The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) Civil Services Preliminary Examination serves as the rigorous initial screening gateway for India’s premier administrative services. Administered in a single day across two objective-type papers General Studies Paper I and the Civil Services Aptitude Test (CSAT) the exam tests both comprehensive domain knowledge and analytical reasoning. GS Paper I dictates the merit cutoff for shortlisting candidates to the Mains, while CSAT functions as a qualifying paper requiring a mandatory 33% threshold. Practicing structured multiple-choice questions aligned with official marking schemes, negative marking penalties, and core syllabus themes helps aspirants sharpen their time management and objective-solving strategies.
1. In how many successive stages is the UPSC Civil Services Examination (CSE) conducted?
Correct Answer: c) Three stages
Explanation:
The UPSC Civil Services Examination is conducted in three distinct stages: Preliminary Examination, Main Examination, and the Personality Test (Interview).
2. What is the nature of the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination?
Correct Answer: b) Objective type (Multiple Choice Questions)
Explanation:
The Preliminary Examination consists of objective-type multiple-choice questions designed to screen candidates for the Mains exam.
3. Which of the following statements about the UPSC Preliminary Examination Paper II (CSAT) is correct?
Correct Answer: b) It is a qualifying paper requiring a minimum of 33% marks.
Explanation:
CSAT (General Studies Paper II) is qualifying in nature, and candidates must score a minimum of 33% (approx. 66 marks out of 200) to qualify.
4. What is the negative marking scheme for incorrect answers in the UPSC Preliminary Examination?
Correct Answer: c) 1/3rd of the marks assigned to that question
Explanation:
There is a penalty (negative marking) for wrong answers marked by a candidate in the objective papers, amounting to 1/3rd of the marks assigned to that question.
5. Are the marks obtained in the UPSC Preliminary Examination added to the final merit ranking?
Correct Answer: b) No, Prelims is only a screening test and its marks are not counted for final merit.
Explanation:
The marks secured in the Preliminary Examination are used only to shortlist candidates for the Main Examination and do not count toward the final merit list.
6. How many total papers are there in the UPSC Civil Services Main Examination?
Correct Answer: b) 9 papers
Explanation:
The Main Examination comprises 9 papers, out of which 2 are qualifying (Indian language and English) and 7 are counted for final merit ranking.
7. Which of the following papers in the UPSC Main Examination is NOT counted for final merit calculation?
Correct Answer: c) Compulsory English Paper
Explanation:
The Compulsory English paper and the Modern Indian Language paper are qualifying in nature; their marks are not added to the merit ranking.
8. What is the maximum total marks for the final merit list in the UPSC Civil Services Examination?
Correct Answer: b) 2025 marks
Explanation:
The final merit is determined by combining the marks obtained in the 7 Main Examination merit papers (1750 marks) and the Personality Test/Interview (275 marks), totaling 2025 marks.
9. What is the weightage of the Personality Test (Interview) in the UPSC Civil Services Examination?
Correct Answer: c) 275 marks
Explanation:
The Interview/Personality Test carries a maximum of 275 marks, evaluating a candidate's mental alertness, balance of judgment, and leadership qualities.
10. What is the general upper age limit for a General category candidate appearing for the UPSC Civil Services Exam?
Correct Answer: b) 32 years
Explanation:
For General and EWS category candidates, the age limit is 21 to 32 years, with relaxations applicable for reserved categories.
11. How many attempts are allowed for a General category candidate in the UPSC Civil Services Exam?
Correct Answer: b) 6 attempts
Explanation:
General category candidates are permitted a maximum of 6 attempts, whereas OBC and PwBD candidates get 9 attempts, and SC/ST candidates have unlimited attempts up to the upper age limit.
12. Which constitutional body conducts the Civil Services Examination in India?
Correct Answer: b) Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)
Explanation:
UPSC is a constitutional body established under Article 315 of the Indian Constitution responsible for conducting examinations for all-India services and central services.
13. Which schedule of the Indian Constitution contains provisions regarding languages recognized by the Constitution, which can be chosen for the qualifying Indian Language paper in UPSC Mains?
Correct Answer: a) Eighth Schedule
Explanation:
The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution lists the officially recognized languages, and candidates can select any one of these for Paper A of the Mains.
14. General Studies Paper IV in the UPSC Main Examination specifically evaluates which of the following areas?
Correct Answer: b) Ethics, Integrity, and Aptitude
Explanation:
GS Paper IV is dedicated to Ethics, Integrity, and Aptitude, testing candidates' attitude and approach to issues relating to integrity, probity in public life, and problem-solving.
15. What is the duration of each paper in the UPSC Preliminary Examination?
Correct Answer: b) 2 hours
Explanation:
Both General Studies Paper I and General Studies Paper II (CSAT) are conducted for a duration of 2 hours each.
16. Which of the following services is classified as an All-India Service under Article 312 of the Constitution?
Correct Answer: c) Indian Administrative Service (IAS)
Explanation:
The three All-India Services are the Indian Administrative Service (IAS), Indian Police Service (IPS), and Indian Forest Service (IFoS).
17. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the Union Public Service Commission established?
Correct Answer: b) Article 315
Explanation:
Article 315 to 323 in Part XIV of the Constitution contain provisions regarding the composition, appointment, and removal of members, and powers of the UPSC.
18. Which of the following topics forms part of the Indian Polity and Governance syllabus in UPSC Prelims GS Paper I?
Correct Answer: b) Panchayati Raj and Public Policy
Explanation:
Indian Polity and Governance covers the Constitution, political system, Panchayati Raj, public policy, rights issues, etc.
19. What does the abbreviation CSAT stand for in the context of the UPSC Civil Services Examination?
Correct Answer: a) Civil Services Aptitude Test
Explanation:
CSAT stands for Civil Services Aptitude Test, which is General Studies Paper II in the Preliminary Examination.
20. How many optional subjects does a candidate need to choose for the UPSC Main Examination?
Correct Answer: a) One subject (comprising two papers)
Explanation:
Candidates must select one optional subject from the list of available subjects, which is tested through two separate papers (Paper I and Paper II), each carrying 250 marks.
21. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on which historical document introduced by Jawaharlal Nehru?
Correct Answer: b) Objective Resolution
Explanation:
The Preamble is based on the 'Objectives Resolution', drafted and moved by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru on December 13, 1946, and unanimously adopted by the Constituent Assembly.
22. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Fundamental Rights?
Correct Answer: c) Part III
Explanation:
Part III of the Constitution (Articles 12 to 35) guarantees Fundamental Rights to citizens, often referred to as the 'Magna Carta of India'.
23. Which writ is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to prevent it from exceeding its jurisdiction?
Correct Answer: c) Prohibition
Explanation:
The writ of 'Prohibition' is literally issued to prevent a subordinate court or tribunal from usurping jurisdiction which it does not legally possess.
24. Who acts as the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha in the Indian Parliament?
Correct Answer: c) The Vice-President of India
Explanation:
The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha as per Article 64 and Article 89 of the Constitution.
25. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for the amendment procedure of the Constitution?
Correct Answer: c) Article 368
Explanation:
Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution deals with the powers of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure.
26. The concept of 'Basic Structure' of the Indian Constitution was propounded by the Supreme Court in which landmark case?
Correct Answer: b) Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)
Explanation:
In the historic Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala case (1973), the Supreme Court ruled that Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution under Article 368, but cannot alter its 'Basic Structure'.
27. Which financial committee of the Parliament has the Speaker of Lok Sabha as its ex-officio Chairman (in case they are a member)?
Correct Answer: d) Rules Committee
Explanation:
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the ex-officio Chairman of花の Rules Committee and the General Purposes Committee of the Lok Sabha.
28. What is the maximum gap permitted between two sessions of Parliament under Article 85?
Correct Answer: b) Six months
Explanation:
Article 85 mandates that the President shall summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place that six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next session.
29. Who is known as the 'Father of Local Self-Government' in modern India?
Correct Answer: b) Lord Ripon
Explanation:
Lord Ripon's resolution of 1882 on local self-government is hailed as the 'Magna Carta' of local democracy in India, earning him the title.
30. The Seventy-Third Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 added which new part to the Indian Constitution?
Correct Answer: a) Part IX
Explanation:
The 73rd Amendment Act added Part IX titled 'The Panchayats' containing Articles 243 to 243-O, along with the Eleventh Schedule.
31. Who founded the 'Atmiya Sabha' in 1815 as a precursor to the socio-religious reform movements in India?
Correct Answer: b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
Explanation:
Raja Ram Mohan Roy founded Atmiya Sabha in 1815 in Calcutta to campaign against social evils like idol worship, caste rigidities, and meaningless rituals.
32. The famous 'Poona Pact' of 1932 was signed between Mahatma Gandhi and whom?
Correct Answer: c) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
Explanation:
The Poona Pact was signed on September 24, 1932, at Yerwada Central Jail in Pune by B. R. Ambedkar on behalf of the depressed classes and Madan Mohan Malaviya for Gandhi, abandoning separate electorates in favor of reserved seats.
33. In which year did the Indian National Congress pass the historic 'Purna Swaraj' (Complete Independence) resolution?
Correct Answer: b) 1929
Explanation:
The Lahore session of the Indian National Congress in December 1929, under the presidency of Jawaharlal Nehru, passed the Purna Swaraj resolution.
34. The 'Cabinet Mission' came to India in which year?
Correct Answer: c) 1946
Explanation:
The Cabinet Mission arrived in India in March 1946 to discuss and plan for the transfer of power from the British government to Indian leadership.
35. Who was the first Governor-General of independent India?
Correct Answer: a) Lord Mountbatten
Explanation:
Lord Mountbatten served as the first Governor-General of independent India from August 1947 to June 1948, followed by C. Rajagopalachari.
36. The Doctrine of Lapse, a policy that annexed many princely states, was aggressively implemented by:
Correct Answer: b) Lord Dalhousie
Explanation:
Lord Dalhousie, who served as Governor-General from 1848 to 1856, applied the Doctrine of Lapse to annex states like Satara, Nagpur, and Jhansi.
37. Which of the following newspapers was founded by Bal Gangadhar Tilak to propagate nationalist views?
Correct Answer: b) Kesari
Explanation:
Kesari was a Marathi newspaper founded in 1881 by Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak, which served as a notable mouthpiece for the Indian national movement.
38. The Dandi March, led by Mahatma Gandhi as part of the Civil Disobedience Movement, started from Sabarmati Ashram on:
Correct Answer: b) March 12, 1930
Explanation:
The Salt March (Dandi March) began on March 12, 1930, from Sabarmati Ashram and reached Dandi on April 6, 1930, defying the salt tax law.
39. Which act introduced 'Dyarchy' at the provincial level in British India?
Correct Answer: b) Government of India Act, 1919
Explanation:
The Government of India Act, 1919 (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms) introduced dyarchy (rule of two authorities) in the provinces, dividing executive subjects into 'Transferred' and 'Reserved'.
40. The Cripps Mission visited India during the tenure of which Viceroy?
Correct Answer: a) Lord Linlithgow
Explanation:
Sir Stafford Cripps visited India in March 1942 with constitutional proposals during the Viceroyalty of Lord Linlithgow.
41. Which layer of the Earth's atmosphere contains the ozone layer that absorbs harmful ultraviolet radiation?
Correct Answer: b) Stratosphere
Explanation:
The stratosphere houses the ozone layer, which absorbs the sun's ultraviolet (UV) radiation, protecting life on Earth.
42. Which ocean current is a warm ocean current located in the Atlantic Ocean?
Correct Answer: c) Gulf Stream
Explanation:
The Gulf Stream is a powerful, warm, and swift Atlantic ocean current that originates in the Gulf of Mexico and stretches up to the North Atlantic.
43. The 'Rift Valley' of India is primarily formed by which of the following rivers?
Correct Answer: b) Narmada and Tapti
Explanation:
The Narmada and Tapti rivers flow westward through rift valleys (fault-bounded depressions) into the Arabian Sea rather than forming deltas.
44. Which pass connects Srinagar with Leh in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir / Ladakh?
Correct Answer: c) Zoji La
Explanation:
Zoji La is a high mountain pass in Ladakh, located on the Srinagar-Leh highway in the Western Himalayan mountain range.
45. El Nino, a phenomenon associated with global weather changes, is characterized by the abnormal warming of surface waters in the:
Correct Answer: a) Tropical Pacific Ocean
Explanation:
El Nino is the warm phase of the El Nino-Southern Oscillation (ENSO) and is associated with a band of warm ocean water that develops in the central and east-central equatorial Pacific.
46. What is the primary driver of India's monsoon climate?
Correct Answer: a) Differential heating and cooling of land and water
Explanation:
The monsoon is primarily caused by the differential rates of heating and cooling of the Asian landmass and the surrounding Indian Ocean.
47. Which type of soil is most suitable for the cultivation of cotton in India?
Correct Answer: c) Black soil (Regur soil)
Explanation:
Black soils, also known as Regur soils, are rich in clay and moisture-retentive, making them ideal for growing cotton.
48. The Tropic of Cancer passes through how many Indian states?
Correct Answer: c) 8 states
Explanation:
The Tropic of Cancer (23.30° N) passes through 8 Indian states: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram.
49. Which latitude passes roughly through the middle of India, dividing it into tropical and subtropical zones?
Correct Answer: b) Tropic of Cancer
Explanation:
The Tropic of Cancer divides the country into roughly two climatic halves: tropical (southern part) and subtropical/temperate (northern part).
50. The 'Lonar Lake' in Maharashtra, known for its unique origin as a meteorite impact crater, is designated as which type of site?
Correct Answer: a) Ramsar Wetland Site
Explanation:
Lonar Lake is a notified Ramsar site and a saline, soda lake created by a meteorite impact in basaltic rock during the Pleistocene Epoch.
51. What is 'GDP Deflator' used to measure?
Correct Answer: b) Overall price inflation across all goods and services in an economy
Explanation:
The GDP deflator is a measure of general price inflation calculated as the ratio of nominal GDP to real GDP multiplied by 100.
52. What does 'Repo Rate' signify in monetary policy?
Correct Answer: b) Rate at which the Reserve Bank of India lends money to commercial banks against government securities
Explanation:
Repo rate (Repurchase rate) is the benchmark interest rate at which the RBI provides liquidity to commercial banks against collateral.
53. Which organization calculates and publishes the National Income data in India?
Correct Answer: c) National Statistical Office (NSO)
Explanation:
The National Statistical Office (under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation) is responsible for compiling and releasing national income estimates in India.
54. What is meant by 'Fiscal Deficit'?
Correct Answer: b) Excess of total government expenditure over total receipts excluding borrowings
Explanation:
Fiscal deficit indicates the total borrowing requirements of the government from all sources during a fiscal year.
55. Priority Sector Lending (PSL) requirements in India apply primarily to which category of financial institutions?
Correct Answer: a) Commercial Banks
Explanation:
The RBI mandates commercial banks to lend a specified portion of their bank credit to sectors prioritized by the government, such as agriculture, MSMEs, and weaker sections.
56. What is the primary function of NITI Aayog in India?
Correct Answer: b) Acting as the apex public policy think tank providing directional and policy inputs
Explanation:
NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) serves as the apex policy think tank of the Government of India, promoting cooperative federalism.
57. Inflation targeting in India is managed by the RBI based on which index?
Correct Answer: b) Consumer Price Index - Combined (CPI-C)
Explanation:
Under the monetary policy framework agreement, the RBI targets inflation based on the Consumer Price Index (CPI) Combined, maintaining a target of 4% with a band of +/- 2%.
58. What does 'Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)' require commercial banks to maintain?
Correct Answer: a) A specified percentage of net demand and time liabilities in liquid assets like cash, gold, or approved securities
Explanation:
SLR requires banks to maintain a designated fraction of their deposits in safe, liquid assets such as government securities before lending to customers.
59. Which international agreement aims to phase out Ozone Depleting Substances (ODS)?
Correct Answer: b) Montreal Protocol
Explanation:
The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer is a landmark international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production of numerous substances.
60. What is the main objective of the 'Paris Agreement' under the UNFCCC?
Correct Answer: b) Holding global average temperature increase to well below 2°C above pre-industrial levels
Explanation:
The Paris Agreement is a legally binding international treaty on climate change aiming to limit global warming to well below 2°C, preferably to 1.5°C.
61. What is a 'Biodiversity Hotspot'?
Correct Answer: b) A biogeographic region with significant levels of biodiversity that is threatened by habitat loss
Explanation:
To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, a region must contain at least 1,500 species of vascular plants as endemics and have lost at least 70% of its original habitat.
62. Which of the following Indian states has the maximum geographic area under mangrove cover?
Correct Answer: c) West Bengal
Explanation:
West Bengal has the highest mangrove cover in India, largely due to the Sunderbans delta, followed by Gujarat and Andaman & Nicobar Islands.
63. The Wildlife Protection Act in India was enacted in which year?
Correct Answer: b) 1972
Explanation:
The Wildlife (Protection) Act was enacted in 1972 to provide protection to wild animals, birds, and plants and matters connected therewith.
64. What is the primary objective of Project Tiger, launched in India in 1973?
Correct Answer: b) Ensuring a maintenance-free population of tigers in their natural habitats
Explanation:
Project Tiger was launched in 1973 as a centrally sponsored scheme to promote tiger conservation and maintain a viable population of tigers in India.
65. What is 'Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD)' used as a standard indicator for?
Correct Answer: b) Measuring the amount of dissolved oxygen needed by aerobic biological organisms to break down organic material present in water
Explanation:
BOD is a vital metric for water quality; higher BOD levels indicate greater organic pollution and lower available dissolved oxygen for aquatic life.
66. The term 'Eutrophication' is best described as:
Correct Answer: b) The enrichment of water bodies with nutrients, leading to excessive plant and algal growth and oxygen depletion
Explanation:
Eutrophication occurs when excess nutrients (like nitrates and phosphates from fertilizers) enter water bodies, causing algal blooms that suffocate aquatic ecosystems.
67. Which organization compiles the 'Red Data Book' containing lists of threatened species?
Correct Answer: b) International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
Explanation:
The IUCN Red List of Threatened Species, founded in 1964, is the world's most comprehensive inventory of the global conservation status of biological species.
68. What is the primary function of the 'Caspian Sea' despite its name?
Correct Answer: a) It is the largest inland body of water (saltwater lake) in the world.
Explanation:
The Caspian Sea is bounded by Kazakhstan, Russia, Azerbaijan, Iran, and Turkmenistan, and is scientifically classified as the world's largest inland enclosed water body.
69. Which of the following is a direct application of 'CRISPR-Cas9' technology?
Correct Answer: b) Gene editing and targeted modification of DNA sequences
Explanation:
CRISPR-Cas9 is a revolutionary gene-editing tool that allows scientists to alter DNA sequences and modify gene function with high precision.
70. What is 'Heavy Water' used for in nuclear reactors?
Correct Answer: b) As a moderator to slow down fast neutrons
Explanation:
Heavy water (deuterium oxide) is used in nuclear reactors as a neutron moderator to slow down neutrons so that they can sustain the nuclear fission chain reaction.
71. Which of the following waves are used in standard mobile phone communication?
Correct Answer: b) Radio waves / Microwaves
Explanation:
Cellular networks transmit voice and data using radio frequency waves and microwaves within specific electromagnetic spectrum bands.
72. What is the primary purpose of India's 'Gaganyaan' mission?
Correct Answer: b) Sending Indian astronauts (Vyomonauts) into low Earth orbit and returning them safely
Explanation:
Gaganyaan is India's flagship human spaceflight mission undertaken by ISRO to demonstrate human space flight capability to low Earth orbit.
73. What distinguishes 'LIGO-India' project?
Correct Answer: b) It is an advanced gravitational-wave observatory designed to detect ripples in spacetime.
Explanation:
LIGO-India is a planned gravitational-wave detector to be built in Maharashtra, serving as part of the worldwide network to detect gravitational waves.
74. What is 'Light-Emitting Diode (LED)' technology based on?
Correct Answer: b) Electroluminescence in semiconductor materials
Explanation:
An LED is a semiconductor device that emits light when an electric current passes through it, a process known as electroluminescence.
75. Which component is essential for quantum computing, replacing classical bits?
Correct Answer: b) Qubits (Quantum bits)
Explanation:
Unlike classical bits that can be either 0 or 1, qubits can exist in a superposition of states, allowing quantum computers to process complex information rapidly.
76. What is 'Superconductivity'?
Correct Answer: a) The ability of a material to conduct electricity with zero electrical resistance below a critical temperature
Explanation:
Superconductivity is a phenomenon of exact zero electrical resistance and expulsion of magnetic fields occurring in certain materials when cooled below a characteristic critical temperature.
77. What is the primary role of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India?
Correct Answer: b) To audit all receipts and expenditure of the Government of India and state governments
Explanation:
The CAG is an independent constitutional authority under Article 148 who audits government accounts and ensures financial accountability to Parliament and state legislatures.
78. Which constitutional authority is responsible for advising the President of India on legal matters?
Correct Answer: b) Attorney General for India
Explanation:
Under Article 76, the Attorney General for India is appointed by the President and acts as the highest legal officer, giving advice on legal matters referred by the President.
79. What is a 'Money Bill' uniquely characterized by in the Indian Parliament?
Correct Answer: b) It can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha on the recommendation of the President.
Explanation:
Under Article 110, Money Bills deal exclusively with taxation, borrowing, or the Consolidated Fund of India, and can originate only in the Lok Sabha with prior presidential recommendation.
80. Which institution acts as the final interpreter of the Indian Constitution?
Correct Answer: b) The Supreme Court of India
Explanation:
The Supreme Court is the apex judicial tribunal and the ultimate constitutional interpreter, endowed with the power of judicial review.
81. What is the tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner of India?
Correct Answer: b) 6 years or up to 65 years of age, whichever is earlier
Explanation:
The Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
82. Which battle marked the virtual establishment of British supremacy in Bengal in the 18th century?
Correct Answer: b) Battle of Buxar (1764)
Explanation:
While Plassey established British political foothold, the Battle of Buxar (1764) firmly cemented British political and military control over Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa, leading to the grant of Diwani rights.
83. Who founded the 'Satyashodhak Samaj' in 1873 to uplift the weaker and depressed sections of society?
Correct Answer: a) Jyotirao Phule
Explanation:
Jyotirao Phule founded Satyashodhak Samaj (Society of Seekers of Truth) in Maharashtra to advocate for the rights of lower castes, untouchables, and women.
84. The 'Home Rule Movement' in India was spearheaded by whom among the following?
Correct Answer: a) Annie Besant and Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Explanation:
The Indian Home Rule movement (1916) was launched by Bal Gangadhar Tilak in April 1916 in Maharashtra and Annie Besant in September 1916 in Madras, aiming for self-government.
85. What was the main purpose of the 'Cripps Mission' sent to India in 1942?
Correct Answer: b) To secure Indian cooperation and support for the British war effort in World War II in exchange for dominion status post-war
Explanation:
The Cripps Mission offered dominion status and a constituent assembly after World War II, which was rejected by Indian leaders as it fell short of complete independence.
86. Which mountain range separates Europe from Asia?
Correct Answer: b) Ural Mountains
Explanation:
The Ural Mountains run north-south through Russia and are traditionally considered the natural geographic dividing line between Europe and Asia.
87. What is the primary characteristic of 'Tundra' vegetation?
Correct Answer: b) Stunted growth of mosses, lichens, and low shrubs due to extremely cold sub-zero climates
Explanation:
Tundra is a treeless polar climate region where the subsoil is permanently frozen (permafrost), supporting only low-growing vegetation like mosses and lichens.
88. What does 'Current Account Deficit (CAD)' in the balance of payments signify?
Correct Answer: a) The country imports more goods, services, and transfers than it exports.
Explanation:
CAD occurs when the total value of imported goods, services, and net transfers exceeds the value of exports, indicating net borrowing from abroad.
89. What is the main function of 'Open Market Operations (OMOs)' conducted by the central bank?
Correct Answer: a) Buying and selling of government securities to regulate money supply in the economy
Explanation:
OMOs are monetary policy tools used by the central bank to inject or absorb liquidity in the banking system by trading government securities.
90. Which of the following is a greenhouse gas that is naturally occurring as well as emitted through agricultural practices like paddy cultivation?
Correct Answer: b) Methane
Explanation:
Methane (CH4) is a potent greenhouse gas released during anaerobic decomposition in wetlands, livestock digestion, and flooded paddy fields.
91. What is the significance of the 'Ramsar Convention'?
Correct Answer: a) Conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources
Explanation:
The Ramsar Convention is an international treaty for the conservation and sustainable utilization of wetlands, signed in Ramsar, Iran, in 1971.
92. Which organization releases the 'Global Gender Gap Report'?
Correct Answer: b) World Economic Forum (WEF)
Explanation:
The Global Gender Gap Report is published annually by the World Economic Forum, benchmarking countries on gender-based disparities across economic, educational, health, and political indicators.
93. What is the primary goal of the 'Mission LiFE' (Lifestyle for Environment) initiative?
Correct Answer: b) Nurturing an international lifestyle that focuses on 'mindful and deliberate utilization' rather than 'mindless and destructive consumption'
Explanation:
Mission LiFE aims to mobilize individuals into 'pro-planet people' (3P) who practice simple, eco-friendly daily habits to combat climate change.
94. Which animal is the mascot of the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF)?
Correct Answer: b) Giant Panda
Explanation:
The Giant Panda has been the iconic logo and symbol of the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) since its founding in 1961.
95. What is the term for species that have a disproportionately large effect on their natural environment relative to their abundance?
Correct Answer: b) Keystone species
Explanation:
A keystone species plays a critical role in maintaining the structure of an ecological community; its removal causes drastic ecosystem changes.
96. What is the primary purpose of the 'Solid Oxide Fuel Cells (SOFC)' technology?
Correct Answer: a) Converting chemical energy from fuel directly into electricity with high efficiency
Explanation:
Solid Oxide Fuel Cells are electrochemical devices that produce electricity efficiently by oxidizing a fuel, such as hydrogen or natural gas.
97. Which Indian state shares land boundaries with the maximum number of neighboring countries?
Correct Answer: d) Sikkim
Explanation:
Sikkim shares its borders with three different countries: Bhutan to the east, Nepal to the west, and China (Tibet Autonomous Region) to the north.
98. The 'Doldrums' refer to which of the following atmospheric zones?
Correct Answer: a) Equatorial low-pressure belt characterized by calm winds
Explanation:
The doldrums is a popular nautical term for the equatorial trough, known for calm, sluggish winds and erratic weather patterns.
99. What is 'Habeas Corpus' literally translated to from Latin?
Correct Answer: a) To have the body of
Explanation:
Habeas corpus is a writ requiring a person under arrest to be brought before a judge or into court, especially to secure the person's release unless lawful grounds are shown for their detention.
100. Which of the following bodies is a constitutional body under the Indian Constitution?
Correct Answer: c) Finance Commission
Explanation:
The Finance Commission is constituted by the President under Article 280 of the Constitution, making it a constitutional body, whereas NITI Aayog, NHRC, and CVC are extra-constitutional or statutory bodies.
101. Who was the Viceroy of India when the partition of Bengal was announced in 1905?
Correct Answer: b) Lord Curzon
Explanation:
Lord Curzon announced the partition of Bengal in July 1905, which took effect on October 16, 1905, provoking widespread nationwide protests and the Swadeshi movement.
102. What is the principal objective of the 'Startup India' initiative?
Correct Answer: a) Building a strong ecosystem for nurturing innovation and driving sustainable economic growth
Explanation:
Startup India is a flagship initiative designed to foster entrepreneurship and build a robust startup ecosystem through tax incentives, funding support, and simpler compliance.
103. Which layer of the atmosphere experiences a decrease in temperature with increasing altitude and is where most weather phenomena occur?
Correct Answer: b) Troposphere
Explanation:
The troposphere is the lowest layer of Earth's atmosphere, containing approximately 75% of the atmosphere's mass and almost all water vapor and weather activity.
104. What is 'Greenwashing'?
Correct Answer: b) Disinformation disseminated by an organization to present an environmentally responsible public image
Explanation:
Greenwashing refers to the practice of making misleading claims about the environmental benefits of a product, service, or company practice to appeal to eco-conscious consumers.
105. What is the main function of the 'National Green Tribunal (NGT)' in India?
Correct Answer: b) Effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests
Explanation:
The NGT is a specialized statutory body established in 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act for handling cases and speedy disposal pertaining to environmental issues.
106. Which institution releases the 'World Development Report' annually?
Correct Answer: b) World Bank
Explanation:
The World Development Report is an invaluable annual publication by the World Bank providing extensive analysis and policy recommendations on specific socioeconomic development topics.
107. What is the primary objective of the 'Aspirational Districts Programme' in India?
Correct Answer: a) Transforming districts that have experienced the slowest progress across key social and economic sectors
Explanation:
The Aspirational Districts Programme, anchored by NITI Aayog, focuses on improving performance across health, education, agriculture, infrastructure, and financial inclusion in underperforming districts.
108. Which of the following is considered a 'Navratna' category public sector undertaking (PSU) characteristic?
Correct Answer: a) Financial autonomy allowing investments up to a certain financial ceiling without prior government approval
Explanation:
Navratna status grants enhanced financial and operational autonomy to high-performing public sector enterprises in India.
109. What is the role of the 'Pro-Tem Speaker' in the Lok Sabha?
Correct Answer: b) To administer the oath of office to newly elected members of Parliament and preside over the election of the regular Speaker
Explanation:
The Pro-Tem Speaker is a temporary speaker appointed to conduct the business of the newly constituted Lok Sabha until a permanent Speaker is elected.
110. Which historical site features the famous rock-cut temples built during the Rashtrakuta dynasty?
Correct Answer: b) Ellora Caves (Kailash Temple)
Explanation:
The monolithic rock-cut Kailash Temple (Cave 16) at Ellora, Maharashtra, was built during the reign of the Rashtrakuta king Krishna I.
111. The term 'Stagflation' refers to an economic scenario characterized by:
Correct Answer: b) Stagnant economic growth, high unemployment, and high inflation simultaneously
Explanation:
Stagflation is a complex economic condition featuring simultaneous stagnant growth (or recession) and rising price levels (inflation).
112. Which ministry is responsible for implementing the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)?
Correct Answer: b) Ministry of Rural Development
Explanation:
MGNREGA is implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development in association with state governments, guaranteeing 100 days of wage employment in a financial year to rural households.
113. What is the primary purpose of India's 'INS Arihant' class of vessels?
Correct Answer: a) Nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarines providing strategic deterrence
Explanation:
INS Arihant is India's first indigenous nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine (SSBN), forming a core component of the country's nuclear triad.
114. Which of the following bodies compiles the Index of Eight Core Industries in India?
Correct Answer: a) Office of the Economic Adviser, Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Explanation:
The Index of Eight Core Industries (measuring production in coal, crude oil, natural gas, refinery products, fertilizers, steel, cement, and electricity) is released monthly by the Office of the Economic Adviser.
115. What is 'Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZBNF)' aimed at?
Correct Answer: b) Eliminating the use of chemical inputs and purchased seeds, depending instead on traditional on-farm inputs like cow dung and urine
Explanation:
ZBNF is a method of chemical-free agriculture drawing from traditional Indian practices, emphasizing soil health and zero reliance on credit for inputs.
116. Which constitutional amendment introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India?
Correct Answer: c) 101st Constitutional Amendment Act
Explanation:
The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act of 2016 paved the way for the introduction of the nationwide Goods and Services Tax (GST), subsuming multiple indirect taxes.
