The Staff Selection Commission General Duty (SSC GD) Constable examination is structured into a comprehensive multi-stage selection process designed to recruit qualified candidates for paramilitary forces including the BSF, CISF, CRPF, SSB, ITBP, AR, and SSF. Understanding the precise computer-based examination (CBE) blueprint, sectional question distribution, and negative marking regulations is critical for optimizing performance. The online test evaluates candidates across four core sections covering General Intelligence, General Knowledge, Elementary Mathematics, and English/Hindi, followed by physical standards and medical examinations. Mastery of this structural framework enables aspirants to align their preparation with official commission norms.
1. What is the full form of SSC in the context of the SSC GD Constable exam?
Correct Answer: b) Staff Selection Commission
Explanation:
SSC stands for Staff Selection Commission, the central government body responsible for recruiting staff for various posts in ministries and departments.
2. What does 'GD' stand for in SSC GD?
Correct Answer: b) General Duty
Explanation:
GD stands for General Duty. The SSC GD Constable exam recruits personnel for general duty roles in various armed police forces.
3. Which ministry has the overall administrative control of the forces recruited through SSC GD?
Correct Answer: c) Ministry of Home Affairs
Explanation:
The Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) recruited through this exam operate under the authority of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
4. What is the minimum educational qualification required to apply for the SSC GD Constable exam?
Correct Answer: b) 10th Pass (Matriculation)
Explanation:
A candidate must have passed Matriculation or 10th class from a recognized Board or University to be eligible.
5. What is the general age limit for candidates applying for SSC GD (Unreserved Category)?
Correct Answer: b) 18 to 23 years
Explanation:
The age limit for unreserved candidates is typically 18 to 23 years as of the crucial date mentioned in the official notification.
6. What is the age relaxation provided to candidates belonging to the SC/ST categories?
Correct Answer: c) 5 years
Explanation:
Candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST) receive a 5-year relaxation on the upper age limit.
7. How many years of age relaxation are given to OBC (Other Backward Classes) candidates?
Correct Answer: b) 3 years
Explanation:
OBC candidates are provided a 3-year age relaxation beyond the upper age limit of 23 years.
8. Which of the following forces is NOT typically recruited through the SSC GD exam?
Correct Answer: c) National Security Guard (NSG)
Explanation:
NSG relies on deputation from other armed forces and state police rather than direct recruitment via SSC GD. BSF, CRPF, and SSB are standard GD forces.
9. What is the mode of the first stage of the SSC GD examination?
Correct Answer: b) Computer Based Examination (CBE)
Explanation:
The first phase of the recruitment process is the Computer Based Examination (CBE) consisting of objective-type questions.
10. In the latest exam pattern, how many total questions are asked in the SSC GD Computer Based Exam?
Correct Answer: b) 80
Explanation:
According to the updated exam pattern, the CBE consists of 80 multiple-choice questions.
11. How many marks is each question worth in the SSC GD CBE?
Correct Answer: c) 2 marks
Explanation:
Each correct answer in the Computer Based Examination carries 2 marks.
12. What is the total maximum marks for the SSC GD CBE?
Correct Answer: b) 160 marks
Explanation:
With 80 questions carrying 2 marks each, the maximum score for the CBE is 160 marks.
13. What is the total duration allotted for the Computer Based Examination?
Correct Answer: a) 60 minutes
Explanation:
Candidates are given exactly 60 minutes (1 hour) to complete the 80 questions in the CBE.
14. How many sections or parts does the Computer Based Exam consist of?
Correct Answer: b) 4
Explanation:
The exam is divided into four sections: Reasoning, General Knowledge, Elementary Mathematics, and English/Hindi.
15. How many questions are asked in the General Intelligence and Reasoning section?
Correct Answer: b) 20
Explanation:
Each of the 4 sections, including General Intelligence and Reasoning, contains exactly 20 questions.
16. Is there negative marking in the SSC GD exam?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, 0.25 marks are deducted for every wrong answer
Explanation:
Based on the most recent 2024 notification rules, 0.25 marks are deducted for each incorrect answer.
17. Which language options are available for the Language section of the exam?
Correct Answer: c) Either English or Hindi
Explanation:
Candidates have the choice to attempt either the English section or the Hindi section based on their proficiency.
18. In how many regional languages is the SSC GD CBE conducted (excluding Hindi and English)?
Correct Answer: b) 13
Explanation:
To promote local languages, the CBE is now conducted in 13 regional languages in addition to English and Hindi.
19. What is the minimum qualifying mark percentage in the CBE for the Unreserved (UR) category?
Correct Answer: c) 30%
Explanation:
UR candidates must score a minimum of 30% marks in the CBE to be considered for shortlisting.
20. What is the minimum qualifying mark percentage for OBC/EWS categories in the CBE?
Correct Answer: b) 25%
Explanation:
Candidates belonging to OBC and EWS categories must score at least 25% marks to qualify.
21. What is the minimum qualifying mark percentage for SC/ST categories in the CBE?
Correct Answer: a) 20%
Explanation:
The cutoff percentage is set at 20% for SC, ST, and Ex-Servicemen (ESM) candidates.
22. Which of the following topics is prominently featured in the General Intelligence and Reasoning syllabus?
Correct Answer: c) Spatial Visualization
Explanation:
Spatial Visualization is a core topic in the non-verbal section of the General Intelligence and Reasoning syllabus.
23. The General Knowledge section of SSC GD tests a candidate's knowledge of:
Correct Answer: b) Current Events and Environment
Explanation:
The GK section aims to evaluate the candidate's awareness of their environment, current events, sports, history, culture, geography, etc.
24. Which of the following is NOT a topic in the Elementary Mathematics section?
Correct Answer: c) Calculus
Explanation:
The mathematics section is of Matriculation level and focuses on arithmetic. Advanced topics like Calculus are not included.
25. Are questions in the SSC GD exam objective or subjective?
Correct Answer: b) Multiple Choice Objective Type
Explanation:
All questions in the Computer Based Examination are of Multiple Choice Objective Type.
26. What follows the Computer Based Examination for successful candidates?
Correct Answer: c) Physical Efficiency Test (PET) and Physical Standard Test (PST)
Explanation:
Candidates shortlisted from the CBE are called for PET and PST to check their physical fitness and body standards.
27. What is the standard running distance for male candidates (except Ladakh region) in the PET?
Correct Answer: b) 5 km
Explanation:
Male candidates (except from the Ladakh region) have to complete a 5 km race as part of the Physical Efficiency Test.
28. What is the time limit for male candidates to complete the 5 km race during PET?
Correct Answer: b) 24 minutes
Explanation:
Male candidates are required to run 5 km within 24 minutes to qualify the PET.
29. What is the standard running distance for female candidates (except Ladakh region) in the PET?
Correct Answer: b) 1.6 km
Explanation:
Female candidates (except from the Ladakh region) must complete a 1.6 km race.
30. What is the time limit for female candidates to complete their 1.6 km race?
Correct Answer: b) 8.5 minutes
Explanation:
Female candidates are given 8.5 minutes (8 minutes 30 seconds) to complete the 1.6 km race.
31. What is the race distance for male candidates hailing from the Ladakh region?
Correct Answer: a) 1.6 km
Explanation:
Due to high altitude, male candidates from the Ladakh region run 1.6 km instead of 5 km.
32. What is the time limit for male candidates from the Ladakh region for the 1.6 km race?
Correct Answer: c) 7 minutes
Explanation:
Male candidates from Ladakh are required to finish the 1.6 km race in 7 minutes.
33. What is the race distance and time limit for female candidates from the Ladakh region?
Correct Answer: b) 800 meters in 5 minutes
Explanation:
Female candidates from Ladakh have a modified standard of 800 meters to be completed in 5 minutes.
34. Are marks awarded for the Physical Efficiency Test (PET)?
Correct Answer: c) No, it is only qualifying in nature
Explanation:
The PET is completely qualifying in nature. No marks are added to the final merit list from this stage.
35. What does PST entail in the SSC GD selection process?
Correct Answer: b) Physical Standard Test
Explanation:
PST stands for Physical Standard Test, which checks a candidate's height, weight, and chest measurements.
36. What is the minimum height requirement for male candidates (Unreserved)?
Correct Answer: c) 170 cm
Explanation:
The general height standard for male candidates is 170 cm.
37. What is the minimum height requirement for female candidates (Unreserved)?
Correct Answer: d) 157 cm
Explanation:
The general height requirement for female candidates is 157 cm.
38. What is the height requirement for male candidates belonging to Scheduled Tribes (ST)?
Correct Answer: b) 162.5 cm
Explanation:
Candidates belonging to ST categories are given a relaxation, bringing the minimum height for males to 162.5 cm.
39. What is the height requirement for female candidates belonging to Scheduled Tribes (ST)?
Correct Answer: b) 150 cm
Explanation:
ST female candidates have a relaxed height standard of 150 cm.
40. What is the unexpanded chest requirement for general male candidates?
Correct Answer: c) 80 cm
Explanation:
Male candidates (UR/OBC/SC) must have an unexpanded chest measurement of at least 80 cm.
41. What is the minimum chest expansion required for male candidates?
Correct Answer: c) 5 cm
Explanation:
All male candidates must be able to expand their chest by a minimum of 5 cm.
42. Is chest measurement applicable to female candidates in PST?
Correct Answer: c) No, it is not applicable
Explanation:
Chest measurement is not taken for female candidates; their physical standards focus only on height and weight.
43. How is the weight requirement determined during the Physical Standard Test?
Correct Answer: b) Proportionate to height and age as per medical standards
Explanation:
Weight is evaluated to ensure it is proportionate to the candidate's height and age according to standard medical guidelines.
44. Do ex-servicemen need to undergo the Physical Efficiency Test (PET)?
Correct Answer: c) No, they are exempted from PET
Explanation:
Ex-servicemen are exempted from running (PET). However, they must appear for PST (height, chest, weight) and Medical Exams.
45. What stage comes after a candidate successfully clears the PET and PST?
Correct Answer: b) Detailed Medical Examination (DME)
Explanation:
Candidates who pass the physical tests are shortlisted for the Detailed Medical Examination (DME) and Document Verification.
46. Who conducts the Detailed Medical Examination (DME)?
Correct Answer: c) Medical Boards constituted by the CAPFs
Explanation:
DME is carried out by Medical Boards constituted by the Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) to assess physical and medical fitness.
47. What happens if a candidate is found medically unfit in the DME?
Correct Answer: c) They can appeal for a Review Medical Examination (RME)
Explanation:
Candidates declared unfit during DME can appeal, and their cases are re-examined during the Review Medical Examination (RME).
48. What is the minimum distant vision requirement for the 'better eye' in the medical test?
Correct Answer: a) 6/6
Explanation:
The visual standard requires the better eye to have 6/6 distant vision without glasses.
49. What is the acceptable distant vision for the 'worse eye' in the medical test?
Correct Answer: b) 6/9
Explanation:
The standard allows the worse eye to have a distant vision of up to 6/9.
50. Are candidates with a 'knock knee' accepted in the medical examination?
Correct Answer: b) No
Explanation:
Knock knee, flat foot, and varicose veins are strict disqualifications in the medical examination for CAPF GD roles.
51. When is the Document Verification (DV) process conducted?
Correct Answer: c) At the time of Detailed Medical Examination (DME)
Explanation:
Document Verification is conducted alongside the Detailed Medical Examination to ensure all credentials and certificates are authentic.
52. Which of the following is a recognized incentive for National Cadet Corps (NCC) certificate holders?
Correct Answer: b) Bonus marks added to the normalized score
Explanation:
NCC certificate holders are granted bonus marks, which are added to their normalized CBE scores.
53. How many bonus marks (percentage of max marks) are awarded for an NCC 'C' Certificate?
Correct Answer: c) 5%
Explanation:
Candidates with an NCC 'C' Certificate get a bonus of 5% of the maximum marks of the examination.
54. How many bonus marks are awarded for an NCC 'B' Certificate?
Correct Answer: c) 3%
Explanation:
Candidates holding an NCC 'B' Certificate receive a bonus of 3% of the maximum marks.
55. How many bonus marks are awarded for an NCC 'A' Certificate?
Correct Answer: b) 2%
Explanation:
Candidates with an NCC 'A' Certificate receive a bonus equivalent to 2% of the maximum marks.
56. Are Ex-Servicemen (ESM) candidates eligible for NCC bonus marks?
Correct Answer: b) No
Explanation:
According to the official notification, Ex-Servicemen candidates are not eligible for the NCC certificate bonus marks.
57. What is the application fee for general/UR and OBC male candidates?
Correct Answer: c) Rs. 100
Explanation:
The application fee for Unreserved and OBC male candidates is typically Rs. 100.
58. What is the application fee for Women candidates and SC/ST candidates?
Correct Answer: d) Exempted (Rs. 0)
Explanation:
Women candidates and candidates belonging to SC, ST, and Ex-Servicemen categories are exempted from paying the application fee.
59. Can candidates indicate their preference for various CAPFs during the application?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, preference must be filled in the online application form
Explanation:
Candidates must arrange the forces in their order of preference at the time of filling the online application form.
60. Can force preferences be changed after the final submission of the application?
Correct Answer: c) No, under no circumstances
Explanation:
Once the online application is submitted, the chosen order of preference cannot be altered under any circumstances.
61. What happens if a candidate scores well but has not listed a specific force in their preferences?
Correct Answer: b) They will not be considered for that specific force
Explanation:
Allocation is based strictly on merit-cum-preference. A candidate is only considered for forces they have explicitly opted for.
62. Which of the following forces has an All-India merit list rather than state/UT-wise allocation?
Correct Answer: b) Secretariat Security Force (SSF)
Explanation:
Vacancies for SSF (and NCB when applicable) are filled on an All-India basis, whereas others are allocated based on State/UT.
63. How are vacancies in forces like BSF, CRPF, and CISF primarily distributed?
Correct Answer: b) Based on the population ratio of States/UTs
Explanation:
For most CAPFs, vacancies are distributed to States/UTs generally in proportion to their population.
64. Are there special reservations for border and naxal/militancy-affected districts?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, a specific percentage of vacancies is reserved for them
Explanation:
Specific quotas of vacancies are reserved for candidates belonging to designated border guarding districts and Naxal/Left Wing Extremism affected districts.
65. What is the role of AR (Assam Rifles) in the SSC GD recruitment?
Correct Answer: b) They recruit Rifleman (GD)
Explanation:
While other forces recruit Constables (GD), the Assam Rifles recruits for the equivalent post of Rifleman (GD) through this exam.
66. What does CISF stand for in the context of SSC GD forces?
Correct Answer: b) Central Industrial Security Force
Explanation:
CISF provides security cover to industrial units, government infrastructure projects, and facilities across India.
67. Which of these forces is primarily responsible for guarding the Indo-Nepal and Indo-Bhutan borders?
Correct Answer: c) SSB
Explanation:
Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) is the border guarding force tasked primarily with the Indo-Nepal and Indo-Bhutan borders.
68. Which force is primarily tasked with guarding the Indo-China border?
Correct Answer: c) ITBP
Explanation:
The Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) is a specialized mountain force deployed along the India-China border.
69. In the event of a tie in CBE scores, what is the first criterion used to resolve it?
Correct Answer: b) Marks in Part-A (General Intelligence and Reasoning) of CBE
Explanation:
According to the tie-breaking rules, marks in Part-A (Reasoning) are considered first, followed by Part-B (GK), then Date of Birth, and finally Alphabetical order.
70. Is there a personal interview in the SSC GD Constable selection process?
Correct Answer: c) No, there is no interview stage
Explanation:
Group C non-gazetted posts, including GD Constables, do not have an interview as part of the recruitment process.
71. What is the typical Pay Level for a Constable (GD) in CAPFs?
Correct Answer: c) Pay Level-3
Explanation:
Constables (GD) in CAPFs are generally placed in Pay Level-3, with a basic pay scale of Rs. 21,700 – 69,100.
72. When NCB (Narcotics Control Bureau) is included in the GD exam, what is the post offered?
Correct Answer: c) Sepoy
Explanation:
Recruitment in NCB through the SSC GD exam is specifically for the post of Sepoy.
73. What is the typical Pay Level for the post of Sepoy in NCB?
Correct Answer: a) Pay Level-1
Explanation:
Unlike the Constable GD posts which are Pay Level-3, the Sepoy post in NCB is in Pay Level-1 (Rs. 18,000 to 56,900).
74. Can a candidate apply offline for the SSC GD exam?
Correct Answer: c) No, applications must be submitted online only
Explanation:
Applications must be submitted in online mode only at the official website of SSC Headquarters.
75. Which document is mandatory to establish age during Document Verification?
Correct Answer: b) Matriculation/10th Class Certificate
Explanation:
The Matriculation/Secondary Examination Certificate is the official document used to verify a candidate's date of birth and name.
76. What is the Domicile/Permanent Residential Certificate (PRC) used for in SSC GD?
Correct Answer: c) To determine state/UT wise quota allocation
Explanation:
Since vacancies are distributed state-wise, candidates must produce a valid Domicile/PRC of the state they claim in their application.
77. What happens if a candidate cannot produce a valid Domicile Certificate for the state they selected in the application?
Correct Answer: b) Their candidature is cancelled
Explanation:
Failure to prove domicile of the claimed state during DV results in immediate cancellation of the candidature.
78. Which of the following items is strictly prohibited inside the CBE examination hall?
Correct Answer: c) Electronic Watches/Gadgets
Explanation:
Mobile phones, calculators, Bluetooth devices, and electronic watches are strictly banned inside the examination hall.
79. How are candidate marks normalized in the SSC GD exam?
Correct Answer: b) Using a statistical formula based on shift difficulty
Explanation:
Because the exam is conducted in multiple shifts, SSC uses a standard statistical normalization formula to account for variations in difficulty levels across shifts.
80. Is normalization done before or after adding NCC bonus marks?
Correct Answer: a) Before
Explanation:
Raw scores are first normalized. The NCC bonus marks are then added to these normalized scores to determine the final merit.
81. What happens if a candidate wears spectacles during the medical vision test?
Correct Answer: b) Not allowed; vision must be evaluated without glasses
Explanation:
Visual acuity is tested without glasses. Wearing spectacles or having undergone corrective surgery like LASIK is usually a disqualification.
82. Which part of the CBE tests the candidate's basic writing and comprehension skills?
Correct Answer: d) English/Hindi
Explanation:
The English/Hindi section tests the candidate's ability to understand basic language, grammar, and reading comprehension.
83. Does the SSC GD syllabus include deep grammatical concepts like transforming complex sentences?
Correct Answer: b) No, it tests basic comprehension and vocabulary
Explanation:
The language section is of Matriculation level and focuses on basic understanding, synonyms, antonyms, and simple grammar.
84. In the Reasoning section, 'Analogies' means:
Correct Answer: b) Finding similarities or relationships between two different things
Explanation:
Analogy questions test the ability to recognize relationships and similarities between pairs of words, numbers, or figures.
85. In the context of the physical standard, what does 'BMI' stand for, which doctors reference for weight?
Correct Answer: b) Body Mass Index
Explanation:
Body Mass Index (BMI) charts based on height and age are used to determine if a candidate is over/underweight during the medical exam.
86. What is the crucial date for determining age and educational qualifications for SSC GD?
Correct Answer: c) The date explicitly specified in the official notification
Explanation:
The official notification clearly states a specific 'crucial date' (often January 1st or August 1st of the recruiting year) to calculate age and eligibility.
87. Can a candidate appearing for their 10th board exams apply for SSC GD?
Correct Answer: b) No, they must have acquired the qualification on or before the crucial date
Explanation:
Candidates must possess the passing certificate of the 10th standard by the crucial date mentioned in the notice.
88. Is the 'Aadhaar Card' mandatory for SSC GD registration?
Correct Answer: b) No, candidates can provide other valid ID like Voter ID, PAN, etc.
Explanation:
While Aadhaar is highly recommended and easy to use, other IDs like Voter ID, Driving License, or PAN Card are also accepted during online registration.
89. In case a candidate forgets their SSC registration password, what can they do?
Correct Answer: c) Use the 'Forgot Password' link to reset via Email/Mobile OTP
Explanation:
Candidates can recover or reset their password using the OTP sent to their registered mobile number or email ID.
90. What should the uploaded photograph in the application look like?
Correct Answer: c) Should be a recent passport size with both ears visible
Explanation:
The photograph must be recent, without cap or spectacles, and both ears must be clearly visible, taking up about 80% of the face space.
91. What is the common reason for the rejection of SSC GD applications?
Correct Answer: b) Uploading blurred signature/photograph or wearing spectacles in photo
Explanation:
SSC strictly rejects applications that have inappropriate, blurred, or non-compliant photographs (like wearing spectacles or caps).
92. Does SSC provide a correction window after the application deadline?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, usually a short window is provided to make corrections by paying a fee
Explanation:
SSC generally provides a brief 'Window for Application Form Correction' allowing candidates to modify details upon payment of correction charges.
93. What is the syllabus level for the 'Elementary Mathematics' section?
Correct Answer: b) 10th Standard (Matriculation)
Explanation:
As the minimum eligibility is 10th pass, the mathematics syllabus revolves around Matriculation level arithmetic.
94. Which mathematical topic focuses on calculating areas and volumes in the SSC GD exam?
Correct Answer: b) Mensuration
Explanation:
Mensuration is explicitly mentioned in the syllabus and covers 2D and 3D shapes, areas, perimeters, and volumes.
95. Which of the following topics belongs to the General Knowledge section?
Correct Answer: c) Indian Constitution
Explanation:
The Indian Constitution falls under Polity, which is a key component of the General Knowledge and General Awareness section.
96. In the SSC GD syllabus, 'Observation' and 'Visual Memory' belong to which section?
Correct Answer: c) General Intelligence and Reasoning
Explanation:
Observation and visual memory are cognitive skills tested through non-verbal questions in the Reasoning section.
97. If a candidate is selected for AR (Assam Rifles), where are they primarily deployed?
Correct Answer: c) North-Eastern States
Explanation:
Assam Rifles primarily operates in the North-Eastern region of India, maintaining internal security and guarding the Indo-Myanmar border.
98. The SSF (Secretariat Security Force) is primarily responsible for securing:
Correct Answer: b) Central Government Secretariat Buildings in Delhi
Explanation:
The SSF is tasked with providing security to central secretariat buildings and ministries located in New Delhi.
99. Which CAPF is known as the largest paramilitary force in the world and deals primarily with internal security?
Correct Answer: c) CRPF
Explanation:
The Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) is the largest paramilitary force globally, heavily involved in internal security, riot control, and anti-naxal operations.
100. Which force provides security to vital installations like Delhi Metro, Airports, and Space establishments?
Correct Answer: a) CISF
Explanation:
The Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) provides specialized security cover to critical national infrastructure and industrial units.
101. How can a candidate check their exam city and shift timing before the exam?
Correct Answer: b) Check the Application Status link provided by regional SSC websites
Explanation:
SSC regional websites release an 'Application Status' link a few weeks before the exam, detailing the candidate's exam date, city, and shift.
102. When is the actual Admit Card (Call Letter) usually available for download?
Correct Answer: b) 3 to 4 days before the scheduled exam date
Explanation:
To prevent malpractices, the e-Admit Card detailing the exact exam center is typically made available for download 3-4 days prior to the candidate's exam date.
103. What is a 'Tentative Answer Key' in the SSC GD process?
Correct Answer: b) A preliminary set of correct answers released after CBE for candidates to challenge
Explanation:
SSC releases a tentative answer key and candidates' response sheets shortly after the exam. Candidates can submit representations (challenges) against it by paying a fee.
104. How much fee is typically required to challenge one question in the Tentative Answer Key?
Correct Answer: b) Rs. 100
Explanation:
Candidates must pay Rs. 100 per question/answer challenged during the window for representations.
105. Is the Physical Standard Test (PST) and Physical Efficiency Test (PET) conducted by SSC directly?
Correct Answer: b) No, it is conducted by a Nodal CAPF (usually CRPF)
Explanation:
While SSC conducts the written exam (CBE), the physical and medical stages are organized and conducted by the Nodal CAPF, which is typically the CRPF.
106. What kind of clothing is recommended for candidates appearing in the PET?
Correct Answer: c) Sports attire and running shoes
Explanation:
Since PET involves a 5km or 1.6km race, candidates are advised to wear sports shoes and comfortable sportswear for their own safety.
107. Are pregnant female candidates allowed to participate in the PET?
Correct Answer: b) No, they are declared temporarily unfit
Explanation:
Pregnancy at the time of PET is considered a temporary unfitness. The test is deferred until after confinement, subject to medical clearance.
108. What happens if a candidate uses unfair means (malpractice) during the CBE?
Correct Answer: c) Debarment from all future SSC exams for a specified period and legal action
Explanation:
Strict action is taken against malpractices, including debarment from SSC examinations for periods ranging up to 7 years, along with FIRs.
109. What does a candidate need to carry along with the Admit Card to the exam center?
Correct Answer: a) Original valid Photo ID proof and recent passport size photos
Explanation:
Candidates must carry a clear, original photo ID proof (like Aadhaar, PAN) having the exact same date of birth as printed on the admit card, along with recent photos.
110. If there is a mismatch in the Date of Birth between the Admit Card and Photo ID, what is the consequence?
Correct Answer: b) Candidate is not allowed to appear for the examination
Explanation:
Strict verification rules state that if the DOB on the ID proof does not perfectly match the admit card, the candidate will be denied entry.
111. Is pen/paper provided inside the exam hall for rough work?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, paper and pen are provided by the exam center
Explanation:
For security and fairness, the exam center provides rough sheets and pens inside the lab, which must be returned before exiting.
112. Who prepares the final merit list for the SSC GD exam?
Correct Answer: c) Staff Selection Commission (SSC)
Explanation:
The final result and merit list based on CBE normalized marks (and NCC bonus) are compiled and published by the Staff Selection Commission.
113. How are candidates ranked in the final merit list?
Correct Answer: c) Based on the normalized scores of the CBE
Explanation:
The final merit is purely based on the candidate's performance in the Computer Based Examination (normalized score + NCC marks). PET/PST and Medical are only qualifying.
114. What is the policy regarding tattoos during the medical examination?
Correct Answer: b) Permitted only on the inner aspect of the forearm (left arm) or dorsum of hands, and must be small
Explanation:
Tattoos depicting religious symbols or names are allowed if they are on the traditional sites (inner left forearm, non-saluting limb) and size must be less than 1/4th of the particular part.
115. Are candidates with color blindness eligible for SSC GD?
Correct Answer: c) No, they are disqualified
Explanation:
Candidates must have high color vision (CP-III by ISHIHARA). Color blindness is a strict ground for disqualification in armed forces.
116. If an applicant mistakenly enters incorrect category (e.g., UR instead of OBC) in the application form, can it be fixed during Document Verification?
Correct Answer: b) No
Explanation:
SSC rules strictly state that category/data filled in the final submitted application cannot be changed at the DV stage.
117. What is the 'Resolution of Tie Cases' sequence if both Part-A and Part-B marks are identical?
Correct Answer: a) Date of Birth (older gets preference) then Alphabetical order of names
Explanation:
If section marks are also tied, the older candidate is ranked higher. If still tied, alphabetical order of first names resolves it.
118. Is a candidate allowed to appear in the exam from multiple regions/zones?
Correct Answer: b) No, a candidate can submit only one application
Explanation:
Submitting multiple applications will lead to the cancellation of all applications and potential debarment.
119. Which of the following is considered a valid proof for age relaxation for an OBC candidate?
Correct Answer: b) Central Government Format OBC Non-Creamy Layer Certificate
Explanation:
OBC candidates must produce a certificate in the format prescribed for Central Government jobs (Non-Creamy Layer) issued within the specified timeframe.
120. What is EWS in the context of SSC GD reservation?
Correct Answer: b) Economically Weaker Sections
Explanation:
EWS stands for Economically Weaker Sections, a category that receives a 10% reservation in government jobs.
121. What happens if an EWS candidate fails to produce a valid Income & Asset Certificate during DV?
Correct Answer: b) Candidature is considered under Unreserved (UR) category, if they meet UR standards
Explanation:
If EWS claim cannot be substantiated with a certificate, the candidate is treated as a UR candidate provided they meet all UR eligibility criteria.
122. Which type of questions tests a candidate's calculation skills and number relationships?
Correct Answer: b) Elementary Mathematics
Explanation:
The Elementary Mathematics section assesses speed, accuracy, and understanding of numbers, basic arithmetic, and calculations.
123. Do candidates receive a physical copy of the SSC GD syllabus via post?
Correct Answer: b) No, it is only published in the official notification online
Explanation:
SSC provides all details, including the exact syllabus and pattern, exclusively through its official notification PDF on its website.
124. What does 'Review Medical Examination' (RME) mean?
Correct Answer: b) A secondary medical test for candidates unfit in DME, upon successful appeal
Explanation:
If a candidate is rejected in the initial medical exam, they can appeal. If the appeal is accepted, an RME is conducted by a different medical board.
125. Which section tests a candidate's ability to observe and distinguish patterns?
Correct Answer: b) Non-Verbal Reasoning
Explanation:
Non-verbal reasoning relies on pictures, diagrams, and shapes to test observation and pattern recognition skills.
126. Is knowledge of computers highly required for the exam itself?
Correct Answer: b) No, just basic familiarity to use the mouse to click answers during the CBE
Explanation:
The CBE platform is highly intuitive. Candidates only need to know how to use a computer mouse to select, save, and proceed through options.
127. In the SSC GD Maths syllabus, what does 'Percentages' primarily test?
Correct Answer: a) Understanding of base 100 calculations, discounts, and increments
Explanation:
Percentage involves calculating parts per hundred and is foundational for topics like profit/loss, simple interest, and discounts.
128. Are candidates required to take a language proficiency test in local languages (like Marathi, Bengali)?
Correct Answer: b) No, the exam only has English/Hindi as language subjects
Explanation:
While candidates can take the main exam in 13 regional languages, the specific language comprehension section is restricted to either English or Hindi.
129. What does a candidate's 'Raw Score' mean?
Correct Answer: b) Score calculated immediately based on correct and incorrect answers before normalization
Explanation:
The raw score is simply (Number of Correct Answers * 2) - (Number of Incorrect Answers * 0.25). It is calculated before the normalization formula is applied.
130. Why is normalization necessary in the SSC GD exam?
Correct Answer: b) To equate the difficulty level across multiple shifts conducted over many days
Explanation:
Since SSC GD is taken by millions, it runs in multiple shifts. Normalization ensures fairness so that candidates in harder shifts are not disadvantaged.
131. Which body executes the training for candidates after they are finally selected?
Correct Answer: c) The respective allocated CAPF (e.g., BSF training centers for BSF recruits)
Explanation:
Once SSC completes recruitment, the dossiers are handed over to the respective forces. The forces then issue joining letters and conduct training at their own centers.
132. What is the typical tenure of basic training for a newly recruited GD Constable?
Correct Answer: c) Around 44 to 52 weeks (approx. 11-12 months)
Explanation:
Basic training for CAPF Constables is rigorous and usually lasts for nearly a year (44-52 weeks) depending on the specific force's curriculum.
133. Is the SSC GD exam strictly for male candidates?
Correct Answer: b) No, both male and female candidates can apply
Explanation:
SSC GD recruits both male and female candidates for various forces, though the vacancies for females are categorized separately.
134. Which of the following describes the 'Militancy/Naxal affected districts' quota?
Correct Answer: b) A certain percentage of vacancies is reserved exclusively for candidates domiciled in these districts
Explanation:
To encourage youth from Left Wing Extremism (LWE) and militancy-affected areas to join the mainstream, specific vacancies are reserved for them.
135. Where does a candidate find the syllabus for SSC GD?
Correct Answer: b) The official recruitment notification PDF on the SSC website
Explanation:
The authentic and legally binding syllabus, exam pattern, and rules are always published in the official notification on ssc.gov.in.
136. To get age relaxation under the 'Ex-Servicemen' category, a candidate must have served in:
Correct Answer: b) Regular Army, Navy, or Air Force of the Indian Union
Explanation:
An Ex-Serviceman (ESM) refers to a person who has served in any rank in the Regular Army, Navy, and Air Force of the Indian Union.
