The Combined Defence Services (CDS) examination is conducted biannually by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) to select commissioned officers for the Indian Military Academy, Naval Academy, Air Force Academy, and Officers Training Academy. Comprising rigorous objective papers in English, General Knowledge, and Elementary Mathematics, the exam evaluates candidates on analytical aptitude, core academic foundations, and national awareness. Understanding the exam structure and practicing targeted multiple-choice questions is essential for clearing the competitive cutoffs and navigating negative marking successfully.
1. What does CDS stand for in the context of the defense exam?
Correct Answer: a) Combined Defence Services
Explanation:
CDS stands for Combined Defence Services, an exam conducted to recruit officers into the Indian Armed Forces.
2. Which organization is responsible for conducting the CDS examination?
Correct Answer: b) UPSC
Explanation:
The Combined Defence Services (CDS) Examination is conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC).
3. How many times a year is the CDS examination conducted?
Correct Answer: b) Twice
Explanation:
UPSC conducts the CDS examination biannually (twice a year) for recruitment into defense academies.
4. What is the mode of the CDS written examination?
Correct Answer: b) Offline (Pen and Paper)
Explanation:
The CDS exam is conducted offline, and candidates use an OMR sheet to mark their answers.
5. The CDS exam is conducted for recruitment into how many defense academies?
Correct Answer: c) Four
Explanation:
The exam recruits for four academies: IMA, INA, AFA, and OTA.
6. Which of the following academies under CDS allows the entry of women candidates?
Correct Answer: d) Officers' Training Academy (OTA)
Explanation:
OTA (Chennai) allows the entry of both men and women for Short Service Commission.
7. Where is the Indian Military Academy (IMA) located?
Correct Answer: b) Dehradun
Explanation:
The Indian Military Academy is located in Dehradun, Uttarakhand.
8. Where is the Indian Naval Academy (INA) located?
Correct Answer: a) Ezhimala
Explanation:
The Indian Naval Academy is situated in Ezhimala, Kerala.
9. Where is the Air Force Academy (AFA) located?
Correct Answer: b) Hyderabad
Explanation:
The Air Force Academy is located in Dundigal, Hyderabad.
10. Where is the Officers' Training Academy (OTA) located?
Correct Answer: c) Chennai
Explanation:
The Officers' Training Academy for CDS entry is located in Chennai.
11. What is the application fee for the CDS exam for General/OBC male candidates?
Correct Answer: b) INR 200
Explanation:
General and OBC male candidates are required to pay an application fee of INR 200.
12. Are female candidates required to pay the application fee for the CDS exam?
Correct Answer: c) No, they are exempted from the fee
Explanation:
Female candidates, along with SC/ST candidates, are exempted from paying the CDS application fee.
13. What type of questions are asked in the CDS written examination?
Correct Answer: b) Multiple-choice questions (MCQs)
Explanation:
The CDS exam consists of objective-type multiple-choice questions.
14. Is there negative marking in the CDS written examination?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, 1/3rd mark is deducted
Explanation:
For every incorrect answer, 1/3rd of the marks assigned to that question are deducted as a penalty.
15. Which of the following nationalities is NOT eligible to apply for the CDS exam?
Correct Answer: d) Citizen of China
Explanation:
Citizens of India, subjects of Nepal and Bhutan, and specific refugees/migrants are eligible, but not citizens of China.
16. Can a Tibetan refugee who migrated to India before January 1, 1962, apply for the CDS exam?
Correct Answer: a) Yes, provided they intend to permanently settle in India
Explanation:
Tibetan refugees who came to India before January 1, 1962, with the intention of permanently settling, are eligible.
17. What is the general age limit for candidates applying to the Indian Military Academy (IMA)?
Correct Answer: a) 19 to 24 years
Explanation:
The age limit for candidates applying to the Indian Military Academy (IMA) is 19 to 24 years.
18. What is the age limit for candidates applying to the Officers' Training Academy (OTA)?
Correct Answer: b) 19 to 25 years
Explanation:
For both male and female candidates applying to OTA, the age limit is 19 to 25 years.
19. What is the minimum educational qualification required to apply for the Indian Military Academy (IMA)?
Correct Answer: b) Graduation degree from a recognized university
Explanation:
A standard graduation degree from any recognized university is required for IMA.
20. What is the educational qualification required for the Indian Naval Academy (INA)?
Correct Answer: c) Degree in Engineering
Explanation:
Candidates applying for the Indian Naval Academy must hold a degree in Engineering.
21. What is the educational qualification required for the Air Force Academy (AFA)?
Correct Answer: a) Bachelor's degree with Physics and Mathematics at 10+2 level or B.E./B.Tech
Explanation:
AFA requires a bachelor's degree with Physics and Math at the 10+2 level, or an Engineering degree.
22. What is the minimum educational qualification required for the Officers' Training Academy (OTA)?
Correct Answer: b) Graduation degree from a recognized university
Explanation:
Just like IMA, OTA requires a graduation degree in any discipline from a recognized university.
23. Can candidates who are in the final year of their degree course apply for the CDS exam?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, they can apply provisionally
Explanation:
Final year degree students are eligible to apply, provided they submit proof of passing by a specified date.
24. What is the marital status requirement for male candidates applying to the IMA?
Correct Answer: a) Unmarried males only
Explanation:
Only unmarried male candidates are eligible to apply for the Indian Military Academy.
25. What is the marital status requirement for female candidates applying to OTA?
Correct Answer: b) Unmarried females, issueless widows, and legally divorced women
Explanation:
Unmarried women, as well as widows without children, are eligible to apply for OTA.
26. How many papers are included in the CDS written exam for IMA, INA, and AFA?
Correct Answer: c) Three
Explanation:
The written exam for IMA, INA, and AFA consists of three papers: English, General Knowledge, and Elementary Mathematics.
27. How many papers are included in the CDS written exam for OTA?
Correct Answer: b) Two
Explanation:
The written exam for OTA consists of only two papers: English and General Knowledge.
28. Which of the following subjects is NOT included in the OTA written examination?
Correct Answer: c) Elementary Mathematics
Explanation:
OTA candidates do not have to take the Elementary Mathematics paper.
29. What is the maximum mark allocated to the English paper in the CDS exam?
Correct Answer: b) 100 marks
Explanation:
The English paper carries a maximum of 100 marks.
30. What is the maximum mark allocated to the General Knowledge paper?
Correct Answer: b) 100 marks
Explanation:
The General Knowledge paper carries a maximum of 100 marks.
31. What is the maximum mark allocated to the Elementary Mathematics paper?
Correct Answer: b) 100 marks
Explanation:
The Elementary Mathematics paper carries a maximum of 100 marks.
32. What is the total written exam score for candidates applying to IMA, INA, and AFA?
Correct Answer: b) 300 marks
Explanation:
With three papers of 100 marks each, the total written score is 300 for IMA, INA, and AFA.
33. What is the total written exam score for candidates applying to OTA?
Correct Answer: b) 200 marks
Explanation:
With two papers (English and GK) of 100 marks each, the total written score is 200 for OTA.
34. What is the duration allotted for each paper in the CDS written examination?
Correct Answer: c) 2 hours
Explanation:
Each paper in the CDS examination has a duration of 2 hours.
35. In which language is the CDS General Knowledge and Mathematics question paper printed?
Correct Answer: c) Bilingual (English and Hindi)
Explanation:
The question papers for General Knowledge and Mathematics are printed bilingually in English and Hindi.
36. What is the second stage of the CDS selection process after clearing the written exam?
Correct Answer: c) SSB Interview
Explanation:
Candidates who qualify the written exam are called for the SSB Interview as the second stage.
37. What does SSB stand for in the context of the CDS selection process?
Correct Answer: b) Services Selection Board
Explanation:
SSB stands for Services Selection Board, which assesses the suitability of candidates for becoming officers.
38. How many days does the SSB interview process typically last?
Correct Answer: c) 5 days
Explanation:
The SSB interview is a comprehensive process that generally spans over 5 days.
39. The SSB interview for IMA, INA, and AFA carries a total of how many marks?
Correct Answer: c) 300 marks
Explanation:
The total marks for the SSB interview for IMA, INA, and AFA are 300, matching their written exam total.
40. The SSB interview for OTA carries a total of how many marks?
Correct Answer: c) 200 marks
Explanation:
For OTA candidates, the SSB interview carries 200 marks, equating to their written exam total.
41. What is the first test conducted on Day 1 of the SSB interview?
Correct Answer: b) Screening Test (OIR and PPDT)
Explanation:
Day 1 features the Stage-I Screening Test comprising OIR (Officer Intelligence Rating) and PPDT.
42. What does OIR stand for in the SSB screening test?
Correct Answer: a) Officer Intelligence Rating
Explanation:
OIR stands for Officer Intelligence Rating, which tests verbal and non-verbal reasoning.
43. What does PPDT stand for in the SSB screening process?
Correct Answer: a) Picture Perception and Description Test
Explanation:
PPDT stands for Picture Perception and Description Test, where candidates write a story based on a picture and discuss it.
44. Which of the following tests is a part of the Psychological Tests in SSB?
Correct Answer: b) Word Association Test (WAT)
Explanation:
The Word Association Test (WAT) is one of the psychological tests conducted during SSB.
45. What does TAT stand for in the psychological testing phase of SSB?
Correct Answer: a) Thematic Apperception Test
Explanation:
TAT stands for Thematic Apperception Test, a psychological assessment.
46. What does SRT stand for in the SSB psychological tests?
Correct Answer: b) Situation Reaction Test
Explanation:
SRT is the Situation Reaction Test where candidates provide their reactions to daily life situations.
47. Which officer evaluates the candidates during the outdoor tasks in SSB?
Correct Answer: c) Group Testing Officer (GTO)
Explanation:
The Group Testing Officer (GTO) evaluates candidates during ground/outdoor team tasks.
48. Which of the following is a GTO task in the SSB interview?
Correct Answer: b) Progressive Group Task (PGT)
Explanation:
The Progressive Group Task (PGT) is an outdoor team exercise administered by the GTO.
49. What happens on the final day (Day 5) of the SSB interview?
Correct Answer: c) Board Conference
Explanation:
Day 5 features the final Board Conference, where assessors finalize the recommendations.
50. What is the final stage of the CDS selection process before the merit list is published?
Correct Answer: b) Medical Examination
Explanation:
Candidates recommended by the SSB undergo a thorough Medical Examination before the merit list is prepared.
51. Which of the following topics is commonly tested in the CDS English vocabulary section?
Correct Answer: b) Synonyms and Antonyms
Explanation:
Synonyms and Antonyms are standard topics used to test vocabulary in the CDS English syllabus.
52. The 'Reading Comprehension' section in the CDS English paper evaluates a candidate's ability to:
Correct Answer: c) Understand and analyze passages
Explanation:
Reading Comprehension assesses the ability to read, understand, and deduce answers from provided passages.
53. Which topic is typically a part of the English Grammar section in the CDS exam?
Correct Answer: a) Sentence Improvement
Explanation:
Sentence Improvement is a critical grammar topic in the CDS English syllabus.
54. Which subject is NOT covered under the General Knowledge paper of the CDS exam?
Correct Answer: c) Data Interpretation
Explanation:
Data Interpretation belongs to Mathematics/Aptitude, not the General Knowledge section.
55. Current Affairs questions in the CDS General Knowledge paper primarily focus on:
Correct Answer: b) Recent national and international events
Explanation:
Current Affairs tests a candidate's awareness of significant recent national and international events.
56. Which of the following topics belongs to the CDS Elementary Mathematics syllabus?
Correct Answer: a) Trigonometry
Explanation:
Trigonometry is a key component of the CDS Elementary Mathematics syllabus.
57. Questions on 'Mensuration' in the CDS Mathematics paper deal with calculating:
Correct Answer: b) Areas and volumes of geometric figures
Explanation:
Mensuration involves the measurement of 2D and 3D figures, focusing on areas and volumes.
58. Which level of mathematics is generally assessed in the CDS examination?
Correct Answer: c) Matriculation (10th standard) level
Explanation:
The standard of Elementary Mathematics in the CDS exam is of Matriculation level.
59. The topic of 'Indian Polity' in the CDS General Knowledge paper majorly revolves around:
Correct Answer: a) The Indian Constitution and governance
Explanation:
Indian Polity focuses on the structure of the government, the Constitution, and related governance topics.
60. Which of the following topics is covered under the Geography syllabus of the CDS exam?
Correct Answer: a) Climate and topography
Explanation:
Geography encompasses the physical features, climate, topography, and environment.
61. Which of the following subjects is an integral part of the Science section in the CDS GK paper?
Correct Answer: b) Physics, Chemistry, and Biology
Explanation:
The Science portion of the General Knowledge paper covers everyday Physics, Chemistry, and Biology.
62. What must candidates use to mark their answers on the OMR sheet in the CDS exam?
Correct Answer: b) Black ballpoint pen only
Explanation:
UPSC mandates the use of a black ballpoint pen only to darken the circles on the OMR sheet.
63. Are calculators permitted inside the examination hall for the CDS Mathematics paper?
Correct Answer: c) No, calculators are strictly prohibited
Explanation:
Electronic gadgets, including calculators of any kind, are strictly banned inside the exam hall.
64. If a candidate marks multiple options for a single question in the CDS exam, what is the consequence?
Correct Answer: b) It is treated as a wrong answer and negative marking applies
Explanation:
Marking more than one response is treated as a wrong answer, attracting a 1/3rd penalty.
65. What is the official website for candidates to apply for the CDS examination?
Correct Answer: b) upsc.gov.in
Explanation:
Candidates must apply online via the official UPSC website: upsc.gov.in.
66. Which defense force does the Indian Military Academy (IMA) train officers for?
Correct Answer: c) Indian Army
Explanation:
IMA is the premier training institution for officers of the Indian Army.
67. Which defense force does the Indian Naval Academy (INA) train officers for?
Correct Answer: b) Indian Navy
Explanation:
INA provides training to candidates selected for the Indian Navy.
68. Which defense force does the Air Force Academy (AFA) train officers for?
Correct Answer: c) Indian Air Force
Explanation:
AFA trains candidates recommended for the Indian Air Force.
69. The Officers' Training Academy (OTA) prepares candidates for which type of commission?
Correct Answer: b) Short Service Commission (SSC)
Explanation:
OTA trains candidates specifically for the Short Service Commission in the Indian Army.
70. What is the typical duration of training at the Indian Military Academy (IMA)?
Correct Answer: b) 18 months
Explanation:
The duration of training at the IMA for CDS candidates is 18 months.
71. What is the typical duration of training at the Officers' Training Academy (OTA)?
Correct Answer: a) 49 weeks
Explanation:
Training at OTA spans 49 weeks, after which cadets are granted a Short Service Commission.
72. What starting rank is granted to candidates upon successful completion of training at IMA?
Correct Answer: c) Lieutenant
Explanation:
Graduates of IMA are commissioned into the Indian Army with the rank of Lieutenant.
73. What starting rank is granted to candidates upon successful completion of training at INA?
Correct Answer: a) Sub-Lieutenant
Explanation:
Upon successful training at the Indian Naval Academy, officers are commissioned as Sub-Lieutenants.
74. What starting rank is granted to candidates upon successful completion of training at AFA?
Correct Answer: b) Flying Officer
Explanation:
Candidates successfully completing training at AFA are commissioned as Flying Officers.
75. Is a candidate allowed to choose more than one academy as a preference while filling out the CDS application form?
Correct Answer: a) Yes, candidates can give their preferences
Explanation:
Candidates can indicate multiple academy preferences based on their eligibility and interests.
76. Can a candidate who fails the CPSS test apply for the flying branch of the Air Force again?
Correct Answer: c) No, candidates who fail CPSS cannot apply for flying branches again
Explanation:
The CPSS is a once-in-a-lifetime test; failure disqualifies a candidate from military flying permanently.
77. What does CPSS stand for in the context of the Air Force Academy selection?
Correct Answer: b) Computerized Pilot Selection System
Explanation:
CPSS stands for Computerized Pilot Selection System, a test for candidates applying for the flying branch.
78. How are the final merit lists prepared for the CDS exam?
Correct Answer: c) Based on the combined marks of the written exam and SSB interview
Explanation:
The final merit is determined by the total marks secured in the written examination and the SSB interview.
79. Are the marks of the medical examination added to the final merit list in the CDS exam?
Correct Answer: c) No, the medical examination is only qualifying in nature
Explanation:
The medical examination is strictly qualifying; no marks are awarded for it in the final merit.
80. If two candidates secure equal aggregate marks in the CDS exam, how is the tie typically resolved?
Correct Answer: b) The older candidate gets preference
Explanation:
In case of a tie in aggregate marks, preference is given to the candidate who is senior in age.
81. Which of the following documents is strictly required at the SSB interview center?
Correct Answer: a) Original 10th class mark sheet and passing certificate
Explanation:
The 10th class passing certificate is strictly required to verify the candidate's date of birth.
82. Is the CDS exam applicable for recruitment into the Indian Coast Guard?
Correct Answer: b) No, it is exclusively for Army, Navy, and Air Force
Explanation:
CDS facilitates recruitment into the Army, Navy, and Air Force, not the Indian Coast Guard.
83. What happens to the candidates who clear the written exam but fail the SSB interview?
Correct Answer: b) They have to appear for the written exam again in the next cycle
Explanation:
Candidates who fail the SSB must restart the process by clearing the written exam in the next cycle.
84. Which of the following physical activities is recommended for candidates preparing for the CDS medical and physical tests?
Correct Answer: b) Regular running and physical exercise
Explanation:
Regular physical training is advised to meet the strenuous physical standards of the defense forces.
85. What is the standard minimum height requirement for male candidates applying for the Army (IMA/OTA)?
Correct Answer: b) 157.5 cm
Explanation:
The acceptable minimum height for male candidates in the Army is 157.5 cm.
86. What is the standard minimum height requirement for female candidates applying for OTA?
Correct Answer: b) 152 cm
Explanation:
The minimum height requirement for women candidates applying for OTA is 152 cm.
87. Are candidates with permanent body tattoos generally allowed to join the armed forces through CDS?
Correct Answer: b) No, permanent body tattoos are strictly prohibited except on the inner face of the forearm or tribal traditions
Explanation:
Tattoos are only permitted under specific strict guidelines, mostly limited to the inner forearm or specific tribal customs.
88. Can candidates wearing spectacles apply for the Air Force Academy (Flying Branch)?
Correct Answer: c) No, candidates who habitually wear spectacles are not eligible for the flying branch
Explanation:
The AFA Flying Branch requires uncorrected 6/6 vision, so habitual spectacle wearers are ineligible.
89. LASIK surgery is generally permissible for which of the following academies under certain conditions?
Correct Answer: b) Indian Military Academy (IMA)
Explanation:
LASIK may be acceptable for IMA/OTA under strict conditions, but not for the AFA Flying Branch.
90. What is the penalty for candidates who are found guilty of using unfair means in the CDS written examination?
Correct Answer: c) Debarment from future examinations conducted by UPSC
Explanation:
Using unfair means leads to immediate disqualification and debarment from UPSC exams.
91. The 'Ordering of Sentences' topic in the CDS English paper tests the candidate's ability to:
Correct Answer: b) Arrange jumbled sentences into a coherent paragraph
Explanation:
This section evaluates logical thinking by requiring candidates to sequence jumbled sentences logically.
92. The 'Fill in the blanks' section in the CDS English paper mainly evaluates:
Correct Answer: a) Vocabulary and grammatical proficiency
Explanation:
Fill in the blanks questions measure a candidate's grasp of appropriate grammar and vocabulary usage.
93. Which aspect of Mathematics includes topics like HCF, LCM, and Decimal Fractions in the CDS syllabus?
Correct Answer: b) Arithmetic
Explanation:
Topics such as Number System, HCF, LCM, and Decimal Fractions belong to the Arithmetic section.
94. In the CDS Mathematics syllabus, 'Polynomials' and 'Quadratic Equations' fall under which category?
Correct Answer: b) Algebra
Explanation:
Polynomials and Quadratic Equations are core concepts within the Algebra portion of the syllabus.
95. Which topic is associated with the 'Statistics' section of the CDS Mathematics paper?
Correct Answer: c) Collection and tabulation of statistical data, Mean, Median, and Mode
Explanation:
The Statistics section encompasses data collection, tabulation, and central tendency measures like Mean, Median, and Mode.
96. In the CDS syllabus, which section tests the knowledge of the Defence forces and their structure?
Correct Answer: b) General Knowledge
Explanation:
Defence-related knowledge is evaluated within the General Knowledge paper.
97. Is there any sectional cutoff in the CDS written examination?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, candidates must secure minimum qualifying marks in each subject separately
Explanation:
Candidates must clear a sectional cutoff in every subject (English, GK, and Math if applicable) to qualify.
98. Usually, what is the minimum qualifying mark (sectional cutoff) fixed by UPSC for each subject in the CDS exam?
Correct Answer: b) 20%
Explanation:
Historically, UPSC fixes a 20% sectional cutoff for each subject in the CDS written exam.
99. Once a candidate is recommended by the SSB and declared medically fit, what is the final step?
Correct Answer: b) Awaiting the final merit list published by UPSC based on available vacancies
Explanation:
Final selection depends on the merit list and the total number of available vacancies.
100. What happens if a candidate's name is on the merit list but they fail to produce their original graduation degree in time?
Correct Answer: a) Their candidature may be cancelled
Explanation:
Producing original documentation on time is mandatory; failure to do so will result in cancellation of candidature.
