GRE Analytical Writing Assessment (AWA) MCQs

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The GRE Analytical Writing Assessment (AWA) evaluates a test-taker’s ability to articulate complex ideas clearly, support arguments with relevant evidence, and sustain a focused, coherent discussion. Comprising a single “Analyze an Issue” task where candidates examine a topic of general interest, the test demands rigorous critical thinking rather than mere rote memorization. Scored on a scale from 0 to 6 in half-point increments, the section requires precise control over structure, rhetoric, and logical reasoning. Practicing targeted multiple-choice questions helps candidates master core evaluation principles, recognize logical flaws, and streamline essay organization under timed conditions.

1. How many tasks are included in the GRE Analytical Writing Assessment (AWA) as of September 2023?

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Correct Answer: a) One
Explanation:
As of September 2023, the GRE was shortened, and the AWA section now consists of only one task: 'Analyze an Issue'.

2. What is the name of the single task in the current GRE AWA section?

a) Analyze an Argument
b) Analyze a Policy
c) Analyze an Issue
d) Analyze a Text
Correct Answer: c) Analyze an Issue
Explanation:
The current GRE AWA section requires test-takers to complete the 'Analyze an Issue' task, where they must evaluate a claim and present their own argument.

3. What is the time limit for the GRE AWA section?

a) 20 minutes
b) 30 minutes
c) 45 minutes
d) 60 minutes
Correct Answer: b) 30 minutes
Explanation:
Test-takers are given exactly 30 minutes to read the prompt, plan, write, and proofread their essay.

4. What is the scoring scale for the GRE AWA section?

a) 130 to 170
b) 0 to 100
c) 0.0 to 6.0
d) 1 to 10
Correct Answer: c) 0.0 to 6.0
Explanation:
The AWA section is scored on a scale from 0.0 to 6.0, distinct from the 130-170 scale used for the Verbal and Quantitative sections.

5. In what increments are the GRE AWA scores reported?

a) 1-point increments
b) 0.5-point increments
c) 0.25-point increments
d) 0.1-point increments
Correct Answer: b) 0.5-point increments
Explanation:
AWA scores are reported in half-point increments, such as 4.0, 4.5, 5.0, etc.

6. Where does the AWA section typically appear during the GRE test?

a) It is always the first section.
b) It is always the last section.
c) It randomly appears in the middle.
d) It depends on the test-taker's choice.
Correct Answer: a) It is always the first section.
Explanation:
The Analytical Writing section is universally administered as the very first section of the GRE.

7. Which AWA task was officially removed from the GRE in September 2023?

a) Analyze an Issue
b) Analyze a Source
c) Analyze an Argument
d) Analyze a Proposition
Correct Answer: c) Analyze an Argument
Explanation:
To shorten the test, ETS removed the 'Analyze an Argument' task, leaving only the 'Analyze an Issue' task.

8. Who evaluates and scores the GRE AWA essays?

a) Two human readers only
b) One human reader and an automated scoring program
c) Only an automated scoring program
d) A panel of three human readers
Correct Answer: b) One human reader and an automated scoring program
Explanation:
ETS uses a human reader and an automated scoring system called e-rater to score the essays.

9. What happens if the human score and the automated (e-rater) score differ significantly?

a) The computer score is taken as final.
b) The human score is taken as final.
c) A second human reader scores the essay, and the human scores are averaged.
d) The test-taker must retake the AWA section.
Correct Answer: c) A second human reader scores the essay, and the human scores are averaged.
Explanation:
If the human and e-rater scores do not agree closely, a second human reader evaluates the essay, and the final score is the average of the two human scores.

10. What type of scoring approach does the human reader use for the AWA?

a) Analytic scoring (deducting points for each error)
b) Holistic scoring (evaluating the overall quality)
c) Algorithmic scoring (counting word frequencies)
d) Comparative scoring (ranking against other essays)
Correct Answer: b) Holistic scoring (evaluating the overall quality)
Explanation:
Readers use holistic scoring, meaning they assign a single score based on the overall quality of the essay in response to the assigned task.

11. Does the GRE testing software provide a spell-check function?

a) Yes, it highlights misspelled words in red.
b) Yes, but it must be activated manually.
c) No, there is no spell-check available.
d) Yes, but it lowers your score if used.
Correct Answer: c) No, there is no spell-check available.
Explanation:
The GRE word processor is very basic and does not include a spell-checker or grammar-checker.

12. Which basic word processing functions are available in the GRE interface?

a) Bold, Italics, and Underline
b) Insert Table and Insert Image
c) Cut, Paste, and Undo
d) Find and Replace
Correct Answer: c) Cut, Paste, and Undo
Explanation:
The ETS software allows basic text manipulation: insert text, delete text, cut, paste, and undo the previous action.

13. What does a score of 0 on the AWA indicate?

a) The essay is adequate but uninspired.
b) The essay is written in a foreign language, is off-topic, or is completely blank.
c) The essay has too many grammatical mistakes.
d) The essay did not reach the minimum word count.
Correct Answer: b) The essay is written in a foreign language, is off-topic, or is completely blank.
Explanation:
A score of 0 is reserved for essays that are off-topic, written in a language other than English, merely copy the prompt, or are totally blank.

14. According to the official ETS rubric, what does a score of 6 represent?

a) Strong
b) Outstanding
c) Adequate
d) Flawless
Correct Answer: b) Outstanding
Explanation:
A score of 6 represents an 'Outstanding' essay that demonstrates a cogent, well-articulated analysis of the issue.

15. Does a score of 6 mean the essay is completely free of errors?

a) Yes, any error instantly drops the score to a 5.
b) No, a score of 6 may still have minor errors.
c) Yes, the e-rater demands perfect grammar.
d) No, but it must have zero spelling errors.
Correct Answer: b) No, a score of 6 may still have minor errors.
Explanation:
ETS acknowledges that these are first drafts written under a time constraint, so a 6 essay may contain minor mechanical flaws.

16. What is the primary requirement of the 'Analyze an Issue' task?

a) To summarize a reading passage objectively
b) To find logical fallacies in an author's argument
c) To develop a compelling argument supporting your own perspective on an issue
d) To write a creative short story based on a prompt
Correct Answer: c) To develop a compelling argument supporting your own perspective on an issue
Explanation:
The Issue task requires you to read a claim, decide your position on it, and argue for that position using sound reasoning and examples.

17. Are test-takers penalized for taking a specific side of an issue?

a) Yes, you must remain strictly neutral.
b) No, you can take any side as long as you support it logically.
c) Yes, ETS prefers the liberal perspective.
d) Yes, ETS prefers the conservative perspective.
Correct Answer: b) No, you can take any side as long as you support it logically.
Explanation:
ETS does not grade based on the specific stance taken; they grade on how well that stance is articulated and supported.

18. What is a 'thesis statement' in the context of the AWA?

a) The final sentence of the essay
b) A clear, concise statement of the writer's main argument or position
c) A quote from a famous author
d) The background information provided in the prompt
Correct Answer: b) A clear, concise statement of the writer's main argument or position
Explanation:
The thesis statement tells the reader exactly what your stance is regarding the issue prompt.

19. Where is the best place to introduce the thesis statement?

a) In the middle of the second body paragraph
b) In the conclusion only
c) At the end of the introductory paragraph
d) As a standalone bullet point
Correct Answer: c) At the end of the introductory paragraph
Explanation:
Placing the thesis at the end of the introduction clearly sets up the roadmap for the rest of the essay.

20. What role do 'body paragraphs' play in the AWA essay?

a) They provide new, unrelated topics to show broad knowledge.
b) They summarize the prompt instructions.
c) They provide specific examples and reasoning to support the thesis.
d) They merely repeat the thesis using different vocabulary.
Correct Answer: c) They provide specific examples and reasoning to support the thesis.
Explanation:
Body paragraphs are the core of the essay, where the writer presents evidence, examples, and logical analysis to back up their main claim.

21. What makes an example effective in the GRE Issue essay?

a) It is highly general and vague.
b) It is concrete, specific, and explicitly connected back to the thesis.
c) It is completely fabricated and impossible to verify.
d) It is solely based on an emotional appeal.
Correct Answer: b) It is concrete, specific, and explicitly connected back to the thesis.
Explanation:
The strongest examples are specific (historical, scientific, personal, etc.) and clearly tied to the argument being made.

22. Is it permissible to use personal experience as an example in the Issue task?

a) Yes, if it is relevant and well-articulated.
b) No, academic essays strictly forbid personal pronouns.
c) Yes, but only in the conclusion.
d) No, ETS software automatically penalizes the word 'I'.
Correct Answer: a) Yes, if it is relevant and well-articulated.
Explanation:
Personal examples are fully acceptable on the GRE as long as they effectively illustrate the point being argued.

23. What is the purpose of a 'topic sentence'?

a) To conclude the entire essay
b) To introduce the specific point or argument of a body paragraph
c) To copy the exact wording of the prompt
d) To ask a rhetorical question
Correct Answer: b) To introduce the specific point or argument of a body paragraph
Explanation:
A topic sentence acts as a mini-thesis for a paragraph, guiding the reader on what that specific paragraph will discuss.

24. Why are transition words important in the AWA essay?

a) They increase the total word count.
b) They showcase a student's spelling ability.
c) They guide the reader through the logical flow and relationship of ideas.
d) They are required by the prompt's instructions.
Correct Answer: c) They guide the reader through the logical flow and relationship of ideas.
Explanation:
Transitions (e.g., 'Furthermore', 'Conversely', 'Therefore') create cohesion, showing how sentences and paragraphs logically connect.

25. Which of the following is an example of a transition word showing contrast?

a) Consequently
b) Additionally
c) Nevertheless
d) Similarly
Correct Answer: c) Nevertheless
Explanation:
'Nevertheless' is used to introduce a contrasting idea or to make a concession.

26. What does a score of 1 indicate on the ETS grading rubric?

a) Adequate
b) Limited
c) Fundamentally deficient
d) Seriously flawed
Correct Answer: c) Fundamentally deficient
Explanation:
A score of 1 means the essay is 'fundamentally deficient,' demonstrating severe incompetence in analysis or language.

27. What does a score of 4 indicate on the ETS grading rubric?

a) Adequate
b) Strong
c) Outstanding
d) Limited
Correct Answer: a) Adequate
Explanation:
A score of 4 means the essay is 'adequate,' showing competent analysis and control of language, though it may lack complexity.

28. If a prompt asks you to 'address the most compelling reasons and/or examples that could be used to challenge your position,' what MUST you include?

a) A dictionary definition of the prompt's key terms
b) A clear concession and rebuttal of counterarguments
c) A minimum of five historical examples
d) A completely neutral stance
Correct Answer: b) A clear concession and rebuttal of counterarguments
Explanation:
Failure to address counterarguments when specifically instructed to do so will result in a lower score for not following directions.

29. What is the recommended amount of time to spend brainstorming and outlining before writing?

a) 0 minutes; start typing immediately
b) 2 to 5 minutes
c) 15 minutes
d) 25 minutes
Correct Answer: b) 2 to 5 minutes
Explanation:
Spending 2 to 5 minutes outlining ensures a coherent structure and clear thesis without eating up too much writing time.

30. Is it beneficial to write a longer essay?

a) No, essays over 400 words are penalized.
b) Yes, because the automated grader only counts words.
c) Yes, longer essays generally correlate with higher scores because they reflect more developed arguments.
d) No, shorter essays always score better due to conciseness.
Correct Answer: c) Yes, longer essays generally correlate with higher scores because they reflect more developed arguments.
Explanation:
While there is no strict word count, data shows a strong correlation between essay length and higher scores, as length usually implies deeper development.

31. What is a 'concession' in persuasive writing?

a) Admitting that you do not know the answer
b) Acknowledging the valid points of the opposing viewpoint
c) Repeating the thesis statement exactly
d) Ending the essay early
Correct Answer: b) Acknowledging the valid points of the opposing viewpoint
Explanation:
A concession involves acknowledging an opposing view, which shows the grader that you grasp the complexity of the issue.

32. What is the standard function of the concluding paragraph?

a) To introduce the most important example
b) To restate the thesis and summarize main points without adding new arguments
c) To change your stance completely
d) To apologize for any grammatical errors
Correct Answer: b) To restate the thesis and summarize main points without adding new arguments
Explanation:
The conclusion should cleanly wrap up the essay, reiterating the main stance and core reasons, not introducing brand new ideas.

33. Does ETS publish the pool of topics for the Issue task?

a) No, the topics are strictly confidential.
b) Yes, the entire pool of potential topics is available on the ETS website.
c) Only for test-takers who pay an extra fee.
d) Yes, but they change the topics every week.
Correct Answer: b) Yes, the entire pool of potential topics is available on the ETS website.
Explanation:
ETS provides the complete pool of Issue topics online to allow test-takers to practice with actual prompts.

34. What does 'syntactic variety' refer to in AWA scoring?

a) Using a wide range of vocabulary words
b) Using different sentence structures and lengths to create engaging prose
c) Writing in different languages
d) Using multiple fonts and text sizes
Correct Answer: b) Using different sentence structures and lengths to create engaging prose
Explanation:
Syntactic variety means mixing simple, compound, and complex sentences to make the writing flow better and avoid monotony.

35. According to ETS, an essay scoring a 2 is considered:

a) Fundamentally deficient
b) Seriously flawed
c) Limited
d) Adequate
Correct Answer: b) Seriously flawed
Explanation:
A score of 2 represents a 'Seriously flawed' essay, which often shows serious problems in logical development or language control.

36. According to ETS, an essay scoring a 3 is considered:

a) Fundamentally deficient
b) Seriously flawed
c) Limited
d) Adequate
Correct Answer: c) Limited
Explanation:
A score of 3 indicates a 'Limited' essay that is somewhat competent but shows obvious weaknesses in development or language.

37. According to ETS, an essay scoring a 5 is considered:

a) Outstanding
b) Strong
c) Adequate
d) Flawless
Correct Answer: b) Strong
Explanation:
A 5 is a 'Strong' essay that demonstrates well-developed analysis and good control of standard written English.

38. If you write a brilliant, error-free essay on a topic different from the assigned prompt, what score will you receive?

a) 6.0
b) 4.0
c) 0.0
d) It will not be scored.
Correct Answer: c) 0.0
Explanation:
Essays that do not address the assigned prompt are considered 'off-topic' and automatically receive a score of 0.

39. Can you use hypothetical examples in your Issue essay?

a) No, ETS bans hypothetical scenarios.
b) Yes, but real-world historical or current events usually make for stronger arguments.
c) Yes, hypothetical examples are always preferred over facts.
d) Only if they involve math.
Correct Answer: b) Yes, but real-world historical or current events usually make for stronger arguments.
Explanation:
While hypotheticals are allowed, concrete real-world examples generally demonstrate broader knowledge and create a more compelling case.

40. What is considered a fatal flaw when writing an Issue essay?

a) Misspelling a difficult word
b) Failing to take a clear position on the issue
c) Not having exactly 5 paragraphs
d) Using the first-person pronoun 'I'
Correct Answer: b) Failing to take a clear position on the issue
Explanation:
The core of the task is to 'Analyze an Issue' and present an argument. Rambling neutrally without a clear stance undermines the entire task.

41. What is a 'hook' in the context of an essay introduction?

a) A grammatical error that catches the reader's attention
b) An engaging opening sentence designed to capture the reader's interest
c) The final sentence of the essay
d) A direct copy of the prompt
Correct Answer: b) An engaging opening sentence designed to capture the reader's interest
Explanation:
A hook is an intriguing statement, quote, or rhetorical question used to draw the reader into the essay.

42. Are you required to have a catchy 'hook' to get a 6.0?

a) Yes, a 6.0 is impossible without one.
b) No, a clear, direct opening is entirely sufficient for a top score.
c) Yes, the e-rater looks specifically for quotes.
d) No, introductions are not graded.
Correct Answer: b) No, a clear, direct opening is entirely sufficient for a top score.
Explanation:
While a hook is nice, ETS grades based on logical analysis and clarity. A direct intro that sets up the thesis is perfectly fine.

43. If a prompt asks you to evaluate a 'policy', what approach is usually most effective?

a) Stating whether you like the policy based on emotion
b) Evaluating the pros, cons, and potential real-world consequences of implementing the policy
c) Refusing to answer because policies are political
d) Writing a poem about the policy
Correct Answer: b) Evaluating the pros, cons, and potential real-world consequences of implementing the policy
Explanation:
Policy prompts are best answered by analyzing practical implications, costs/benefits, and long-term consequences.

44. What happens if time runs out while you are in the middle of typing a sentence?

a) The entire essay is voided.
b) You automatically drop to a score of 2.
c) The essay is submitted as-is; an incomplete final sentence is a minor flaw but won't ruin a strong essay.
d) You get 2 extra minutes to finish.
Correct Answer: c) The essay is submitted as-is; an incomplete final sentence is a minor flaw but won't ruin a strong essay.
Explanation:
Graders know it is a timed first draft. An incomplete final thought might be a slight blemish but won't overshadow an otherwise 5 or 6 essay.

45. Does the GRE text editor allow you to use the 'Tab' key to indent paragraphs?

a) Yes, it works exactly like Microsoft Word.
b) No, the Tab key often moves the cursor out of the text box. It is safer to use spaces or block formatting (hitting Enter twice).
c) Yes, and you are penalized if you don't use it.
d) No, paragraphs are not allowed.
Correct Answer: b) No, the Tab key often moves the cursor out of the text box. It is safer to use spaces or block formatting (hitting Enter twice).
Explanation:
Due to the basic nature of the interface, the Tab key can behave unpredictably. Block formatting (leaving a blank line between paragraphs) is recommended.

46. What style of language is expected in the AWA section?

a) Conversational and casual
b) Standard Written English (formal, academic tone)
c) Highly technical jargon regardless of topic
d) Poetic and highly emotive
Correct Answer: b) Standard Written English (formal, academic tone)
Explanation:
Essays should be written in Standard Written English, avoiding slang, colloquialisms, and overly casual phrasing.

47. How does your AWA score affect your 130-170 Verbal Reasoning score?

a) It makes up 20% of the Verbal score.
b) It makes up 50% of the Verbal score.
c) It does not affect it at all; it is an entirely separate score.
d) A high AWA score adds 5 bonus points to the Verbal score.
Correct Answer: c) It does not affect it at all; it is an entirely separate score.
Explanation:
The AWA is evaluated completely independently of the multiple-choice Verbal and Quantitative sections.

48. Can graduate institutions see the actual essay you wrote, or just the score?

a) They only see the score.
b) They receive the score and the actual essay response.
c) They only see the essay if you scored below a 3.
d) They have to pay extra to see the essay.
Correct Answer: b) They receive the score and the actual essay response.
Explanation:
ETS makes your actual essay available to designated score recipients so admissions committees can review your writing directly.

49. When brainstorming, why might someone use the 'Pros and Cons' technique for the Issue task?

a) To ensure they write exactly 500 words
b) To find out which side of the issue they can generate the most evidence for, making it easier to write about
c) Because ETS requires a pros and cons list in the essay
d) To waste time
Correct Answer: b) To find out which side of the issue they can generate the most evidence for, making it easier to write about
Explanation:
Listing pros and cons helps determine which stance is more defensible based on your own knowledge base, rather than just your personal belief.

50. Should you write about your true personal belief or the side that is easier to defend?

a) Your true personal belief, because graders can detect insincerity.
b) The side that is easier to defend logically with strong examples.
c) Always agree with the prompt.
d) Always disagree with the prompt.
Correct Answer: b) The side that is easier to defend logically with strong examples.
Explanation:
The AWA tests your ability to construct an argument. You should choose the side you can support most effectively, regardless of your personal convictions.

51. What does the term 'cogent' mean as used in ETS scoring rubrics?

a) Confusing and scattered
b) Clear, logical, and convincing
c) Extremely long
d) Filled with big vocabulary words
Correct Answer: b) Clear, logical, and convincing
Explanation:
A cogent essay is one that is powerfully persuasive because of its clear logic and well-structured arguments.

52. Is it better to have 2 well-developed examples or 5 briefly mentioned examples?

a) 5 briefly mentioned examples show broader knowledge.
b) 2 well-developed examples show deeper analytical skills.
c) Both will score exactly the same.
d) You must have exactly 3 examples, no more, no less.
Correct Answer: b) 2 well-developed examples show deeper analytical skills.
Explanation:
The rubric rewards depth of thought and development over merely listing numerous superficial examples.

53. What is 'padding' in the context of the AWA?

a) Using transition words effectively
b) Adding unnecessary, repetitive words just to increase the essay length
c) Writing a strong conclusion
d) Double spacing the text
Correct Answer: b) Adding unnecessary, repetitive words just to increase the essay length
Explanation:
Padding makes the writing bloated and unclear. Graders and the e-rater penalize repetitive and empty phrasing.

54. Does ETS check essays for plagiarism?

a) No, they only grade for grammar.
b) Yes, ETS uses specialized software to compare essays against published works and other test-takers' essays.
c) Only if a human grader gets suspicious.
d) Yes, but they only check against Wikipedia.
Correct Answer: b) Yes, ETS uses specialized software to compare essays against published works and other test-takers' essays.
Explanation:
ETS uses powerful plagiarism detection software. Canned, memorized essays or copied texts will result in canceled scores.

55. Should you memorize a pre-written essay template and just fill in the blanks on test day?

a) Yes, this guarantees a score of 6.
b) No, ETS software identifies and penalizes highly generic, pre-packaged text.
c) Yes, but only if you buy the template from ETS.
d) No, because the text box won't let you type fast enough.
Correct Answer: b) No, ETS software identifies and penalizes highly generic, pre-packaged text.
Explanation:
Overly rigid templates limit your ability to address the specific prompt instructions and can flag as unoriginal.

56. What is the function of a 'qualifier' (e.g., 'often', 'in many cases') in an argument?

a) To make the essay longer
b) To avoid making overly absolute claims that are easy for an opponent to disprove
c) To confuse the human grader
d) To show grammatical superiority
Correct Answer: b) To avoid making overly absolute claims that are easy for an opponent to disprove
Explanation:
Qualifiers make arguments more nuanced and defensible, whereas absolute words like 'always' or 'never' are easy to attack.

57. Does the GRE AWA essay require a title?

a) Yes, and it must be centered.
b) Yes, but it can be left-aligned.
c) No, providing a title is unnecessary and wastes time.
d) Yes, it is explicitly requested in the instructions.
Correct Answer: c) No, providing a title is unnecessary and wastes time.
Explanation:
Titles are neither expected nor evaluated on the AWA. You should dive straight into the introductory paragraph.

58. Are you required to use formal citations (like APA or MLA) if you mention a historical fact?

a) Yes, missing citations leads to a plagiarism penalty.
b) No, formal citations are not expected or required in a timed draft.
c) Yes, you must include a bibliography at the end.
d) Only if you quote someone directly.
Correct Answer: b) No, formal citations are not expected or required in a timed draft.
Explanation:
Because it is a closed-book, timed test, you do not need to cite sources formally. You just introduce the example naturally (e.g., 'In the case of...').

59. What is the best strategy if you cannot think of a real-world example to support your thesis?

a) Leave the essay blank.
b) Invent a fake historical event or fake statistic.
c) Use a logical hypothetical scenario or a well-known analogy.
d) Copy a paragraph from the prompt.
Correct Answer: c) Use a logical hypothetical scenario or a well-known analogy.
Explanation:
While making up data is a bad habit and can undermine credibility if recognized, constructing a logical hypothetical situation is a valid argumentative tool.

60. Which of the following makes a thesis statement weak?

a) It clearly outlines the main points.
b) It simply restates the prompt without adding a personal position.
c) It uses standard written English.
d) It appears at the end of the intro.
Correct Answer: b) It simply restates the prompt without adding a personal position.
Explanation:
A thesis must present your own stance or argument, not merely parrot the issue presented.

61. If a prompt asks you to consider 'circumstances in which the recommendation might not hold', what MUST you include?

a) A fully agreeable essay with no exceptions
b) Explicit examples of situations where the prompt's idea would fail or be inappropriate
c) A personal anecdote about your childhood
d) A minimum of 6 paragraphs
Correct Answer: b) Explicit examples of situations where the prompt's idea would fail or be inappropriate
Explanation:
To get a high score, you must fulfill the specific instructions. This instruction demands you discuss exceptions to the rule.

62. If you agree completely with the prompt, should you still address opposing views?

a) No, that will confuse the reader.
b) Yes, acknowledging and rebutting opposing views adds complexity and strengthens your argument.
c) Only if you want a score of 3.
d) No, it wastes word count.
Correct Answer: b) Yes, acknowledging and rebutting opposing views adds complexity and strengthens your argument.
Explanation:
Even if you strongly agree, recognizing why someone else might disagree (and explaining why they are wrong) demonstrates high-level critical thinking.

63. When taking the GRE at home, what is a restriction regarding the AWA section?

a) You must hand-write the essay and hold it to the camera.
b) You cannot use an external keyboard.
c) You cannot use dual monitors to view the prompt on one screen and type on the other.
d) You are not allowed to look at the screen for more than 5 seconds.
Correct Answer: c) You cannot use dual monitors to view the prompt on one screen and type on the other.
Explanation:
For security reasons, the GRE at Home strictly prohibits the use of multiple monitors.

64. Is the AWA section ever omitted for standard test-takers?

a) Yes, if they score high on Verbal.
b) Yes, math-heavy programs allow you to skip it.
c) No, it is a mandatory part of every standard GRE administration.
d) Yes, it was removed entirely in 2023.
Correct Answer: c) No, it is a mandatory part of every standard GRE administration.
Explanation:
Though shortened to one task in 2023, the AWA is a required section for all standard GRE test-takers.

65. Can you request a score review (rescore) of your AWA section?

a) No, AWA scores are final upon release.
b) Yes, for a fee, your essay can be rescored by a different human reader.
c) Yes, and it is totally free.
d) Only if you scored a 0.
Correct Answer: b) Yes, for a fee, your essay can be rescored by a different human reader.
Explanation:
ETS allows a one-time score review for the AWA section for a fee. The new score becomes final, even if it is lower.

66. What is the most common reason test-takers score lower than they expect on the AWA?

a) Spelling errors
b) Failure to address the specific instructions provided with the prompt
c) Writing more than 500 words
d) Using the word 'however'
Correct Answer: b) Failure to address the specific instructions provided with the prompt
Explanation:
Many test-takers write a generic essay on the topic but ignore the specific instructions (e.g., addressing counterarguments), which artificially caps their score.

67. Ultimately, what does the GRE AWA section test?

a) Your specialized knowledge of politics and science
b) Your ability to articulate and support complex ideas effectively in English
c) Your typing speed
d) Your ability to memorize vocabulary lists
Correct Answer: b) Your ability to articulate and support complex ideas effectively in English
Explanation:
The AWA evaluates critical thinking and analytical writing—your ability to form a logical argument, back it up, and express it clearly.

68. Which of the following is NOT an acceptable source for an example in the Issue task?

a) A famous historical event
b) A plot from a well-known novel
c) A personal experience from a past job
d) All of these are acceptable sources.
Correct Answer: d) All of these are acceptable sources.
Explanation:
You can draw evidence from history, literature, current events, or personal experience, provided it strongly supports your thesis.

69. What is a 'rebuttal'?

a) A type of transition word
b) The act of refuting or disproving an opposing argument
c) The final sentence of the essay
d) A formatting error
Correct Answer: b) The act of refuting or disproving an opposing argument
Explanation:
After conceding an opposing point, a rebuttal explains why your original argument is still superior or why the opposing point is flawed.

70. How should a test-taker interpret broad terms like 'progress' or 'success' in a prompt?

a) Ask the proctor for a definition.
b) Assume the grader knows what they mean and ignore them.
c) Define them clearly in the introduction to set the parameters of the argument.
d) Refuse to answer because the prompt is too vague.
Correct Answer: c) Define them clearly in the introduction to set the parameters of the argument.
Explanation:
Defining ambiguous terms shows deep analytical thinking and allows you to control the scope of your argument.

71. If the prompt states 'Governments should focus on immediate problems rather than anticipated future ones,' what is the core conflict?

a) Democracy vs. Dictatorship
b) Short-term needs vs. Long-term planning
c) Science vs. Religion
d) Capitalism vs. Socialism
Correct Answer: b) Short-term needs vs. Long-term planning
Explanation:
Identifying the core conflict (short-term vs. long-term) helps you brainstorm examples and structure a targeted essay.

72. When proofreading, what should you prioritize in the final 2-3 minutes?

a) Rewriting the entire thesis
b) Adding a completely new body paragraph
c) Fixing glaring grammatical errors, typos, and ensuring sentence clarity
d) Changing the font size
Correct Answer: c) Fixing glaring grammatical errors, typos, and ensuring sentence clarity
Explanation:
Proofreading time is for polishing and fixing obvious mistakes that disrupt flow, not for making massive structural changes.

73. Can you use rhetorical questions in your essay?

a) Yes, but they should be used sparingly for effect, not as a replacement for actual arguments.
b) No, they are strictly banned.
c) Yes, an essay must contain at least three.
d) No, because the automated grader cannot read question marks.
Correct Answer: a) Yes, but they should be used sparingly for effect, not as a replacement for actual arguments.
Explanation:
Rhetorical questions can be a nice stylistic touch, but they must be backed by concrete statements and evidence.

74. What is the danger of using overly complex vocabulary ('$10 words') incorrectly?

a) It increases your score automatically.
b) It can obscure meaning and make the essay seem pretentious or awkward, lowering the score.
c) The e-rater will crash.
d) It voids the essay.
Correct Answer: b) It can obscure meaning and make the essay seem pretentious or awkward, lowering the score.
Explanation:
Precise vocabulary is rewarded, but misusing big words disrupts clarity and negatively impacts the holistic score.

75. If you are unsure how to spell a complex word, what is the best strategy?

a) Guess wildly.
b) Use a simpler synonym that you know how to spell correctly.
c) Put the word in parentheses.
d) Leave a blank space.
Correct Answer: b) Use a simpler synonym that you know how to spell correctly.
Explanation:
Since there is no spell-checker, it is safer to use a word you are confident in rather than risking an embarrassing spelling error.

76. How are AWA percentiles determined?

a) Based on the number of words written.
b) By comparing your score to the performance of all other test-takers over a recent multi-year period.
c) By your undergraduate GPA.
d) By a random lottery.
Correct Answer: b) By comparing your score to the performance of all other test-takers over a recent multi-year period.
Explanation:
Like all GRE scores, the AWA score is associated with a percentile rank indicating how you performed relative to a large reference group.

77. Does taking the GRE on paper (where available) change the AWA format?

a) Yes, you have 60 minutes instead of 30.
b) No, the tasks and time limits are exactly the same, but you handwrite the essay.
c) Yes, you do not have to write an essay on paper.
d) Yes, you draw pictures instead.
Correct Answer: b) No, the tasks and time limits are exactly the same, but you handwrite the essay.
Explanation:
In areas where computer testing is unavailable, the paper test features the exact same task and time limit, simply written by hand.

78. Is the AWA scored by the same e-rater that grades TOEFL essays?

a) Yes, the underlying ETS e-rater technology is used across various ETS exams, though calibrated differently.
b) No, TOEFL essays are graded by professors.
c) No, GRE doesn't use e-rater.
d) Yes, and the score is the exact same scale.
Correct Answer: a) Yes, the underlying ETS e-rater technology is used across various ETS exams, though calibrated differently.
Explanation:
ETS uses its proprietary e-rater engine for both exams, though the specific criteria and strictness are calibrated for the GRE's unique demands.

79. Why is it important to read the prompt instructions completely?

a) To count the number of words in the prompt
b) Because prompts look similar but have different specific directions (e.g., addressing counterarguments vs. consequences).
c) Because you must memorize the prompt.
d) To check for ETS typos.
Correct Answer: b) Because prompts look similar but have different specific directions (e.g., addressing counterarguments vs. consequences).
Explanation:
The core claims might be similar, but the specific task instructions dictate how you must build your argument. Ignoring them caps your score.

80. What is a 'straw man' argument?

a) A strong, unassailable argument
b) A logical fallacy where you misrepresent an opposing argument to make it easier to attack
c) An argument about agriculture
d) The thesis statement
Correct Answer: b) A logical fallacy where you misrepresent an opposing argument to make it easier to attack
Explanation:
Avoiding logical fallacies like the straw man ensures your essay remains cogent and fair, yielding a higher score.

81. Which transition phrase best introduces an example?

a) In conclusion,
b) To illustrate,
c) Nevertheless,
d) Whereas,
Correct Answer: b) To illustrate,
Explanation:
'To illustrate,' 'For instance,' and 'For example' clearly signal to the reader that concrete evidence is about to be presented.

82. Should every body paragraph follow the exact same structure?

a) Yes, rigid consistency is required.
b) No, varying paragraph structure helps maintain reader interest and demonstrates syntactic variety.
c) Yes, it confuses the e-rater otherwise.
d) No, the second paragraph must always be shorter.
Correct Answer: b) No, varying paragraph structure helps maintain reader interest and demonstrates syntactic variety.
Explanation:
While having a topic sentence and evidence is standard, mixing up the flow and sentence structures within paragraphs displays higher writing proficiency.

83. How can you tell if an essay has a 'limited' (Score 3) vocabulary?

a) It uses words from a foreign language.
b) It relies heavily on repetition, simple words, and lacks precise terminology.
c) It has no spelling errors.
d) It uses the word 'very' once.
Correct Answer: b) It relies heavily on repetition, simple words, and lacks precise terminology.
Explanation:
A 'limited' essay often features basic, repetitive vocabulary rather than the precise, varied word choice characteristic of a 5 or 6.

84. What does 'analysis' actually mean in the context of the Issue task?

a) Summarizing the prompt
b) Breaking down the implications, underlying assumptions, and complexities of the claim
c) Finding grammatical errors in the prompt
d) Translating the prompt into another language
Correct Answer: b) Breaking down the implications, underlying assumptions, and complexities of the claim
Explanation:
True analysis involves looking deeply at *why* a claim might be true or false, rather than just stating an opinion on the surface.

85. If you are struggling to start, what is a good brainstorming technique?

a) Stare at the screen until inspiration hits.
b) Start writing randomly.
c) Ask who, what, when, where, and why about the prompt's topic.
d) Click 'Next' and skip the section.
Correct Answer: c) Ask who, what, when, where, and why about the prompt's topic.
Explanation:
Questioning the prompt generates angles and specific examples that can form the foundation of body paragraphs.

86. What is the primary danger of using a 'canned' (memorized) essay?

a) It will likely not fit the specific nuances of the prompt, resulting in a low score or a 0 for being off-topic.
b) You will type it too quickly.
c) The computer will crash.
d) It guarantees a perfect score.
Correct Answer: a) It will likely not fit the specific nuances of the prompt, resulting in a low score or a 0 for being off-topic.
Explanation:
Canned responses usually feel shoehorned and fail to address the specific instructions, which graders are trained to spot and penalize.

87. Is it required to write exactly five paragraphs?

a) Yes, the 5-paragraph structure is mandatory.
b) No, you can write 4, 5, or 6 paragraphs depending on how you structure your arguments.
c) Yes, anything else scores a 1.
d) No, essays must be exactly 3 paragraphs.
Correct Answer: b) No, you can write 4, 5, or 6 paragraphs depending on how you structure your arguments.
Explanation:
While the 5-paragraph model (Intro, 3 Body, Conclusion) is a safe and common template, there is no strict rule. The logic and development matter most.

88. How does reading high-quality publications (like The Economist or NYT) help with AWA prep?

a) It doesn't help at all.
b) It exposes you to sophisticated vocabulary, varied sentence structures, and current events to use as examples.
c) It allows you to memorize articles to copy on the test.
d) It provides the exact prompts used on the GRE.
Correct Answer: b) It exposes you to sophisticated vocabulary, varied sentence structures, and current events to use as examples.
Explanation:
Reading well-written journalism builds an intuitive sense of academic writing style and arms you with real-world examples.

89. What is the best way to handle a prompt that seems completely unfamiliar?

a) Give up.
b) Relate the broad concept to a historical event, societal trend, or logical analogy you do understand.
c) Write about a different topic you prefer.
d) Complain in the essay.
Correct Answer: b) Relate the broad concept to a historical event, societal trend, or logical analogy you do understand.
Explanation:
Prompts are designed to be general enough that anyone can apply basic logic, history, or everyday observations to formulate an argument.

90. What is a 'topic drift'?

a) When the essay gets better over time
b) When a paragraph starts on one subject but slowly wanders onto an unrelated tangent
c) When the proctor changes the prompt
d) When you use too many transition words
Correct Answer: b) When a paragraph starts on one subject but slowly wanders onto an unrelated tangent
Explanation:
Topic drift harms the cohesion of an essay. Every sentence in a body paragraph should support the topic sentence.

91. Which of the following makes an essay score a 6 instead of a 5?

a) Having zero spelling errors
b) Demonstrating superior insight, compelling examples, and a masterful control of language
c) Writing over 1000 words
d) Using the word 'thus' frequently
Correct Answer: b) Demonstrating superior insight, compelling examples, and a masterful control of language
Explanation:
The jump from 5 to 6 requires exceptional critical thinking, seamless flow, and highly persuasive, nuanced arguments.

92. Can an essay that disagrees entirely with the prompt score a 6?

a) Yes, absolute disagreement is perfectly fine if rigorously defended.
b) No, you must always agree partially.
c) No, ETS requires consensus.
d) Only if you are taking a specific major.
Correct Answer: a) Yes, absolute disagreement is perfectly fine if rigorously defended.
Explanation:
Your stance doesn't matter. A passionate, fully dissenting essay can easily score a 6 if the logic and writing are superb.

93. Is it okay to use bullet points or numbered lists in the AWA?

a) Yes, it makes it easier to read.
b) No, the AWA requires continuous prose in standard paragraph format.
c) Yes, but only in the conclusion.
d) Yes, if you run out of time.
Correct Answer: b) No, the AWA requires continuous prose in standard paragraph format.
Explanation:
The task assesses your ability to write an academic essay. Bullet points circumvent the need for transitions and flow, harming the score.

94. What does a 'roadmap' refer to in an AWA introduction?

a) A literal map of the testing center
b) A brief outline of the 2-3 main points you will discuss in the body paragraphs
c) The bibliography
d) The prompt's history
Correct Answer: b) A brief outline of the 2-3 main points you will discuss in the body paragraphs
Explanation:
A roadmap tells the reader exactly where the essay is going, making it easier for the grader to follow your logic.

95. Why should you avoid using the phrase 'I think that' or 'In my opinion' too frequently?

a) It is grammatically incorrect.
b) It weakens the authoritative tone of your argument.
c) It is considered plagiarism.
d) It confuses the e-rater.
Correct Answer: b) It weakens the authoritative tone of your argument.
Explanation:
While first-person is allowed, constantly saying 'I think' sounds hesitant. It is stronger to state your claims as facts (e.g., 'This policy will fail because...').

96. If you notice a typo in your thesis statement with 10 seconds left, what should you do?

a) Panic and delete the whole paragraph.
b) Quickly correct it, as the thesis is the most important sentence.
c) Leave it; fixing it takes too long.
d) Close the testing window.
Correct Answer: b) Quickly correct it, as the thesis is the most important sentence.
Explanation:
The thesis anchors the essay. A glaring typo there leaves a bad first impression, so it should be fixed if you have a few seconds.

97. What is the best way to handle a prompt that gives two opposing viewpoints?

a) Ignore one completely.
b) Discuss both sides and clearly justify why you align with one side over the other.
c) Say both are equally right and write nothing else.
d) Complain about the prompt.
Correct Answer: b) Discuss both sides and clearly justify why you align with one side over the other.
Explanation:
When presented with a dichotomy, a strong essay analyzes both perspectives before firmly taking and defending a side.

98. How does ETS ensure human graders remain objective?

a) They don't; it's completely subjective.
b) Graders are rigorously trained, strictly follow a standard rubric, and their scores are checked against the e-rater.
c) Graders are robots in disguise.
d) They only grade essays from their own state.
Correct Answer: b) Graders are rigorously trained, strictly follow a standard rubric, and their scores are checked against the e-rater.
Explanation:
ETS uses extensive calibration, double-scoring (with e-rater), and strict rubrics to minimize subjective bias.

99. What should you do if the prompt contains a word you don't know?

a) Guess its meaning from context clues and proceed confidently.
b) Ask the proctor for a dictionary.
c) Skip the AWA section.
d) Write an essay about how you don't know the word.
Correct Answer: a) Guess its meaning from context clues and proceed confidently.
Explanation:
You cannot use a dictionary. You must use context clues to infer the meaning and build your best argument.

100. What is the purpose of the 'Cut' and 'Paste' functions on the GRE?

a) To copy text from the internet.
b) To easily reorganize sentences or entire paragraphs without retyping.
c) To insert images.
d) To cheat on the exam.
Correct Answer: b) To easily reorganize sentences or entire paragraphs without retyping.
Explanation:
The cut/paste tools allow you to quickly shift a paragraph or sentence to improve the logical flow of the essay.

101. If you accidentally delete a paragraph, how can you retrieve it?

a) You can't; it's gone forever.
b) Use the 'Undo' button immediately.
c) Call ETS support.
d) Press the escape key.
Correct Answer: b) Use the 'Undo' button immediately.
Explanation:
The interface includes an 'Undo' button that reverses the most recent action, saving you if you accidentally delete text.

102. Is the AWA score available immediately at the end of the test?

a) Yes, like the Verbal and Quant scores.
b) No, because it requires human grading; it takes about 8-10 days to receive.
c) No, it takes 6 months.
d) Yes, the e-rater gives you an instant score.
Correct Answer: b) No, because it requires human grading; it takes about 8-10 days to receive.
Explanation:
Unlike the multiple-choice sections which are scored instantly, the AWA takes time because a human reader must evaluate the essay.

103. What is 'active voice', and why is it preferred in the AWA?

a) When the subject receives the action; it makes writing longer.
b) When the subject performs the action; it makes sentences clearer and more forceful.
c) When you speak out loud while typing.
d) A special font setting.
Correct Answer: b) When the subject performs the action; it makes sentences clearer and more forceful.
Explanation:
Active voice (e.g., 'The government implemented the policy') is generally more direct and engaging than passive voice ('The policy was implemented by the government').

104. How should a test-taker approach a prompt dealing with education?

a) Only use examples from elementary school.
b) Draw on personal academic experiences or broader societal trends in education.
c) Avoid it because education is controversial.
d) State that education is useless.
Correct Answer: b) Draw on personal academic experiences or broader societal trends in education.
Explanation:
Educational prompts are common; referencing university systems, pedagogical trends, or personal academic history provides strong evidence.

105. What is a 'generalization' in an essay?

a) A specific military example.
b) A broad statement applied to a whole group, which can weaken an argument if not supported.
c) A precise fact.
d) A transition word.
Correct Answer: b) A broad statement applied to a whole group, which can weaken an argument if not supported.
Explanation:
Sweeping generalizations (e.g., 'All students hate testing') undermine credibility. Using qualifiers ('Many students...') is safer and more accurate.

106. What does a score of 5 on the AWA signify regarding sentence structure?

a) It uses only simple sentences.
b) It demonstrates syntactic variety and appropriate word choice.
c) It uses overly complex and confusing sentences exclusively.
d) It lacks punctuation entirely.
Correct Answer: b) It demonstrates syntactic variety and appropriate word choice.
Explanation:
A score of 5 indicates a high level of language control, characterized by a good mix of sentence types and strong vocabulary.

107. Can you score a 6 if English is your second language?

a) No, ETS caps ESL students at a 4.
b) Yes, the rubric grades on analytical clarity and effective language control, not on having a native-sounding idiom for every phrase.
c) Yes, but you get extra time.
d) No, the e-rater discriminates against non-native speakers.
Correct Answer: b) Yes, the rubric grades on analytical clarity and effective language control, not on having a native-sounding idiom for every phrase.
Explanation:
Many ESL students score 5s and 6s by focusing on clear logic, solid structure, and accurate standard grammar, even if their prose lacks native stylistic flair.

108. Why might an essay that presents a brilliant argument receive a low score?

a) It was too persuasive.
b) The argument had nothing to do with the prompt provided.
c) It used a transition word.
d) It was exactly 4 paragraphs long.
Correct Answer: b) The argument had nothing to do with the prompt provided.
Explanation:
No matter how brilliantly written, if the essay ignores the assigned topic, it fails the task and receives a 0.

109. To prepare for the AWA, what is the best use of the official ETS topic pool?

a) Write out a full essay for all 300+ topics.
b) Practice outlining 10-20 diverse topics and write a few full timed essays to build stamina and speed.
c) Ignore it; the topics on the test are totally different.
d) Memorize one essay that fits every topic.
Correct Answer: b) Practice outlining 10-20 diverse topics and write a few full timed essays to build stamina and speed.
Explanation:
Writing 300 essays is impractical. Practicing brainstorming and writing a few timed essays prepares you for the pressure and variety of topics.

110. Does the AWA task test your factual accuracy on historical dates?

a) Yes, getting a year wrong drops the score by a full point.
b) No, graders are evaluating your logical reasoning, not fact-checking specific dates.
c) Yes, ETS uses a specialized fact-checking algorithm.
d) No, you shouldn't use history at all.
Correct Answer: b) No, graders are evaluating your logical reasoning, not fact-checking specific dates.
Explanation:
While you shouldn't invent crazy lies, getting a minor historical detail wrong (like saying 1941 instead of 1939) will not hurt your score if the logical point stands.

111. What is the primary function of the 'Analyze an Issue' task in the eyes of graduate admissions?

a) To see if you have nice handwriting.
b) To ensure you can type fast.
c) To assess your readiness for graduate-level academic writing and critical analysis.
d) To test your knowledge of obscure vocabulary.
Correct Answer: c) To assess your readiness for graduate-level academic writing and critical analysis.
Explanation:
Admissions committees use the AWA score to verify that you possess the critical thinking and communication skills necessary for rigorous graduate coursework.
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