The Constitution of India, adopted on November 26, 1949, and enacted on January 26, 1950, is the supreme law of the country and the longest written national constitution in the world. Drafted by the Constituent Assembly under the chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, it establishes a sovereign, socialist, secular, and democratic republic. For competitive exams, understanding its foundational framework including the Preamble, Fundamental Rights (Part III), Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV), and key schedules is highly crucial. Questions frequently test knowledge on the borrowed sources of the constitution, significant amendments like the 42nd Amendment (often called the Mini-Constitution), and seminal Supreme Court rulings like the basic structure doctrine.
1. When did the Constituent Assembly of India hold its first meeting?
Correct Answer: c) December 9, 1946
Explanation:
The Constituent Assembly held its first meeting on December 9, 1946, in New Delhi.
2. Who was the temporary President of the Constituent Assembly?
Correct Answer: b) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
Explanation:
Following the French practice, Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha, the oldest member, was elected as the temporary President of the Assembly.
3. Who was elected as the permanent President of the Constituent Assembly?
Correct Answer: d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Explanation:
On December 11, 1946, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the permanent President of the Constituent Assembly.
4. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
Correct Answer: a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Explanation:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee, which was set up on August 29, 1947.
5. Who served as the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly?
Correct Answer: a) B.N. Rau
Explanation:
Sir B.N. Rau was appointed as the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly to provide legal advice during the drafting of the Constitution.
6. How much time did the Constituent Assembly take to frame the Constitution of India?
Correct Answer: a) 2 years, 11 months, 18 days
Explanation:
The Constituent Assembly took exactly 2 years, 11 months, and 18 days to complete the framing of the Indian Constitution.
7. On which date was the Constitution of India adopted by the Constituent Assembly?
Correct Answer: b) November 26, 1949
Explanation:
The Constitution was adopted on November 26, 1949, which is now celebrated as Constitution Day or Samvidhan Divas.
8. When did the Constitution of India come into force?
Correct Answer: c) January 26, 1950
Explanation:
The Constitution came into full legal force on January 26, 1950, marking India's transition to a Republic.
9. When was the National Flag of India adopted by the Constituent Assembly?
Correct Answer: b) July 22, 1947
Explanation:
The National Flag of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on July 22, 1947.
10. Who moved the 'Objective Resolution' in the Constituent Assembly?
Correct Answer: c) Jawaharlal Nehru
Explanation:
Jawaharlal Nehru moved the historic 'Objective Resolution' on December 13, 1946, which later laid the foundation for the Preamble.
11. How many times has the Preamble of the Indian Constitution been amended?
Correct Answer: b) Once
Explanation:
The Preamble has been amended only once, by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976.
12. Which words were added to the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976?
Correct Answer: a) Socialist, Secular, and Integrity
Explanation:
The 42nd Amendment Act added three new words to the Preamble: Socialist, Secular, and Integrity.
13. The concept of Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from which country?
Correct Answer: c) USA
Explanation:
The concept of Fundamental Rights was inspired by the Bill of Rights of the United States Constitution.
14. The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) were borrowed from the Constitution of:
Correct Answer: a) Ireland
Explanation:
The framers of the Constitution borrowed the idea of DPSP from the Irish Constitution, which in turn copied it from the Spanish Constitution.
15. The concept of the Concurrent List in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from:
Correct Answer: b) Australia
Explanation:
The concept of the Concurrent List, as well as the freedom of trade and commerce, was borrowed from the Australian Constitution.
16. The concept of Fundamental Duties was borrowed from the Constitution of which country?
Correct Answer: b) USSR (Russia)
Explanation:
The Fundamental Duties were incorporated into the Constitution inspired by the Constitution of the erstwhile USSR.
17. The idea of a Single Citizenship in India was borrowed from?
Correct Answer: c) United Kingdom
Explanation:
India adopted the concept of single citizenship from the British (UK) Constitution.
18. The concept of 'Procedure established by Law' was borrowed from:
Correct Answer: c) Japan
Explanation:
The phrase 'Procedure established by Law' found in Article 21 was borrowed from the Japanese Constitution.
19. The provision for the suspension of Fundamental Rights during an Emergency was borrowed from:
Correct Answer: a) Weimar Constitution of Germany
Explanation:
The feature of suspending Fundamental Rights during an emergency was borrowed from the Weimar Constitution of Germany.
20. The procedure for the Amendment of the Constitution was borrowed from:
Correct Answer: c) South Africa
Explanation:
The procedure for amending the Constitution (Article 368) and the election of members of the Rajya Sabha were borrowed from South Africa.
21. How many Schedules were there in the original Constitution of India?
Correct Answer: a) 8
Explanation:
The original Constitution of India contained 395 Articles, 22 Parts, and 8 Schedules.
22. How many Schedules are there in the Indian Constitution currently?
Correct Answer: c) 12
Explanation:
Currently, the Indian Constitution has 12 Schedules. Four Schedules were added by various amendments.
23. Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the Anti-Defection Law?
Correct Answer: c) 10th Schedule
Explanation:
The 10th Schedule, added by the 52nd Amendment Act in 1985, contains provisions relating to the disqualification of members on the ground of defection.
24. Which Schedule contains the list of recognized languages in India?
Correct Answer: c) 8th Schedule
Explanation:
The 8th Schedule of the Indian Constitution lists the officially recognized languages of the Republic of India.
25. How many languages are currently recognized in the 8th Schedule of the Constitution?
Correct Answer: c) 22
Explanation:
Originally there were 14 languages in the 8th Schedule. Through subsequent amendments, the number has grown to 22.
26. Which Schedule was added by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992?
Correct Answer: c) 11th Schedule
Explanation:
The 11th Schedule was added by the 73rd Amendment Act and deals with the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Panchayats.
27. Which Schedule deals with the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Municipalities?
Correct Answer: d) 12th Schedule
Explanation:
The 12th Schedule was added by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, and contains provisions relating to Municipalities.
28. Which Schedule deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha?
Correct Answer: b) 4th Schedule
Explanation:
The 4th Schedule details the allocation of seats in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) to the states and union territories.
29. The administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram is covered under which Schedule?
Correct Answer: b) 6th Schedule
Explanation:
The 6th Schedule contains provisions for the administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
30. Which Schedule contains the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List?
Correct Answer: c) 7th Schedule
Explanation:
The 7th Schedule divides the legislative powers between the Union and the States through three lists: Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.
31. Citizenship is dealt with in which Part of the Indian Constitution?
Correct Answer: b) Part II
Explanation:
Part II of the Indian Constitution (Articles 5 to 11) deals with Citizenship.
32. Fundamental Rights are enshrined in which Part of the Constitution?
Correct Answer: b) Part III
Explanation:
Part III of the Constitution (Articles 12 to 35) deals with Fundamental Rights.
33. Which Article guarantees Equality before the law and equal protection of laws?
Correct Answer: a) Article 14
Explanation:
Article 14 ensures equality before the law and equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
34. Which Article of the Constitution abolishes 'Untouchability'?
Correct Answer: b) Article 17
Explanation:
Article 17 abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form.
35. The abolition of titles (except military and academic) is provisioned under which Article?
Correct Answer: c) Article 18
Explanation:
Article 18 prohibits the State from conferring any titles other than military or academic distinctions.
36. Freedom of Speech and Expression is guaranteed under which Article?
Correct Answer: a) Article 19(1)(a)
Explanation:
Article 19(1)(a) guarantees to all citizens the right to freedom of speech and expression.
37. Which Article guarantees the Right to Life and Personal Liberty?
Correct Answer: c) Article 21
Explanation:
Article 21 states that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.
38. Which Article provides the Right to Education to all children of the age of 6 to 14 years?
Correct Answer: b) Article 21A
Explanation:
Article 21A, added by the 86th Amendment Act in 2002, makes elementary education a Fundamental Right.
39. Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases is mentioned in which Article?
Correct Answer: c) Article 22
Explanation:
Article 22 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained, ensuring rights like being informed of the grounds of arrest.
40. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labor is dealt with in:
Correct Answer: b) Article 23
Explanation:
Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings, begar, and other similar forms of forced labor.
41. Which Article prohibits the employment of children in factories or mines?
Correct Answer: c) Article 24
Explanation:
Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories, mines, or any hazardous employment.
42. Which Article was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the 'Heart and Soul' of the Constitution?
Correct Answer: d) Article 32
Explanation:
Article 32 provides the Right to Constitutional Remedies, which Ambedkar called the very soul of the Constitution and the very heart of it.
43. How many types of writs can the Supreme Court of India issue for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
Correct Answer: c) 5
Explanation:
The Supreme Court can issue 5 types of writs: Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, and Quo-Warranto.
44. Which writ literally means 'we command'?
Correct Answer: b) Mandamus
Explanation:
Mandamus is a Latin word which means 'We command'. It is a command issued by a court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties.
45. Which writ is issued to protect personal liberty against illegal detention?
Correct Answer: a) Habeas Corpus
Explanation:
Habeas Corpus literally means 'to have the body of'. It is issued to a person who has detained another to produce the body of the latter before the court.
46. The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are enumerated in which Part of the Constitution?
Correct Answer: b) Part IV
Explanation:
Part IV of the Constitution (Articles 36 to 51) contains the Directive Principles of State Policy.
47. Which Article directs the State to secure a Uniform Civil Code for the citizens?
Correct Answer: c) Article 44
Explanation:
Article 44 directs the State to endeavor to secure for the citizens a Uniform Civil Code throughout the territory of India.
48. Which Article directs the State to organize village panchayats?
Correct Answer: b) Article 40
Explanation:
Article 40 states that the State shall take steps to organize village panchayats and endow them with necessary powers and authority.
49. The separation of the judiciary from the executive is provided in:
Correct Answer: c) Article 50
Explanation:
Article 50 of the DPSP directs the State to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.
50. Which Article deals with the promotion of international peace and security?
Correct Answer: d) Article 51
Explanation:
Article 51 directs the State to promote international peace and security and maintain just and honorable relations between nations.
51. Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by which Amendment?
Correct Answer: b) 42nd Amendment
Explanation:
The Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1976.
52. Which committee recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Constitution?
Correct Answer: c) Swaran Singh Committee
Explanation:
The Sardar Swaran Singh Committee was set up in 1976 and its recommendations led to the inclusion of Fundamental Duties.
53. How many Fundamental Duties are currently listed in the Constitution?
Correct Answer: c) 11
Explanation:
Initially, 10 duties were added. An 11th duty was added in 2002, bringing the current total to 11.
54. The 11th Fundamental Duty was added by which Constitutional Amendment?
Correct Answer: c) 86th Amendment
Explanation:
The 86th Amendment Act of 2002 added the 11th Fundamental Duty, which requires parents/guardians to provide opportunities for education to children between 6 and 14 years.
55. Fundamental Duties are mentioned in which Article of the Constitution?
Correct Answer: c) Article 51A
Explanation:
Part IVA, which contains only one Article—Article 51A—specifies the Fundamental Duties of the citizens.
56. According to Article 53, the executive power of the Union is vested in the:
Correct Answer: c) President
Explanation:
Article 53 states that the executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him.
57. What is the minimum age prescribed for a person to be eligible for election as President of India?
Correct Answer: c) 35 years
Explanation:
Article 58 specifies that a candidate for the office of President must have completed 35 years of age.
58. Which Article deals with the procedure for the impeachment of the President?
Correct Answer: b) Article 61
Explanation:
Article 61 of the Constitution lays down the procedure for the impeachment of the President for 'violation of the Constitution'.
59. Under which Article does the President have the power to grant pardons?
Correct Answer: b) Article 72
Explanation:
Article 72 empowers the President to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment.
60. Which Article grants the President the power to promulgate Ordinances during the recess of Parliament?
Correct Answer: b) Article 123
Explanation:
Article 123 grants the President the power to issue ordinances when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session.
61. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
Correct Answer: c) Vice-President
Explanation:
Article 64 states that the Vice-President of India shall be the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
62. What is the minimum age to become the Prime Minister of India if the person is a member of the Lok Sabha?
Correct Answer: b) 25 years
Explanation:
To be a member of the Lok Sabha, the minimum age is 25 years. Hence, the minimum age to be the PM is also 25 years.
63. The Attorney General of India is appointed under which Article?
Correct Answer: b) Article 76
Explanation:
Article 76 provides for the office of the Attorney General of India, who is appointed by the President.
64. Which Article provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India?
Correct Answer: a) Article 148
Explanation:
Article 148 establishes the independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
65. What is the tenure of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
Correct Answer: b) 6 years or up to age 65
Explanation:
The CAG holds office for a period of 6 years or until the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
66. The provision to nominate Anglo-Indians to the Lok Sabha was abolished by which Constitutional Amendment?
Correct Answer: c) 104th Amendment
Explanation:
The 104th Amendment Act of 2019 extended reservations for SCs and STs but ceased the nomination of Anglo-Indians to the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies.
67. What is the normal term of a member of the Rajya Sabha?
Correct Answer: c) 6 years
Explanation:
The Rajya Sabha is a continuing chamber (permanent body), but its individual members are elected for a term of 6 years.
68. What fraction of Rajya Sabha members retire every second year?
Correct Answer: b) One-third
Explanation:
According to the Constitution, one-third of the members of the Rajya Sabha retire every second year.
69. What is the minimum age required to be a member of the Lok Sabha?
Correct Answer: b) 25 years
Explanation:
Under Article 84, a person must be at least 25 years old to become a member of the Lok Sabha.
70. What is the minimum age required to be a member of the Rajya Sabha?
Correct Answer: b) 30 years
Explanation:
To be chosen as a member of the Rajya Sabha, a person must not be less than 30 years of age.
71. Who presides over the joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament?
Correct Answer: d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Explanation:
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament.
72. Which Article provides for the joint sitting of both Houses in certain cases?
Correct Answer: a) Article 108
Explanation:
Article 108 of the Constitution deals with the joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament to resolve a legislative deadlock.
73. A Money Bill is defined under which Article of the Constitution?
Correct Answer: b) Article 110
Explanation:
Article 110 of the Constitution provides the precise definition of a Money Bill.
74. Who has the final authority to decide whether a bill is a Money Bill or not?
Correct Answer: c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Explanation:
If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is final.
75. The 'Annual Financial Statement' (commonly known as the Budget) is mentioned in which Article?
Correct Answer: b) Article 112
Explanation:
Article 112 requires the President to lay before both Houses of Parliament an 'Annual Financial Statement' or Budget.
76. The establishment and constitution of the Supreme Court is laid down in which Article?
Correct Answer: a) Article 124
Explanation:
Article 124 deals with the establishment and constitution of the Supreme Court of India.
77. What is the retirement age for a Judge of the Supreme Court of India?
Correct Answer: c) 65 years
Explanation:
A judge of the Supreme Court holds office until he attains the age of 65 years.
78. What is the retirement age for a Judge of a High Court in India?
Correct Answer: b) 62 years
Explanation:
A judge of a High Court holds office until he attains the age of 62 years.
79. The Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is defined in:
Correct Answer: b) Article 131
Explanation:
Article 131 deals with the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in disputes between the Centre and States or between States.
80. Which Article gives the Supreme Court the power to review its own judgments?
Correct Answer: b) Article 137
Explanation:
Under Article 137, the Supreme Court has the power to review any judgment pronounced or order made by it.
81. Who is the executive head of a State in India?
Correct Answer: b) Governor
Explanation:
According to Article 154, the executive power of the State shall be vested in the Governor.
82. What is the minimum age prescribed for a person to be appointed as a Governor?
Correct Answer: c) 35 years
Explanation:
Article 157 states that no person shall be eligible for appointment as Governor unless he is a citizen of India and has completed the age of 35 years.
83. The ordinance making power of the Governor is provided under which Article?
Correct Answer: d) Article 213
Explanation:
Article 213 empowers the Governor to promulgate ordinances during recess of the State Legislature.
84. Which is the only Indian state to have a Uniform Civil Code currently functioning?
Correct Answer: b) Goa
Explanation:
Goa is the only state in India that currently implements a Uniform Civil Code (the Portuguese Civil Code of 1867).
85. Which Article deals with the creation or abolition of State Legislative Councils?
Correct Answer: b) Article 169
Explanation:
Article 169 of the Constitution deals with the abolition or creation of Legislative Councils in States.
86. The Election Commission of India is established under which Article?
Correct Answer: c) Article 324
Explanation:
Article 324 provides for the establishment of an independent Election Commission to ensure free and fair elections.
87. Which Article provides for the establishment of a Finance Commission every five years?
Correct Answer: c) Article 280
Explanation:
Article 280 requires the President to constitute a Finance Commission at the expiration of every fifth year.
88. The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is mentioned in which Article?
Correct Answer: b) Article 315
Explanation:
Article 315 states that there shall be a Public Service Commission for the Union and a Public Service Commission for each State.
89. Which Article established the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (SCs)?
Correct Answer: a) Article 338
Explanation:
Article 338 of the Constitution establishes the National Commission for Scheduled Castes.
90. The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (STs) was created under which Article?
Correct Answer: b) Article 338A
Explanation:
Article 338A, inserted by the 89th Amendment Act of 2003, established a separate National Commission for Scheduled Tribes.
91. Proclamation of National Emergency is made under which Article?
Correct Answer: a) Article 352
Explanation:
Under Article 352, the President can declare a National Emergency due to war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
92. Under which Article can the President's Rule (State Emergency) be imposed?
Correct Answer: b) Article 356
Explanation:
Article 356 allows the President to impose President's Rule in a state if the constitutional machinery breaks down.
93. Financial Emergency is proclaimed under which Article?
Correct Answer: c) Article 360
Explanation:
Article 360 empowers the President to proclaim a Financial Emergency if the financial stability or credit of India is threatened.
94. How many times has a Financial Emergency been declared in India so far?
Correct Answer: d) Never
Explanation:
To date, a Financial Emergency under Article 360 has never been imposed in India.
95. Which Article deals with the Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution?
Correct Answer: c) Article 368
Explanation:
Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution deals with the powers of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure.
96. Which Amendment Act is often referred to as the 'Mini Constitution'?
Correct Answer: b) 42nd Amendment Act
Explanation:
The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 is called the 'Mini Constitution' due to the comprehensive and extensive changes it made to the Constitution.
97. The voting age in India was reduced from 21 years to 18 years by which Amendment?
Correct Answer: c) 61st Amendment Act
Explanation:
The 61st Amendment Act of 1988 reduced the voting age from 21 to 18 years for Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly elections.
98. Which Constitutional Amendment removed the 'Right to Property' from the list of Fundamental Rights?
Correct Answer: b) 44th Amendment Act
Explanation:
The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 deleted the right to property from the list of Fundamental Rights (formerly Article 31).
99. After its removal as a Fundamental Right, the Right to Property became a:
Correct Answer: b) Legal Right under Article 300A
Explanation:
The Right to Property is now a constitutional and legal right under Article 300A in Part XII of the Constitution.
100. The Goods and Services Tax (GST) was introduced by which Constitutional Amendment?
Correct Answer: c) 101st Amendment Act
Explanation:
The 101st Amendment Act of 2016 paved the way for the introduction of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) regime in India.
