The Railway Recruitment Board Junior Engineer (RRB JE) examination is a premier national-level recruitment test conducted to select qualified engineering graduates and diploma holders for technical supervisory roles within Indian Railways. The multi-stage selection framework comprises a screening Computer-Based Test (CBT 1), a merit-determining Computer-Based Test (CBT 2) featuring discipline-specific technical abilities, Document Verification, and a Medical Examination. Mastering the exact sectional breakdowns, question distributions, marking schemes, and negative marking rules is vital for aspirants aiming to clear competitive merit cutoffs.
1. What does RRB stand for in the context of Indian Railways?
Correct Answer: a) Railway Recruitment Board
Explanation:
RRB stands for Railway Recruitment Board, which is the government organization responsible for recruiting staff for the Indian Railways.
2. Which of the following posts is NOT typically recruited through the RRB JE examination?
Correct Answer: d) Station Master
Explanation:
Station Masters are recruited through the RRB NTPC (Non-Technical Popular Categories) exam, not the RRB JE exam.
3. What is the general age limit (unreserved category) to apply for the RRB JE exam?
Correct Answer: b) 18 to 33 years
Explanation:
The standard age limit for the unreserved category for the RRB JE exam is 18 to 33 years, though official notifications may occasionally grant specific age relaxations.
4. How many stages of Computer Based Test (CBT) are conducted in the RRB JE recruitment process?
Correct Answer: b) Two
Explanation:
The RRB JE recruitment process consists of two stages of Computer Based Tests: CBT 1 and CBT 2.
5. Is there a negative marking system in the RRB JE CBT exams?
Correct Answer: c) Yes, 1/3 mark is deducted for each wrong answer
Explanation:
In both CBT 1 and CBT 2 of the RRB JE exam, 1/3 of the marks allotted to a question are deducted for every incorrect answer.
6. What is the primary purpose of the RRB JE CBT 1 exam?
Correct Answer: b) Screening of candidates for CBT 2
Explanation:
CBT 1 is qualifying in nature and acts as a screening test to shortlist candidates for the second stage (CBT 2).
7. How many total questions are asked in RRB JE CBT 1?
Correct Answer: a) 100
Explanation:
The RRB JE CBT 1 exam consists of 100 objective-type multiple-choice questions.
8. What is the total time duration allowed for normal candidates to complete CBT 1?
Correct Answer: b) 90 minutes
Explanation:
Normal candidates are given 90 minutes to complete the 100 questions in CBT 1.
9. Which of the following subjects is NOT part of the RRB JE CBT 1 syllabus?
Correct Answer: d) Technical Abilities
Explanation:
Technical Abilities are tested in CBT 2. CBT 1 consists of Mathematics, Reasoning, General Awareness, and General Science.
10. How many questions are asked from Mathematics in RRB JE CBT 1?
Correct Answer: c) 30
Explanation:
In CBT 1, the Mathematics section consists of 30 questions.
11. What is the standard of the General Science syllabus in CBT 1?
Correct Answer: b) 10th Standard CBSE
Explanation:
The General Science questions in CBT 1 are based on Physics, Chemistry, and Life Sciences of 10th standard CBSE syllabus.
12. How many total questions are there in RRB JE CBT 2?
Correct Answer: c) 150
Explanation:
The RRB JE CBT 2 exam comprises a total of 150 objective-type questions.
13. What is the total duration of the RRB JE CBT 2 exam for normal candidates?
Correct Answer: b) 120 minutes
Explanation:
Candidates are given 120 minutes (2 hours) to attempt the 150 questions in CBT 2.
14. In CBT 2, how many marks are allocated to the 'Technical Abilities' section?
Correct Answer: c) 100 marks
Explanation:
The Technical Abilities section in CBT 2 carries 100 marks, out of the total 150 marks.
15. Is a virtual calculator permitted during the RRB JE exams?
Correct Answer: c) Yes, it is allowed in CBT 2 only
Explanation:
A virtual calculator is made available on the computer monitor during CBT 2, but it is not allowed in CBT 1.
16. What is the minimum qualifying percentage for Unreserved (UR) candidates in CBT 1 and CBT 2?
Correct Answer: c) 40%
Explanation:
The minimum qualifying marks for the UR (Unreserved) category in both stages of the exam is 40%.
17. What is the minimum qualifying percentage for OBC (Non-Creamy Layer) candidates in the CBTs?
Correct Answer: b) 30%
Explanation:
OBC (NCL) candidates must score a minimum of 30% to qualify in the CBT stages.
18. Generally, how many candidates are shortlisted for CBT 2 based on CBT 1 performance?
Correct Answer: c) 15 times the number of vacancies
Explanation:
RRB typically shortlists candidates for CBT 2 at a rate of 15 times the total number of vacancies.
19. What happens if an exam is conducted in multiple shifts?
Correct Answer: b) Scores are normalized
Explanation:
To ensure fairness across different difficulty levels of question papers, RRB normalizes the scores if the exam is conducted in multiple shifts.
20. On what basis is the final merit list prepared for the RRB JE recruitment?
Correct Answer: b) Marks obtained in CBT 2 only
Explanation:
The final merit list is prepared strictly based on the marks obtained by the candidate in CBT 2, provided they clear the medical and document verification.
21. Is there a personal interview stage in the RRB JE selection process?
Correct Answer: c) No, there is no interview
Explanation:
There is no interview in the RRB JE recruitment process. Selection is purely based on the CBT 2 merit, Document Verification, and Medical Examination.
22. What is the full form of DMS in the context of RRB JE?
Correct Answer: b) Depot Material Superintendent
Explanation:
DMS stands for Depot Material Superintendent, one of the key posts recruited through the RRB JE examination.
23. What is the full form of CMA in the RRB JE recruitment?
Correct Answer: a) Chemical and Metallurgical Assistant
Explanation:
CMA stands for Chemical and Metallurgical Assistant, a post that usually requires a Bachelor's degree in Science with Physics and Chemistry.
24. What educational qualification is generally required for the post of CMA?
Correct Answer: b) B.Sc Science with Physics and Chemistry
Explanation:
The minimum educational qualification for the post of Chemical & Metallurgical Assistant (CMA) is a Bachelor's Degree in Science with Physics and Chemistry.
25. Can final year students awaiting their engineering diploma/degree results apply for RRB JE?
Correct Answer: c) No, they are not eligible to apply
Explanation:
Candidates must possess the prescribed educational qualification on or before the closing date for submission of the online application.
26. What is the age relaxation provided to SC/ST candidates for the RRB JE exam?
Correct Answer: b) 5 years
Explanation:
According to government norms, SC/ST candidates are given an age relaxation of 5 years on the upper age limit.
27. What is the age relaxation provided to OBC (Non-Creamy Layer) candidates?
Correct Answer: b) 3 years
Explanation:
OBC (Non-Creamy Layer) candidates receive an age relaxation of 3 years on the upper age limit.
28. Which section in CBT 2 carries 10 marks and deals with ecological concepts?
Correct Answer: c) Basics of Environment & Pollution Control
Explanation:
The 'Basics of Environment & Pollution Control' section in CBT 2 consists of 10 questions and tests candidates on ecological and environmental concepts.
29. MS Office, Operating Systems, and Internet are topics included in which CBT 2 section?
Correct Answer: d) Basics of Computers and Applications
Explanation:
These topics fall under the 'Basics of Computers and Applications' section, which carries 10 marks in CBT 2.
30. How many marks are assigned to General Awareness in CBT 1?
Correct Answer: b) 15 marks
Explanation:
The General Awareness section in CBT 1 consists of 15 questions, each carrying 1 mark, totaling 15 marks.
31. In CBT 1, the 'General Intelligence & Reasoning' section consists of how many questions?
Correct Answer: c) 25
Explanation:
There are 25 questions in the General Intelligence & Reasoning section of CBT 1.
32. Does the RRB JE syllabus include an English Language test?
Correct Answer: c) No, it is not part of the syllabus
Explanation:
The RRB JE exam syllabus does not include a specific English Language or Grammar section.
33. Are candidates allowed to apply to multiple Railway Recruitment Boards (RRBs) for the same JE notification?
Correct Answer: c) No, candidates can apply to only one RRB
Explanation:
A candidate can submit an online application to only one RRB. Applying to multiple RRBs will lead to the rejection of all applications.
34. What is the pay level of a Junior Engineer (JE) in Indian Railways as per the 7th CPC?
Correct Answer: c) Level 6
Explanation:
RRB Junior Engineers are placed in Level 6 of the 7th Central Pay Commission (CPC) Pay Matrix.
35. What is the initial basic pay for a Junior Engineer under the 7th CPC?
Correct Answer: c) Rs. 35,400/-
Explanation:
The initial basic pay for RRB JE (Level 6) is Rs. 35,400/- plus other admissible allowances.
36. What happens in the event of a tie in marks during the preparation of the RRB JE merit list?
Correct Answer: b) The older candidate gets preference
Explanation:
If two or more candidates secure equal marks, the tie is resolved by age criteria, meaning the older candidate is placed higher in the merit list.
37. Which of the following medical standards is generally NOT acceptable for the post of Junior Engineer in RRB?
Correct Answer: d) Unfit in all medical categories
Explanation:
Candidates must pass specific medical standards like A3, B1, B2, or C1 depending on the post. A candidate deemed entirely medically unfit cannot be selected.
38. Is color vision tested during the RRB JE medical examination?
Correct Answer: c) Yes, it is strictly tested for posts with A3 and B1 medical standards
Explanation:
Many JE posts require A3 or B1 medical standards, which strictly require normal color vision. Color blind candidates are ineligible for such posts.
39. Which post specifically requires an educational qualification in Computer Science or Information Technology?
Correct Answer: b) JE (IT)
Explanation:
The Junior Engineer (Information Technology) post requires a PGDCA, B.Sc in Computer Science, BCA, B.Tech in IT, or equivalent.
40. What is the duration of the CBT 1 exam for Persons with Benchmark Disabilities (PwBD) accompanied by a scribe?
Correct Answer: c) 120 minutes
Explanation:
PwBD candidates who utilize the facility of a scribe are given a compensatory time of 30 minutes, making their total CBT 1 duration 120 minutes.
41. What is the duration of the CBT 2 exam for PwBD candidates using a scribe?
Correct Answer: c) 160 minutes
Explanation:
The standard duration for CBT 2 is 120 minutes, but PwBD candidates using a scribe get 160 minutes.
42. Which of the following topics is found under the 'Mathematics' syllabus of CBT 1?
Correct Answer: b) BODMAS
Explanation:
BODMAS is a fundamental mathematical concept explicitly mentioned in the RRB JE CBT 1 Mathematics syllabus.
43. Which section covers 'Venn Diagrams' and 'Syllogism' in the RRB JE syllabus?
Correct Answer: b) General Intelligence & Reasoning
Explanation:
Topics like Venn Diagrams, Syllogism, Coding-Decoding, and Analogies are part of the General Intelligence & Reasoning syllabus.
44. Current Affairs and Indian Geography are tested in which section of CBT 1?
Correct Answer: b) General Awareness
Explanation:
The General Awareness section covers topics like Current Affairs, Indian Geography, Culture and History of India, and Indian Polity.
45. Are candidates allowed to carry a smartwatch to the examination hall?
Correct Answer: c) No, electronic gadgets are strictly prohibited
Explanation:
RRB strictly prohibits electronic gadgets, including mobile phones, pagers, and smartwatches, inside the examination hall.
46. What happens if a candidate brings prohibited items like mobile phones to the exam center?
Correct Answer: b) The candidate's exam is cancelled and they may be debarred
Explanation:
Possession of prohibited items leads to immediate disqualification and possible debarment from future RRB examinations.
47. Is there a physical efficiency test (PET) for the RRB JE post, similar to Group D exams?
Correct Answer: c) No, there is no Physical Efficiency Test
Explanation:
Unlike RRB Group D, the RRB JE selection process does not include a Physical Efficiency Test (PET).
48. What is the mode of application for the RRB JE exam?
Correct Answer: b) Online only through official RRB websites
Explanation:
Candidates can apply for the RRB JE exam exclusively through the online mode via the official websites of the respective RRBs.
49. What is the default language of the RRB JE question paper?
Correct Answer: b) English
Explanation:
While the exam is available in multiple languages chosen by the candidate, English is the default language, and in case of any dispute/ambiguity, the English version prevails.
50. Are candidates allowed to change their examination center once allotted?
Correct Answer: c) No, center change requests are not entertained
Explanation:
RRBs do not entertain any requests for a change of examination center, date, or shift.
51. Which of the following is an accepted ID proof for verification at the RRB JE exam center?
Correct Answer: b) Original Voter ID or Aadhar Card
Explanation:
Candidates must carry a valid, original photo ID proof such as Voter ID, Aadhar Card, Driving License, or Passport to the exam center.
52. Do candidates get a refund of their application fee if they do not appear for the CBT 1 exam?
Correct Answer: c) No, the fee is refunded only to those who appear in CBT 1
Explanation:
The partial refund of the examination fee (as applicable to different categories) is processed only for candidates who actually attend the CBT 1 exam.
53. What is the primary objective of Document Verification (DV) in the RRB JE recruitment?
Correct Answer: b) To verify the authenticity of the candidate's educational and category certificates
Explanation:
DV is conducted to check the original documents of the candidate to ensure they meet all eligibility criteria claimed in the application.
54. How many times the number of vacancies are candidates usually called for Document Verification?
Correct Answer: a) Equal to the number of vacancies
Explanation:
As per recent RRB norms, candidates are called for Document Verification exactly equal to the number of vacancies (1:1 ratio), based on their merit in CBT 2.
55. Does RRB provide free travel authority to any candidates for appearing in the exams?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, a free Sleeper Class Railway Pass is provided to SC/ST candidates
Explanation:
SC/ST candidates who upload their caste certificate during application are provided with a free Sleeper Class Railway Pass to travel to the exam center.
56. Are candidates allowed to wear colored glasses/sunglasses during the Medical Examination?
Correct Answer: b) No
Explanation:
During the RRB medical fitness test, wearing colored glasses or contact lenses is generally strictly prohibited as vision and color blindness are thoroughly checked.
57. Can a candidate holding a Diploma in Mechanical Engineering apply for an Electrical Engineering post, assuming the post does not specify allied branches?
Correct Answer: b) No, the educational qualification must match the post requirements
Explanation:
Candidates must possess the specific educational qualification (diploma/degree) in the relevant discipline prescribed for the post.
58. In the RRB JE syllabus, what does 'BODMAS' stand for in mathematics?
Correct Answer: a) Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction
Explanation:
BODMAS is the rule detailing the order of operations in mathematics: Brackets, Orders (powers/roots), Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction.
59. Is 'Trigonometry' included in the CBT 1 Mathematics syllabus?
Correct Answer: a) Yes
Explanation:
Trigonometry is explicitly listed as a topic in the Mathematics syllabus for the RRB JE CBT 1 exam.
60. Which of the following topics is part of the 'General Intelligence & Reasoning' section?
Correct Answer: b) Data Interpretation and Sufficiency
Explanation:
Data Interpretation and Sufficiency is a common topic tested under the General Intelligence & Reasoning section.
61. How many RRBs (Railway Recruitment Boards) are currently functioning in India?
Correct Answer: c) 21
Explanation:
There are 21 Railway Recruitment Boards (RRBs) across India that conduct recruitment for various railway zones.
62. What is the typical probationary period for a candidate appointed as a Junior Engineer through RRB?
Correct Answer: c) 2 years
Explanation:
Newly appointed Junior Engineers in the Indian Railways typically undergo a probationary and training period of 2 years.
63. Are candidates required to bring their own rough sheets to the CBT exam?
Correct Answer: b) No, rough sheets are provided at the exam center
Explanation:
Exam centers provide rough sheets and pens for the candidates. Candidates must return the rough sheets to the invigilator after the exam.
64. Which section of CBT 2 tests the candidate's core engineering knowledge?
Correct Answer: c) Technical Abilities
Explanation:
The Technical Abilities section, worth 100 marks, specifically tests the core engineering subjects according to the candidate's chosen exam group.
65. For a candidate with a Diploma in Civil Engineering, what will be the Exam Group for CBT 2 Technical Abilities?
Correct Answer: b) Civil and Allied Engineering
Explanation:
Candidates are grouped into exam groups based on their qualifications. A Civil Engineer will take the Technical Abilities test for 'Civil and Allied Engineering'.
66. If a candidate chooses to write the exam in Tamil, what other language will automatically be available to them on the screen?
Correct Answer: c) English
Explanation:
Regardless of the regional language chosen by the candidate, English is provided as a default language on the computer screen for all questions.
67. Does the RRB JE syllabus include 'History of India'?
Correct Answer: a) Yes, in the General Awareness section of CBT 1 and CBT 2
Explanation:
The History of India is an integral part of the General Awareness syllabus tested in CBT 1, and General Awareness is also a 15-mark section in CBT 2.
68. Which of the following is NOT an 'Allied Engineering' branch grouped under Mechanical Engineering for RRB JE CBT 2?
Correct Answer: d) Computer Science Engineering
Explanation:
Computer Science Engineering falls under IT, not Mechanical and Allied Engineering.
69. What is the full form of PwBD in the official RRB notification?
Correct Answer: b) Persons with Benchmark Disabilities
Explanation:
PwBD stands for Persons with Benchmark Disabilities, referring to individuals possessing at least 40% of a specified disability.
70. What is the minimum degree of disability required to claim PwBD reservation benefits?
Correct Answer: c) 40%
Explanation:
To be eligible for concessions and reservations, a PwBD candidate must have a benchmark disability of not less than 40%.
71. Which of the following best describes 'Normalization' in RRB exams?
Correct Answer: b) A statistical process to adjust scores across multiple shifts to account for varying difficulty levels
Explanation:
RRB uses a statistical normalization formula to ensure candidates are not disadvantaged by variations in difficulty across different exam shifts.
72. Are candidates allowed to leave the examination hall before the CBT ends?
Correct Answer: c) No, candidates must remain seated until the full exam duration is over
Explanation:
RRB rules mandate that candidates cannot leave the exam hall until the total time for the CBT has elapsed.
73. Does RRB provide a mock test link prior to the actual CBT?
Correct Answer: a) Yes, to familiarize candidates with the CBT interface
Explanation:
RRB activates a mock test link on its official websites a few weeks before the exam to help candidates understand the computer-based testing interface.
74. What happens if a candidate attempts to impersonate another person during the RRB JE exam?
Correct Answer: c) They are immediately debarred for life and face criminal prosecution
Explanation:
Impersonation is a severe offense that leads to immediate disqualification, lifelong debarment from all RRB exams, and legal/criminal action.
75. Which of the following is required for biometric verification at the exam center?
Correct Answer: b) Thumb impression and facial capture
Explanation:
RRB conducts biometric verification using thumb impressions (often Aadhaar-based) and digital facial photograph capture at the exam centers.
76. Can candidates request a review or re-evaluation of their CBT scores after the final results are declared?
Correct Answer: c) No, there is no provision for re-evaluation of CBT scores
Explanation:
Since the exam is completely objective and computer-evaluated, RRB does not entertain requests for re-evaluation of scores.
77. What facility does RRB provide to candidates immediately after the CBT exams?
Correct Answer: b) Viewing of question paper, candidate responses, and answer keys
Explanation:
RRB provides a window for candidates to view their question paper, answers, and the official answer key to raise objections if they find discrepancies.
78. If a candidate wants to raise an objection against a question/answer key, is there a fee involved?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, a prescribed fee per question is charged
Explanation:
Candidates must pay a prescribed fee per question to raise objections. If the objection is found correct, the fee for that question is refunded.
79. Which visual acuity standard corresponds to 'A3' in RRB medical manuals?
Correct Answer: a) Distance Vision: 6/9, 6/9 with or without glasses
Explanation:
The A3 medical standard requires a distance vision of 6/9, 6/9 with or without glasses, along with normal color vision, binocular vision, night vision, etc.
80. If a candidate is selected as a JE but fails the required medical standard for that specific post, what happens?
Correct Answer: c) They may be considered for an alternative post if they meet its medical standard and merit criteria, otherwise rejected
Explanation:
If a candidate fails the medical test for their first preference, they can be considered for lower preference posts provided they meet the merit and medical requirements for those posts.
81. Which of the following topics is specifically mentioned under 'Basics of Environment and Pollution Control' in CBT 2?
Correct Answer: b) Acid rain
Explanation:
Acid rain is a key topic covered under the Basics of Environment and Pollution Control syllabus in CBT 2.
82. Which of the following topics is specifically mentioned under 'Basics of Computers and Applications' in CBT 2?
Correct Answer: b) Web Browsers
Explanation:
Web Browsers, Internet, and Email are explicitly listed in the syllabus for Basics of Computers and Applications in CBT 2.
83. For the CMA post, which specific subject forms the core of the Technical Abilities section in CBT 2?
Correct Answer: b) Physics & Chemistry
Explanation:
For the Chemical & Metallurgical Assistant (CMA) post, the Technical Abilities section is based entirely on B.Sc level Physics and Chemistry.
84. Can a candidate carrying a B.Sc in Physics and Chemistry apply for standard Junior Engineer (Civil) posts?
Correct Answer: b) No, JE (Civil) specifically requires a Diploma/Degree in Civil Engineering
Explanation:
To apply for JE engineering posts (like Civil, Mechanical), a candidate MUST possess the specific engineering diploma or degree. A B.Sc only qualifies them for CMA.
85. Is it mandatory to have an Aadhaar Card to apply for the RRB JE exam?
Correct Answer: c) No, but Aadhaar verification is strongly encouraged and commonly used for biometric authentication
Explanation:
While other IDs are accepted for form submission, RRB highly encourages Aadhaar-based authentication for seamless biometric verification at exam centers.
86. What is the penalty for leaving a question unattempted (blank) in the CBT?
Correct Answer: c) No penalty (0 marks)
Explanation:
Negative marking only applies to incorrect answers. Unattempted questions attract zero marks, with no penalty.
87. Is the RRB JE exam conducted on a single day across India?
Correct Answer: b) No, it is usually conducted in multiple phases and shifts over several days
Explanation:
Due to the massive number of applicants, the CBT is conducted in multiple shifts across multiple days and phases.
88. What is the total maximum marks one can score in CBT 1 and CBT 2 combined?
Correct Answer: d) They are not combined for final merit
Explanation:
CBT 1 is only for screening. The final merit is based strictly on the 150 marks of CBT 2. Therefore, combining their scores has no relevance for final selection.
89. Which of the following topics is covered in the 'General Awareness' section of CBT 1?
Correct Answer: a) Indian Polity and Constitution
Explanation:
Indian Polity and Constitution form a core part of the General Awareness syllabus in both CBT 1 and CBT 2.
90. Which of the following mathematical concepts is included in CBT 1?
Correct Answer: b) Time and Work
Explanation:
Time and Work is a standard quantitative aptitude topic included in the CBT 1 Mathematics syllabus.
91. Which section in CBT 1 includes 'Alphabetical and Number Series'?
Correct Answer: b) General Intelligence & Reasoning
Explanation:
Alphabetical and Number Series is a fundamental topic in the General Intelligence & Reasoning syllabus.
92. What is the percentage requirement in Graduation/Diploma to apply for RRB JE?
Correct Answer: d) No specific percentage, just passing marks are required
Explanation:
RRB JE eligibility criteria generally require the candidate to possess the degree/diploma; there is no minimum percentage bar specified in standard notifications.
93. Are Ex-Servicemen eligible for reservation in the RRB JE recruitment?
Correct Answer: a) Yes
Explanation:
Ex-Servicemen are eligible for reservations and age relaxations as per Government of India rules in RRB JE recruitment.
94. What happens if a candidate's signature on the application form does not match the signature done at the exam center?
Correct Answer: b) The candidate's candidature may be cancelled
Explanation:
Signatures must match across all documents and attendance sheets. A mismatch can lead to the cancellation of the candidature due to suspicion of impersonation.
95. Are candidates required to send a hard copy of the application form to the RRB office?
Correct Answer: c) No, only the online application is required
Explanation:
The entire application process is paperless. Candidates do not need to send any hard copies of the application to RRB.
96. Is the RRB JE Exam Pattern identical for all technical branches (Civil, Mechanical, Electrical, etc.) up to CBT 1?
Correct Answer: a) Yes, CBT 1 is common for all posts
Explanation:
CBT 1 is a common, general screening test for all candidates, regardless of their engineering branch.
97. At what stage are the technical abilities of a candidate officially evaluated?
Correct Answer: b) CBT 2
Explanation:
The technical abilities of a candidate, specific to their branch, are evaluated through a 100-mark section in CBT 2.
98. What is the format of the questions asked in the RRB JE CBT exams?
Correct Answer: b) Objective Type Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Explanation:
Both CBT 1 and CBT 2 consist exclusively of Objective Type Multiple Choice Questions.
99. If an RRB JE notification is released, where can candidates find the detailed official syllabus?
Correct Answer: b) On the official Centralized Employment Notice (CEN) published on RRB websites
Explanation:
The official detailed syllabus and all rules are published in the Centralized Employment Notice (CEN) on the official RRB websites.
100. Which of the following is NOT a recognized RRB zone?
Correct Answer: c) RRB New York
Explanation:
RRBs are Indian regional recruitment boards. RRB New York does not exist.
101. What is the policy on tattoos during the RRB JE Medical Examination?
Correct Answer: b) Tattoos are allowed provided they do not interfere with medical evaluations (unlike some defense jobs, railways are generally lenient unless it hides skin conditions)
Explanation:
Unlike the armed forces which have strict tattoo policies, RRBs generally do not reject candidates for normal tattoos, provided they pass all medical fitness tests.
102. Which section is unique to CBT 2 and not present in CBT 1?
Correct Answer: c) Basics of Computers and Applications
Explanation:
Mathematics and Reasoning are dropped in CBT 2. Basics of Computers, Environment, Physics & Chemistry, and Technical Abilities are introduced in CBT 2.
103. Which of the following categories is eligible for a completely free application (exempted from fee) under typical RRB norms?
Correct Answer: c) Female Candidates of all categories
Explanation:
Under standard RRB rules, Female candidates, SC/ST, PwBD, Ex-Servicemen, and Transgender candidates pay a lower fee which is usually fully refunded after CBT 1, effectively making it free.
104. Does a candidate need to clear sectional cutoffs in CBT 1?
Correct Answer: b) No, there are no sectional cutoffs; only the overall cutoff matters
Explanation:
The RRB JE exam does not have sectional cutoffs. Candidates are shortlisted based on their total combined score across all sections.
