options often test nuanced differences in meaning, collocation, and grammar among very similar words.
53. Which of the following is an example of a grammatical collocation?
Correct Answer: c) Depend on
Explanation:
A grammatical collocation often involves a specific verb and preposition combination, like 'depend on', 'interested in', or 'rely on'.
54. Which of the following is an example of a lexical collocation?
Correct Answer: b) Commit a crime
Explanation:
Lexical collocations consist of two or more content words that naturally go together, such as verb + noun (commit a crime, make a bed).
55. How are scores reported for the Reading section in the PTE test?
Correct Answer: b) On a scale from 10 to 90
Explanation:
The Global Scale of English used for PTE Academic scores ranges from 10 to 90.
56. If you read the sentence: 'Despite the heavy rain, they decided to go for a hike.', what does 'Despite' tell you about the text?
Correct Answer: b) It introduces a concession or unexpected result.
Explanation:
'Despite' signals that the outcome (going for a hike) contrasts with what might be expected given the circumstances (heavy rain).
57. In 'Multiple-choice, choose single answer', what should you read first to save time?
Correct Answer: c) The question prompt before reading the text
Explanation:
Reading the question first tells you exactly what information you need to look for, allowing you to scan the text purposefully.
58. What is the visual indicator that a question is 'Multiple-choice, choose multiple answers' rather than single answer?
Correct Answer: a) The options have square checkboxes instead of round radio buttons.
Explanation:
In the PTE interface, square checkboxes indicate that multiple selections are possible, whereas round radio buttons allow only one selection.
59. If a paragraph in a Re-order task starts with 'He noted that...', what is required in the preceding paragraph?
Correct Answer: c) A singular male noun/name (e.g., John, the researcher)
Explanation:
The pronoun 'He' must refer back to a singular male antecedent mentioned in the previous sentence or paragraph.
60. What is a 'distractor' in multiple-choice questions?
Correct Answer: b) An incorrect option designed to look plausible
Explanation:
Distractors are the incorrect answer choices specifically crafted to seem correct to a test-taker who hasn't fully grasped the text.
61. What reading habit reduces reading speed and should be avoided during the PTE exam?
Correct Answer: a) Subvocalization (saying words in your head)
Explanation:
Subvocalization limits reading speed to speaking speed. Minimizing this habit helps increase the speed necessary to finish the Reading section on time.
62. In 'Reading: Fill in the Blanks', can you use a word from the box more than once?
Correct Answer: b) No, once you drag a word into a blank, it is removed from the box.
Explanation:
Each word in the option box can only be used once. Once dragged to a blank, it is no longer available.
63. Can you change your answer in 'Reading: Fill in the Blanks' after dropping a word?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, you can drag the word back to the box or drag another word over it.
Explanation:
The interface allows you to change answers as many times as you like by dragging words back or replacing them, as long as you haven't clicked 'Next'.
64. How many items of 'Re-order Paragraphs' are generally present in the test?
Correct Answer: b) 2 to 3
Explanation:
Test-takers usually encounter 2 or 3 Re-order Paragraphs questions in the Reading section.
65. Which of the following sentence structures usually indicates an independent clause?
Correct Answer: b) The dog barked loudly.
Explanation:
An independent clause has a subject and a verb and expresses a complete thought, able to stand alone as a sentence. Options a, c, and d are dependent clauses.
66. If you see 'On the other hand' in a text, you can expect the following text to:
Correct Answer: b) Present an alternative or opposing perspective.
Explanation:
'On the other hand' is a contrastive transition phrase used to introduce a viewpoint that opposes or contrasts with the previously stated one.
67. What is the primary function of the 'Reading and Writing: Fill in the Blanks' question type regarding vocabulary?
Correct Answer: b) To test understanding of collocations, nuances of meaning, and context.
Explanation:
The drop-down options often contain words with similar meanings. The test assesses your ability to pick the one that fits perfectly based on context and collocation.
68. In 'Re-order Paragraphs', why is looking for names with titles (e.g., Dr. Smith) useful?
Correct Answer: b) A person is usually introduced with their full name and title first, and referred to by surname or pronoun later.
Explanation:
Standard writing convention introduces a person formally (e.g., Professor John Smith) before using shorthand references (e.g., Smith, or He).
69. Which sentence is grammatically correct and likely to be the correct answer format in a drop-down Fill in the Blanks?
Correct Answer: b) She is interested in learning languages.
Explanation:
The correct collocation is the adjective 'interested' followed by the preposition 'in'.
70. What does reading for 'gist' mean?
Correct Answer: b) Reading to understand the overall theme or main idea of the text.
Explanation:
Gist reading (or skimming) focuses on capturing the big picture or the central argument rather than minute details.
71. In the context of the PTE Reading section, what is a 'passage'?
Correct Answer: b) A segment of text provided on the screen for the test-taker to read.
Explanation:
In reading comprehension terminology, a passage is simply the piece of text you are required to read and analyze.
72. Which of the following phrases is a sign of an exemplification (giving examples)?
Correct Answer: b) For instance
Explanation:
Phrases like 'for instance' and 'for example' are used to introduce specific examples supporting a general statement.
73. If an item asks you to choose 'the statement that is NOT supported by the text', what are you looking for?
Correct Answer: b) A false or contradictory statement that cannot be verified by the passage.
Explanation:
In negative multiple-choice questions, the correct answer is the distractor that contains information contradicting or absent from the text.
74. What does a 'participle clause' generally do in an academic text?
Correct Answer: b) It provides additional information about a noun, similar to a relative clause.
Explanation:
Participle clauses (e.g., 'Looking at the data, the scientists found...') add extra descriptive information concisely.
75. How many paragraphs does a typical 'Re-order Paragraphs' text contain?
Correct Answer: b) 4 to 5
Explanation:
Test-takers must sequence 4 to 5 text boxes into a single coherent passage.
76. In 'Multiple-choice, choose single answer', what usually appears below the reading passage?
Correct Answer: b) The question and radio button options
Explanation:
The layout typically features the text on one side or at the top, with the question prompt and circular radio buttons for the options below or beside it.
77. Which of these is the most effective strategy for 'Reading: Fill in the Blanks'?
Correct Answer: b) Reading the sentence with the blank, determining the required part of speech, and scanning the options for a grammatical and contextual match.
Explanation:
Analyzing the grammar and context around the blank is the most reliable way to select the correct word from the option box.
78. If a text is about 'global warming', which set of words represents an expected lexical set?
Correct Answer: b) Emissions, atmosphere, temperature, climate
Explanation:
These words belong to the semantic field of environmental science and climate change.
79. What is the primary difference between PTE Academic and PTE Core regarding the Reading section?
Correct Answer: b) PTE Core focuses on everyday, non-academic English situations, while PTE Academic uses university-level academic texts.
Explanation:
PTE Core is designed for general migration and focuses on everyday English, whereas PTE Academic assesses university-level academic English.
80. What type of noun is 'information' in English?
Correct Answer: c) Uncountable
Explanation:
'Information' is an uncountable noun. Knowing this helps in FIB tasks, as it cannot be preceded by 'a/an' or followed by a plural 's'.
81. Which verb form correctly fills the blank: 'She is used to _______ early.'?
Correct Answer: b) waking
Explanation:
The structure 'to be used to' is followed by a noun or gerund (verb+ing). Therefore, 'waking' is grammatically correct.
82. In 'Reading and Writing: Fill in the Blanks', you see the options: 'make', 'do', 'take', 'have'. The text says '______ a decision'. What is the correct choice?
Correct Answer: a) make
Explanation:
The correct English collocation is 'to make a decision'.
83. What is 'inferencing' in a reading comprehension test?
Correct Answer: b) Drawing a logical conclusion based on hints and evidence provided in the text, rather than explicit statements.
Explanation:
Inferencing means 'reading between the lines' to understand what the author implies without stating it directly.
84. If a question asks 'What is the author's tone?', what is it asking for?
Correct Answer: b) The author's attitude or feeling toward the subject matter.
Explanation:
Tone refers to the writer's attitude (e.g., critical, objective, enthusiastic, sarcastic) toward the topic.
85. In a multiple-choice question, if an option contains an extreme word like 'always' or 'never', it is often:
Correct Answer: b) A distractor, as academic texts rarely make absolute claims without nuance.
Explanation:
Academic texts usually employ hedging (e.g., 'often', 'typically', 'suggests'). Extreme words usually make an option factually incorrect based on the text.
86. What does the phrase 'In conclusion' signal in a reading passage?
Correct Answer: b) A summary or final judgment based on the preceding arguments.
Explanation:
'In conclusion' indicates that the author is wrapping up the passage and summarizing the main points.
87. What is a 'synonym'?
Correct Answer: c) A word or phrase that means exactly or nearly the same as another word or phrase.
Explanation:
Understanding synonyms is critical in PTE Reading because questions often paraphrase the text using synonymous words.
88. What is an 'antonym'?
Correct Answer: a) A word opposite in meaning to another.
Explanation:
Antonyms (like hot/cold, increase/decrease) are often used in distractors to create an option that states the exact opposite of the text.
89. Which of the following is a plural noun?
Correct Answer: c) Data
Explanation:
'Data' is historically the plural of 'datum' (though often used as an uncountable mass noun today in general English, in strict academic terms, it is plural). Options A, B, and D are singular forms.
90. What grammatical structure is 'The book, which was written in 1920, became a bestseller.'?
Correct Answer: b) A sentence containing a non-defining relative clause
Explanation:
The clause ', which was written in 1920,' is a non-defining relative clause that adds extra information about the noun 'The book'.
91. How is a 'passive voice' sentence structured?
Correct Answer: b) Object + to be + past participle (+ by Subject)
Explanation:
In passive voice, the focus is on the action's recipient. Example: 'The cake (object) was eaten (to be + past participle) by John (subject).'
92. If a reading text says: 'The population plummeted due to the drought', what does 'plummeted' mean?
Correct Answer: b) Decreased significantly and rapidly
Explanation:
To plummet means to fall or drop straight down at high speed, indicating a severe decrease.
93. In 'Multiple-choice, choose multiple answers', if you select one correct option and leave the rest unchecked, what is your score?
Correct Answer: b) 1 point
Explanation:
You earn 1 point for every correct option you select. If you make no incorrect selections, you don't lose any points, resulting in a score of 1.
94. What role do 'enabling skills' like Grammar and Vocabulary play in the PTE Reading section score?
Correct Answer: b) They contribute to the overall communicative skill score of Reading.
Explanation:
Performance on tasks like Fill in the Blanks demonstrates grammar and vocabulary proficiency, directly impacting the Reading communicative score.
95. What is the best way to prepare for the 'Collocations' tested in PTE Reading?
Correct Answer: b) Reading widely in academic English and using a collocation dictionary.
Explanation:
Exposure to authentic academic texts and targeted collocation practice are the most effective ways to build collocation knowledge.
96. Why is it important to read the sentence *after* the blank in 'Fill in the Blanks'?
Correct Answer: b) Because the grammar and context of the subsequent sentence/words often dictate what fits in the blank.
Explanation:
A blank is constrained by what comes before AND after it (e.g., a trailing preposition can completely change the required verb).
97. If you see the options 'has', 'have', 'had', and 'having' for a blank, what is primarily being tested?
Correct Answer: b) Grammar (Tense and Subject-Verb agreement)
Explanation:
Since all options are forms of the verb 'to have', the test is assessing your ability to choose the correct grammatical form based on the subject and tense.
98. In 'Re-order Paragraphs', if two sentences describe an event, and one gives the cause while the other gives the effect, which generally comes first?
Correct Answer: b) The cause generally precedes the effect.
Explanation:
Logical sequencing typically presents the cause or origin of an event before describing its consequences or effects.
99. What should a test-taker do if they are completely stuck on a 'Re-order Paragraphs' question?
Correct Answer: b) Make an educated guess, try to match at least one pair for partial credit, and move on.
Explanation:
Because scoring is based on adjacent pairs, finding even one logical pair (e.g., pronoun referencing) earns points. Do not waste excessive time.
100. How is 'Reading: Fill in the Blanks' (drag and drop) scored?
Correct Answer: b) 1 point for each correctly completed blank.
Explanation:
Test-takers receive 1 point for every blank they fill correctly. There is no negative marking for this item type.
101. How is 'Reading and Writing: Fill in the Blanks' (drop-down) scored?
Correct Answer: a) 1 point for each correctly completed blank.
Explanation:
Like the drag-and-drop version, each correctly chosen word from a drop-down list earns 1 point, with no negative marking.
102. Which of the following describes the PTE Academic scoring algorithm?
Correct Answer: b) It is an automated, AI-driven scoring system.
Explanation:
PTE Academic is 100% computer-scored using advanced algorithms and artificial intelligence, ensuring objective grading.
103. What is a 'compound sentence'?
Correct Answer: b) A sentence joining two independent clauses with a coordinating conjunction (like 'and', 'but').
Explanation:
Recognizing compound sentences helps in parsing long reading texts and understanding the relationship between two main ideas.
104. If a text includes the phrase 'In other words...', the author is about to:
Correct Answer: b) Restate or clarify the previous point in a simpler or different way.
Explanation:
This phrase is used for clarification, letting the reader know that a complex idea is about to be explained more simply.
105. Which type of text is NOT typically found in the PTE Reading section?
Correct Answer: c) A casual text message conversation
Explanation:
PTE Academic uses authentic academic sources. Casual, colloquial text message formats are not used.
106. When approaching a reading passage, what should you do with the title (if provided)?
Correct Answer: b) Use it to immediately grasp the central theme and activate prior knowledge.
Explanation:
A title provides immediate context, allowing the brain to prepare for the vocabulary and concepts that will likely appear in the text.
107. Which of these words is a subordinating conjunction?
Correct Answer: c) Although
Explanation:
'Although' introduces a dependent clause, subordinating it to the main clause (e.g., 'Although it rained, we played').
108. What is the primary danger of spending too much time on 'Multiple-choice, choose multiple answers'?
Correct Answer: b) You will rob yourself of time needed for high-weightage Fill in the Blanks questions later in the section.
Explanation:
Fill in the Blanks items carry significant weight for both Reading and Writing. Wasting the global timer on a low-yield MCQ can severely hurt your overall score.
109. In standard English syntax, adjectives usually appear:
Correct Answer: a) Before the noun they describe.
Explanation:
English generally uses attributive adjectives that precede the noun (e.g., 'the *blue* car'). This is a crucial rule for filling blanks.
110. Which suffix usually turns an adjective into an adverb?
Correct Answer: c) -ly
Explanation:
Adding '-ly' to an adjective (e.g., quick -> quickly) typically forms an adverb. This is useful for identifying the part of speech needed in a blank.
111. If the options for a blank are 'affect' and 'effect', and the sentence reads: 'The new policy will have a positive ______ on the economy', which is correct?
Correct Answer: b) effect
Explanation:
In this context, a noun is required after the adjective 'positive'. 'Effect' is usually a noun, while 'affect' is usually a verb.
112. In 'Multiple-choice, choose single answer', if you find a word in an option that exactly matches a word in the text, what does this mean?
Correct Answer: b) It could be a trap; you must read the context to ensure the meaning is the same.
Explanation:
Test-makers often use exact word matches from the text in incorrect options (distractors) to trick test-takers who don't read for full comprehension.
113. How often can you take the PTE Academic test if you do not achieve your desired score?
Correct Answer: c) As many times as you want, provided you wait for your current scores to be issued before booking again
Explanation:
Pearson allows candidates to retake the test unlimited times, but they can only book one test at a time and must receive their scores first.
114. If a text discusses 'flora and fauna', what is it referring to?
Correct Answer: b) Plants and animals
Explanation:
This is a common academic phrase where 'flora' refers to plant life and 'fauna' refers to animal life.
115. Which of the following is an uncountable noun that takes a singular verb?
Correct Answer: c) Knowledge
Explanation:
'Knowledge' is uncountable and takes a singular verb (e.g., 'Knowledge is power'). The others are plural countable nouns.
116. When scanning a text for answers to a 'Multiple-choice' question, it is best to look for:
Correct Answer: b) Keywords and their synonyms from the question prompt
Explanation:
Identifying the main keywords (nouns, main verbs) in the question and scanning the text for those words or their synonyms helps locate the answer quickly.
117. In 'Reading and Writing: Fill in the Blanks', how does context help in choosing the correct word?
Correct Answer: b) It helps distinguish between words that are grammatically identical but have different meanings or nuances.
Explanation:
When all drop-down options are nouns, grammar cannot help you choose. You must rely on the semantic context of the sentence to pick the logical word.
118. What is the meaning of 'cohesion' in writing and reading?
Correct Answer: a) The grammatical and lexical linking within a text that holds it together and gives it meaning.
Explanation:
Cohesion refers to the 'glue' that connects ideas, such as pronouns, transition words, and conjunctions. It is heavily tested in Re-order Paragraphs.
119. Which of the following is an example of an 'anaphoric reference' used in reading cohesion?
Correct Answer: b) Using 'it' to refer back to a previously mentioned noun like 'the car'.
Explanation:
Anaphora is the use of a word referring back to a word used earlier in a text, avoiding repetition. It's a key clue in paragraph ordering.
120. If a multiple-choice question asks about the 'implication' of the text, it is asking:
Correct Answer: b) What the text suggests without stating it directly.
Explanation:
An implication is a conclusion that can be drawn from something although it is not explicitly stated.
121. What should you do before the timer starts for a specific 'Fill in the Blanks' question?
Correct Answer: a) There is no individual timer; the overall section timer runs continuously.
Explanation:
Unlike the speaking section which gives preparation time before recording, the Reading section operates on one continuous global timer.
122. In 'Multiple-choice, choose multiple answers', the text discusses three advantages of a process. The options list five statements. How many are likely correct?
Correct Answer: b) 2 or 3
Explanation:
Generally, if a text highlights a few key points, 2 or 3 of the given options will correctly reflect those points, while the rest are distractors.
