GMAT Critical Reasoning MCQs

Q: 1. In GMAT Critical Reasoning, what is the definition of a 'premise'?

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Q: 2. What is a 'conclusion' in the context of a GMAT argument?

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Q: 3. How is an 'assumption' defined in GMAT Critical Reasoning?

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Q: 4. Which of the following words is most commonly used to signal a premise?

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Q: 5. Which of the following words is a strong indicator of a conclusion?

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Q: 6. What role does an 'Intermediate Conclusion' play in an argument?

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Q: 7. What does the 'scope' of an argument refer to?

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Q: 8. What comprises the 'core' of a GMAT argument?

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Q: 9. What is the primary function of 'background information' in a Critical Reasoning prompt?

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Q: 10. What is a 'counter-premise'?

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1. In GMAT Critical Reasoning, what is the definition of a 'premise'?

a) The author's primary opinion or claim.

b) An unstated piece of information necessary for the argument.

c) A stated fact or piece of evidence used to support a conclusion.

d) A logical flaw in the author's reasoning.

Correct Answer: c) A stated fact or piece of evidence used to support a conclusion.

Explanation:

A premise is explicitly stated in the text and provides the factual basis or evidence that the author uses to build their argument.

2. What is a 'conclusion' in the context of a GMAT argument?

a) The very last sentence of the passage.

b) The main point, claim, or prediction the author is trying to prove.

c) A fact that cannot be disputed by the reader.

d) The background information that sets up the scenario.

Correct Answer: b) The main point, claim, or prediction the author is trying to prove.

Explanation:

The conclusion is the author's primary claim or judgment, which is logically derived from the premises provided.

3. How is an 'assumption' defined in GMAT Critical Reasoning?

a) An unstated premise that must be true for the argument's conclusion to logically follow.

b) A guess made by the reader about the author's background.

c) A stated fact that links the evidence to the conclusion.

d) An alternative explanation for the phenomenon described.

Correct Answer: a) An unstated premise that must be true for the argument's conclusion to logically follow.

Explanation:

Assumptions are never explicitly stated in the text. They are the hidden logical links required to make the argument valid.

4. Which of the following words is most commonly used to signal a premise?

a) Therefore

b) Consequently

c) Because

d) Thus

Correct Answer: c) Because

Explanation:

Words like 'because', 'since', 'for', and 'given that' indicate that the author is providing evidence or a premise.

5. Which of the following words is a strong indicator of a conclusion?

a) Since

b) Hence

c) Furthermore

d) However

Correct Answer: b) Hence

Explanation:

Words like 'hence', 'therefore', 'thus', and 'consequently' typically introduce the author's conclusion.

6. What role does an 'Intermediate Conclusion' play in an argument?

a) It opposes the main conclusion.

b) It is a premise that requires no support.

c) It acts as a conclusion for one piece of evidence, but serves as a premise for the main conclusion.

d) It is an unstated assumption.

Correct Answer: c) It acts as a conclusion for one piece of evidence, but serves as a premise for the main conclusion.

Explanation:

An intermediate conclusion is a stepping stone. It is supported by some premises and, in turn, supports the final main conclusion.

7. What does the 'scope' of an argument refer to?

a) The length of the reading passage.

b) The specific subject matter and boundaries within which the author's argument operates.

c) The number of premises used.

d) The emotional tone of the author.

Correct Answer: b) The specific subject matter and boundaries within which the author's argument operates.

Explanation:

Scope defines the limits of the argument. Answer choices that fall 'out of scope' deal with topics or degrees not covered by the author's logic.

8. What comprises the 'core' of a GMAT argument?

a) Background information and the conclusion.

b) The premise(s) and the conclusion.

c) The conclusion and the counter-premise.

d) The assumption and the background information.

Correct Answer: b) The premise(s) and the conclusion.

Explanation:

The core of the argument is its logical skeleton: the specific evidence (premises) leading directly to the primary claim (conclusion).

9. What is the primary function of 'background information' in a Critical Reasoning prompt?

a) To provide the author's main claim.

b) To establish the context of the situation without actively supporting the conclusion.

c) To introduce a logical flaw.

d) To act as the primary assumption.

Correct Answer: b) To establish the context of the situation without actively supporting the conclusion.

Explanation:

Background information sets the scene (e.g., 'In 1999, the city passed a law...') but does not serve as direct evidence for the author's specific conclusion.

10. What is a 'counter-premise'?

a) Evidence that supports the author's main conclusion.

b) A fact that goes against the author's conclusion, often introduced to be dismissed.

c) An assumption made by the opposing side.

d) The final sentence of a passage.

Correct Answer: b) A fact that goes against the author's conclusion, often introduced to be dismissed.

Explanation:

Authors often use counter-premises (signaled by words like 'although' or 'despite') to acknowledge opposing facts before proving their own point.

11. Which question type asks you to find a piece of information that makes the author's conclusion less likely to be true?

a) Strengthen

b) Weaken

c) Assumption

d) Inference

Correct Answer: b) Weaken

Explanation:

Weaken questions ask you to identify a fact that, if true, casts the most doubt on the logical validity of the argument.

12. Which question type asks you to identify a new piece of evidence that makes the conclusion more likely to be true?

a) Evaluate

b) Paradox

c) Strengthen

d) Flaw

Correct Answer: c) Strengthen

Explanation:

Strengthen questions require you to find an answer choice that bolsters the argument, often by confirming an assumption or ruling out an alternative cause.

13. If a question asks 'The argument depends on which of the following?', what is it asking for?

a) A Necessary Assumption

b) An Inference

c) A Weaken statement

d) A Paradox resolution

Correct Answer: a) A Necessary Assumption

Explanation:

Phrases like 'depends on', 'relies on', or 'assumes' indicate an Assumption question, requiring a statement essential to the argument's survival.

14. Which question type requires you to deduce a conclusion strictly from the provided facts without bringing in outside information?

a) Strengthen

b) Assumption

c) Inference / Draw a Conclusion

d) Evaluate

Correct Answer: c) Inference / Draw a Conclusion

Explanation:

Inference questions act like a math problem; the correct answer must be 100% undeniably true based solely on the facts in the passage.

15. A question asks you to 'explain the discrepancy'. What question type is this?

a) Flaw

b) Resolve the Paradox

c) Boldface

d) Weaken

Correct Answer: b) Resolve the Paradox

Explanation:

Paradox questions present two seemingly contradictory facts and ask you to find a new piece of information that allows both facts to comfortably coexist.

16. What is the primary goal of an 'Evaluate the Argument' question?

a) To find a statement that destroys the argument.

b) To identify a question or piece of information whose answer would determine the logical validity of the argument.

c) To point out a grammatical error.

d) To summarize the author's tone.

Correct Answer: b) To identify a question or piece of information whose answer would determine the logical validity of the argument.

Explanation:

Evaluate questions ask you to find the missing variable. Depending on how that variable turns out (yes or no), the argument will either be strengthened or weakened.

17. Which question type asks you to describe the logical error the author makes?

a) Method of Reasoning / Flaw

b) Assumption

c) Inference

d) Paradox

Correct Answer: a) Method of Reasoning / Flaw

Explanation:

Flaw questions require you to identify the structural reasoning error in the argument, such as confusing correlation with causation.

18. In a 'Boldface' question, what is your primary task?

a) To correct the grammar of the bolded text.

b) To determine the structural role that the bolded statements play in the overall argument.

c) To find a new premise that supports the bold text.

d) To state whether the bolded text is factually true in the real world.

Correct Answer: b) To determine the structural role that the bolded statements play in the overall argument.

Explanation:

Boldface (Method of Reasoning) questions test your ability to classify parts of an argument (e.g., identifying a premise, a counter-premise, or a conclusion).

19. How should you handle an 'EXCEPT' question (e.g., 'Each of the following weakens the argument EXCEPT')?

a) Find the one choice that weakens the argument.

b) Eliminate the four choices that perform the action (e.g., weaken), and select the one that does not.

c) Skip the question as they are unscored.

d) Choose the answer with the most extreme language.

Correct Answer: b) Eliminate the four choices that perform the action (e.g., weaken), and select the one that does not.

Explanation:

In an EXCEPT question, four answers will do what the question states. The correct answer is the odd one out—it either has no effect or does the opposite.

20. What is 'Pre-thinking' in GMAT Critical Reasoning?

a) Memorizing previous GMAT questions.

b) Anticipating the gap, assumption, or potential answer before reading the answer choices.

c) Reading the passage backwards.

d) Guessing the answer based on word count.

Correct Answer: b) Anticipating the gap, assumption, or potential answer before reading the answer choices.

Explanation:

Pre-thinking involves actively identifying the logical gap between the premise and conclusion before looking at the options, which helps avoid trap answers.

21. What is the most effective way to weaken an argument on the GMAT?

a) Prove that one of the stated premises is a lie.

b) Attack the author's central assumption.

c) Complain about the author's tone.

d) Introduce a completely unrelated topic.

Correct Answer: b) Attack the author's central assumption.

Explanation:

You cannot argue with the stated facts (premises) on the GMAT. To weaken an argument, you must show that the unstated assumption linking the premise to the conclusion is flawed.

22. If an argument claims that A caused B, which of the following is a classic way to weaken it?

a) Show that B is a good thing.

b) Provide an alternative cause (C) that actually caused B.

c) State that A happens frequently.

d) Show that A and B are spelled similarly.

Correct Answer: b) Provide an alternative cause (C) that actually caused B.

Explanation:

Providing a viable alternative explanation (an alternate cause) breaks the author's assumption that A was the sole cause of B.

23. What is 'Reverse Causation'?

a) Assuming two things caused each other simultaneously.

b) Showing that instead of A causing B, the reality is that B caused A.

c) Stopping a cause before it happens.

d) Denying that causation exists at all.

Correct Answer: b) Showing that instead of A causing B, the reality is that B caused A.

Explanation:

If an author sees a correlation and assumes A causes B, pointing out that B actually causes A is a powerful way to weaken the argument.

24. How can you weaken an argument based on a survey or statistic?

a) Show that the sample used in the survey was unrepresentative of the general population.

b) Argue that numbers are generally untrustworthy.

c) State that the survey was done last year.

d) Show that 100% of the sample agreed.

Correct Answer: a) Show that the sample used in the survey was unrepresentative of the general population.

Explanation:

If a conclusion about a whole population is drawn from a biased or unrepresentative sample, the argument is logically flawed.

25. When an argument uses an analogy (comparing X to Y), how do you weaken it?

a) Show that X and Y are completely identical.

b) Highlight a relevant, fundamental difference between X and Y that destroys the comparison.

c) State that analogies are weak rhetorical devices.

d) Introduce a third item, Z.

Correct Answer: b) Highlight a relevant, fundamental difference between X and Y that destroys the comparison.

Explanation:

Arguments by analogy assume the two things being compared are similar in the relevant aspects. Pointing out a crucial difference breaks the logic.

26. When weakening a 'Plan' argument (Goal: achieve X by doing Y), what is a common correct answer?

a) A statement that the plan will take a few weeks to implement.

b) A statement showing that doing Y will trigger an unforeseen negative consequence that prevents X.

c) A statement that someone disagrees with the plan.

d) A statement that X is not a worthy goal.

Correct Answer: b) A statement showing that doing Y will trigger an unforeseen negative consequence that prevents X.

Explanation:

If a plan introduces a side effect that actively thwarts the stated goal, the plan is logically unsound.

27. What is the 'Time Shift' weakener?

a) Proving that a clock is broken.

b) Showing that conditions have significantly changed between the past evidence and the future prediction.

c) Arguing that time is an illusion.

d) Stating that the event happened at night rather than day.

Correct Answer: b) Showing that conditions have significantly changed between the past evidence and the future prediction.

Explanation:

Arguments that assume 'what happened in 1990 will happen in 2030' can be weakened by showing that the relevant circumstances have changed drastically.

28. Is extreme language (e.g., 'all', 'never') acceptable in a Weaken correct answer?

a) No, extreme language is always wrong in GMAT CR.

b) Yes, if the extreme statement introduces a fact that successfully destroys the argument's assumption.

c) Only if the passage also uses extreme language.

d) Yes, but only in Inference questions.

Correct Answer: b) Yes, if the extreme statement introduces a fact that successfully destroys the argument's assumption.

Explanation:

Unlike Inference questions, Weaken (and Strengthen) questions introduce *new* information. An extreme new fact can be a perfectly valid way to destroy an argument.

29. What is the 'True but Irrelevant' trap in Weaken questions?

a) An answer that is factually false.

b) An answer that states a real-world fact that has absolutely no bearing on the logical gap between the premise and conclusion.

c) An answer that strengthens the argument.

d) An answer that contradicts the premises.

Correct Answer: b) An answer that states a real-world fact that has absolutely no bearing on the logical gap between the premise and conclusion.

Explanation:

Trap answers often state plausible, true-sounding facts that simply fall 'out of scope' and do not affect the specific conclusion being drawn.

30. An argument claims 'Company X will go bankrupt because its total debt increased by 10%.' What weakens this?

a) Company Y's debt increased by 20%.

b) Company X's total revenue and assets increased by 500% in the same period.

c) Debt is a common financial tool.

d) Bankruptcies are on the rise.

Correct Answer: b) Company X's total revenue and assets increased by 500% in the same period.

Explanation:

Looking at an absolute increase in debt is meaningless without looking at the whole financial picture (assets/revenue). This choice shows the debt increase is manageable.

31. What is the most direct way to Strengthen an argument?

a) Repeat the conclusion word-for-word.

b) Explicitly state and confirm the author's unstated assumption.

c) Attack an opposing view using aggressive language.

d) Provide a dictionary definition of a key term.

Correct Answer: b) Explicitly state and confirm the author's unstated assumption.

Explanation:

Strengthening an argument involves finding a new piece of evidence that bridges the gap between the premise and the conclusion, validating the assumption.

32. If an argument concludes that A causes B, how can you strengthen it?

a) Rule out a plausible alternative cause (C) for B.

b) Show that B causes A.

c) Argue that A and B are unrelated.

d) Show that A sometimes happens without B.

Correct Answer: a) Rule out a plausible alternative cause (C) for B.

Explanation:

By eliminating other potential explanations, you make it much more likely that the author's proposed cause (A) is the actual cause.

33. Which of the following strengthens a causal claim (A causes B)?

a) Showing that when A is present, B is also present.

b) Showing that B happened long before A.

c) Showing that A only causes C.

d) Showing that most people dislike A.

Correct Answer: a) Showing that when A is present, B is also present.

Explanation:

Providing an additional data point where the cause and effect occur together (or where the absence of the cause leads to the absence of the effect) strengthens the causal link.

34. How can you strengthen an argument based on an analogy?

a) Point out a major difference between the two things.

b) Show that the two things being compared share another critical, relevant similarity.

c) Argue that analogies are always valid.

d) Change the subject to a third item.

Correct Answer: b) Show that the two things being compared share another critical, relevant similarity.

Explanation:

Confirming that the two subjects of the analogy are fundamentally similar in ways relevant to the conclusion strengthens the argument.

35. To strengthen an argument based on a survey, the correct answer might:

a) Show that the respondents were highly biased.

b) Show that the survey sample accurately reflects the demographics of the broader population.

c) Show that the survey only asked one question.

d) Show that the survey was conducted anonymously.

Correct Answer: b) Show that the survey sample accurately reflects the demographics of the broader population.

Explanation:

Validating the representativeness of a data sample removes the assumption that the sample might be flawed, thus strengthening the conclusion.

36. When evaluating a plan to increase profits by raising prices, which fact strengthens the plan?

a) Competitors are lowering their prices.

b) Customer demand for the product is highly inelastic (they will buy it regardless of price).

c) The cost of raw materials is dropping.

d) The product is easily substituted.

Correct Answer: b) Customer demand for the product is highly inelastic (they will buy it regardless of price).

Explanation:

If customers will continue to buy the product despite the price hike, the plan to increase profits by raising prices is much more likely to succeed.

37. What is a common trap in Strengthen questions?

a) Providing new evidence.

b) Selecting an answer that actually weakens the argument.

c) Selecting an answer that confirms an assumption.

d) Reading the question stem carefully.

Correct Answer: b) Selecting an answer that actually weakens the argument.

Explanation:

Test-makers frequently include 'opposite' trap answers. If you lose track of your task, you might accidentally pick a choice that weakens the argument.

38. Why is an answer choice that simply restates a premise usually incorrect in a Strengthen question?

a) Because premises are always false.

b) Because the prompt asks for 'which of the following, if true', requiring a NEW piece of supporting evidence.

c) Because it makes the argument too long.

d) Because it turns the argument into a paradox.

Correct Answer: b) Because the prompt asks for 'which of the following, if true', requiring a NEW piece of supporting evidence.

Explanation:

Repeating a premise does not add any new logical support; we already accept the premises as true. A strengthener must provide new information that bridges a gap.

39. An argument claims a new fertilizer will increase crop yields. Which of the following strengthens this?

a) The fertilizer is packaged in green bags.

b) In a neighboring farm with identical soil, the fertilizer increased yields by 20%.

c) The fertilizer is more expensive than the old one.

d) The old fertilizer was used for 50 years.

Correct Answer: b) In a neighboring farm with identical soil, the fertilizer increased yields by 20%.

Explanation:

This provides a highly relevant comparative data point (similar soil) showing the cause (fertilizer) resulting in the desired effect (increased yields).

40. Which of the following is NOT a valid way to strengthen an argument?

a) Validating an assumption.

b) Ruling out a potential weakness.

c) Attacking the personal character of those who disagree with the conclusion.

d) Providing supporting statistical data.

Correct Answer: c) Attacking the personal character of those who disagree with the conclusion.

Explanation:

Ad hominem attacks (attacking the person rather than the logic) are logical fallacies and never validly strengthen an argument on the GMAT.

41. In GMAT terminology, what is a 'Necessary Assumption'?

a) A statement that, if true, guarantees the conclusion is true.

b) A statement that MUST be true in order for the argument to not fall apart.

c) A premise that is explicitly stated in the first sentence.

d) An assumption made by the reader.

Correct Answer: b) A statement that MUST be true in order for the argument to not fall apart.

Explanation:

Most GMAT assumption questions ask for necessary assumptions. If a necessary assumption is false, the argument collapses.

42. What is the 'Negation Test' (or Denial Test) used for?

a) To test if an answer choice in an Inference question is correct.

b) To determine if an answer choice is a Necessary Assumption.

c) To find the opposite of a conclusion.

d) To weaken a fact.

Correct Answer: b) To determine if an answer choice is a Necessary Assumption.

Explanation:

If you negate an answer choice and the negation completely destroys the author's argument, then that answer choice was a necessary assumption.

43. How do you correctly negate the statement 'All cats are mammals' for the Negation Test?

a) No cats are mammals.

b) Some cats are not mammals.

c) All mammals are cats.

d) Cats are definitely not mammals.

Correct Answer: b) Some cats are not mammals.

Explanation:

The logical opposite of 'All' (100%) is 'Not all' (0% to 99%), which is best expressed as 'At least one is not' or 'Some are not'.

44. How do you correctly negate the statement 'Some people like pizza'?

a) Everyone likes pizza.

b) Most people like pizza.

c) No one likes pizza.

d) Some people hate pizza.

Correct Answer: c) No one likes pizza.

Explanation:

The logical opposite of 'Some' (1 to 100) is 'None' (0). Therefore, the negation is 'No one likes pizza'.

45. What is a 'Defender' assumption?

a) An assumption that introduces a brand new concept.

b) An assumption that protects the argument by ruling out a potential weakness or alternate cause.

c) An assumption made by the opposing party.

d) A stated fact that defends the conclusion.

Correct Answer: b) An assumption that protects the argument by ruling out a potential weakness or alternate cause.

Explanation:

Defender assumptions act like a shield, explicitly stating that a potential problem or alternate explanation does not exist (e.g., 'The equipment did not malfunction').

46. What is a 'Supporter' assumption?

a) An assumption that links new or rogue elements in the premise to elements in the conclusion.

b) An assumption that denies a weakness.

c) An assumption that is entirely irrelevant.

d) A statement that praises the author.

Correct Answer: a) An assumption that links new or rogue elements in the premise to elements in the conclusion.

Explanation:

If a conclusion introduces a new concept not mentioned in the premises, a supporter assumption is needed to connect the premise concepts to the new conclusion concept.

47. If you apply the Negation Test to the correct answer of an Assumption question, what will happen?

a) The argument will be slightly weakened.

b) The argument will be strengthened.

c) The argument will completely fall apart / be logically destroyed.

d) Nothing; the argument remains exactly the same.

Correct Answer: c) The argument will completely fall apart / be logically destroyed.

Explanation:

Because a necessary assumption is essential to the argument, asserting that it is false (negating it) must shatter the logical integrity of the conclusion.

48. Why is extreme language (e.g., 'always', 'only', 'never') often a trap in Assumption questions?

a) Because arguments rarely depend on extreme, absolute conditions to simply be valid.

b) Because the GMAT never uses extreme language.

c) Because it makes the sentence too long.

d) Because it automatically strengthens the argument.

Correct Answer: a) Because arguments rarely depend on extreme, absolute conditions to simply be valid.

Explanation:

An argument might assume that 'some' people will buy a product, but rarely needs to assume that 'all' or 'only' those people will buy it to be logically sound.

49. An argument assumes that lowering ticket prices will increase overall revenue. What is a necessary assumption?

a) Ticket prices are the only thing people care about.

b) The increase in the number of tickets sold will more than offset the loss in revenue per ticket.

c) Competitors will raise their prices.

d) Everyone loves going to events.

Correct Answer: b) The increase in the number of tickets sold will more than offset the loss in revenue per ticket.

Explanation:

For revenue (Price x Volume) to increase when Price decreases, Volume must increase sufficiently to compensate. If you negate this, the argument fails.

50. Which trap involves choosing an answer that is the exact opposite of what the argument actually assumes?

a) Out of Scope

b) Reversal / Opposite Trap

c) Irrelevant Comparison

d) Fact/Opinion Confusion

Correct Answer: b) Reversal / Opposite Trap

Explanation:

Test makers often include answers that state the exact opposite of the necessary assumption. Rushed test-takers see the right keywords and pick it without checking the logical direction.

51. What is the 'Variance Test' used for in GMAT Critical Reasoning?

a) To test assumptions.

b) To solve Evaluate the Argument questions by supplying opposite extreme answers (e.g., Yes/No) to the choices.

c) To calculate math averages in CR.

d) To weaken paradoxes.

Correct Answer: b) To solve Evaluate the Argument questions by supplying opposite extreme answers (e.g., Yes/No) to the choices.

Explanation:

By asking the question posed in the answer choice and answering it with extremes (e.g., 0% vs 100%), you can see if the variance affects the conclusion. If one extreme strengthens and the other weakens, it's the right answer.

52. In an Evaluate question, what does the word 'whether' signify in the answer choices?

a) It indicates a statement of absolute fact.

b) It introduces a variable or question that needs to be answered to judge the argument.

c) It shows that the author is confused.

d) It means the choice is automatically incorrect.

Correct Answer: b) It introduces a variable or question that needs to be answered to judge the argument.

Explanation:

Evaluate answer choices often start with 'Whether' (e.g., 'Whether the new policy will cost more than it saves'). The answer to this 'whether' dictates the argument's strength.

53. If applying the Variance Test (Yes/No) to an Evaluate answer choice results in the argument being strengthened both times, is it the correct answer?

a) Yes, because it supports the author.

b) No, a correct evaluate answer must strengthen the argument on one side of the variance and weaken it on the other.

c) Yes, it is a super-strengthener.

d) No, because evaluate questions only look for weaknesses.

Correct Answer: b) No, a correct evaluate answer must strengthen the argument on one side of the variance and weaken it on the other.

Explanation:

An evaluate question seeks the pivot point of the argument. If the answer doesn't change the outcome regardless of whether it is true or false, it is irrelevant.

54. What is the primary objective in a 'Resolve the Paradox' question?

a) To prove one of the contradictory statements false.

b) To find an answer choice that allows both seemingly contradictory facts to be true simultaneously.

c) To find the author's main conclusion.

d) To point out the logical flaw.

Correct Answer: b) To find an answer choice that allows both seemingly contradictory facts to be true simultaneously.

Explanation:

Paradox questions require you to accept both facts as true and find the missing piece of context that makes them logically compatible.

55. Which of the following is a common trap in Resolve the Paradox questions?

a) An answer that explains only one side of the paradox while ignoring or worsening the other.

b) An answer that introduces a third variable.

c) An answer that is stated in the past tense.

d) An answer that uses percentages.

Correct Answer: a) An answer that explains only one side of the paradox while ignoring or worsening the other.

Explanation:

A correct answer must act as a bridge between BOTH facts. Explaining why Fact A happened doesn't help if it deepens the mystery of why Fact B also happened.

56. Is it acceptable for a correct answer in a Paradox question to contradict one of the premises given in the prompt?

a) Yes, that is how you resolve the paradox.

b) No, you must accept all stated premises as factual and true.

c) Yes, but only if it contradicts the first sentence.

d) Only if the premise contains a statistic.

Correct Answer: b) No, you must accept all stated premises as factual and true.

Explanation:

In CR, premises are sacred. An answer choice that says 'Actually, the first fact is wrong' is always incorrect. You must reconcile the facts, not deny them.

57. What type of indicator words should you actively look for when reading a Paradox prompt?

a) Therefore, hence, thus

b) Because, since, given that

c) However, yet, surprisingly, despite

d) First, second, third

Correct Answer: c) However, yet, surprisingly, despite

Explanation:

These contrast words highlight the exact point of discrepancy or conflict that you will be asked to resolve.

58. A company sold 20% more items this year, but their total profit decreased. What would resolve this paradox?

a) The items were very popular.

b) The cost to manufacture and market each item increased by 40%.

c) A competitor went out of business.

d) The company hired a new CEO.

Correct Answer: b) The cost to manufacture and market each item increased by 40%.

Explanation:

Profit = Revenue - Costs. If volume (sales) went up but profit went down, an increase in costs perfectly reconciles the two facts.

59. In a Paradox question, why is an 'irrelevant comparison' a trap?

a) Because comparing two things always creates a flaw.

b) Because stating that 'A is faster than B' doesn't explain why A's speed actually dropped this year.

c) Because comparisons are only used in Inference questions.

d) Because it introduces math into a verbal question.

Correct Answer: b) Because stating that 'A is faster than B' doesn't explain why A's speed actually dropped this year.

Explanation:

Trap answers often compare the subject to a competitor or a different era in a way that doesn't address the specific internal discrepancy described in the prompt.

60. Which of the following describes the 'Deepening the Paradox' trap?

a) An answer that makes the mystery even more confusing by providing a fact that pushes the two sides further apart.

b) An answer that is too long to read quickly.

c) An answer that uses advanced vocabulary.

d) An answer that explains both sides perfectly.

Correct Answer: a) An answer that makes the mystery even more confusing by providing a fact that pushes the two sides further apart.

Explanation:

If sales are down despite a massive ad campaign, an answer saying 'The ad campaign was rated the best in history' deepens the paradox rather than resolving it.

61. What is the logical flaw known as 'Correlation vs. Causation'?

a) Assuming that because two events happen together, one must have caused the other.

b) Assuming that parts make up a whole.

c) Attacking the arguer instead of the argument.

d) Using a small sample size.

Correct Answer: a) Assuming that because two events happen together, one must have caused the other.

Explanation:

Just because X and Y occur simultaneously (correlation) does not logically prove that X causes Y. Y could cause X, or Z could cause both.

62. What is the 'Post Hoc Ergo Propter Hoc' flaw?

a) Assuming that because Event B happened after Event A, Event A caused Event B.

b) Assuming what is true for the whole is true for the parts.

c) Arguing in a circle.

d) Appealing to the popularity of an idea.

Correct Answer: a) Assuming that because Event B happened after Event A, Event A caused Event B.

Explanation:

Chronological sequence does not equal causation. The rooster crowing before the sunrise does not mean the rooster causes the sun to rise.

63. Describe the 'Circular Reasoning' flaw.

a) Using statistical circles and pie charts incorrectly.

b) The conclusion simply restates the premise in different words, providing no actual new evidence.

c) Arguing that an event will repeat in a cycle.

d) Comparing two things that are unrelated.

Correct Answer: b) The conclusion simply restates the premise in different words, providing no actual new evidence.

Explanation:

Also known as begging the question. Example: 'This law is just because it is a fair law.' It assumes the truth of what it is trying to prove.

64. What does an 'Ad Hominem' flaw entail?

a) Attacking a weak, exaggerated version of the opponent's argument.

b) Attacking the character, motive, or background of the person making the argument rather than the logic of the argument itself.

c) Appealing to a false authority.

d) Using Latin terms to confuse the reader.

Correct Answer: b) Attacking the character, motive, or background of the person making the argument rather than the logic of the argument itself.

Explanation:

Dismissing a health policy simply because the politician who proposed it is arrogant is an ad hominem fallacy. The character of the arguer does not invalidate the math/logic of the policy.

65. What is the 'Equivocation' flaw?

a) Treating two unequal numbers as equal.

b) Using the same word in two different senses or meanings within the same argument.

c) Giving equal time to two bad ideas.

d) Failing to answer the prompt.

Correct Answer: b) Using the same word in two different senses or meanings within the same argument.

Explanation:

For example, using the word 'light' to mean 'not heavy' in the premise, but concluding something about 'light' meaning 'bright colors'.

66. Explain the 'Part to Whole' flaw.

a) Assuming that because every part of a system has a certain characteristic, the whole system will inherently have that same characteristic.

b) Assuming that a whole pizza is better than a slice.

c) Assuming that a machine can be taken apart.

d) Focusing only on one part of a reading passage.

Correct Answer: a) Assuming that because every part of a system has a certain characteristic, the whole system will inherently have that same characteristic.

Explanation:

Just because every player on a basketball team is an 'all-star' (part) doesn't mean they will play well together as a cohesive 'team' (whole).

67. What is the 'Whole to Part' flaw?

a) Assuming that what is true of a whole group is necessarily true of every individual member of that group.

b) Destroying a whole argument by attacking one premise.

c) Assuming a whole cake costs more than its ingredients.

d) Generalizing from one instance.

Correct Answer: a) Assuming that what is true of a whole group is necessarily true of every individual member of that group.

Explanation:

If a corporation is highly profitable (whole), it is a flaw to assume that every single department within the corporation is profitable (part).

68. What is a 'False Dichotomy' (or False Dilemma)?

a) Telling a lie in the premise.

b) Unfairly presenting only two options or extremes as the only possible choices, ignoring other viable alternatives.

c) Confusing two similar words.

d) Dividing a paragraph into two sentences.

Correct Answer: b) Unfairly presenting only two options or extremes as the only possible choices, ignoring other viable alternatives.

Explanation:

An argument stating 'We must either raise taxes by 50% or the city will go bankrupt' ignores the possibilities of cutting spending or raising taxes by a smaller amount.

69. What is 'Survivorship Bias'?

a) Evaluating a situation by looking only at the subjects that 'survived' a process, while ignoring those that failed and were eliminated.

b) Assuming that survivors of a crash are lucky.

c) A bias against older arguments.

d) Believing that older companies are always better.

Correct Answer: a) Evaluating a situation by looking only at the subjects that 'survived' a process, while ignoring those that failed and were eliminated.

Explanation:

Concluding that 19th-century architecture was stronger because all surviving 19th-century buildings are strong ignores the thousands of weak buildings that already collapsed.

70. What is the core issue with the 'Percentages vs. Absolute Numbers' flaw?

a) Calculators are not allowed on the Verbal section.

b) An increase in a percentage does not guarantee an increase in an absolute number if the baseline totals (the pie) are different sizes.

c) Percentages cannot be compared.

d) Absolute numbers are always smaller than percentages.

Correct Answer: b) An increase in a percentage does not guarantee an increase in an absolute number if the baseline totals (the pie) are different sizes.

Explanation:

A 10% share of a $1 million market ($100k) is smaller than a 5% share of a $10 million market ($500k). Arguments confusing the two are deeply flawed.

71. What is 'Self-Selection Bias' in surveys?

a) When the surveyor fills out the survey themselves.

b) When a survey relies on individuals choosing to participate, which often only attracts those with strong or extreme opinions.

c) When a survey has too many questions.

d) When respondents lie.

Correct Answer: b) When a survey relies on individuals choosing to participate, which often only attracts those with strong or extreme opinions.

Explanation:

A voluntary internet poll about a controversial topic will mostly attract people with strong feelings, making it unrepresentative of the general, apathetic population.

72. What is the 'Ad Populum' (Appeal to Majority) flaw?

a) Arguing that because a belief is popular or held by many people, it must be true or correct.

b) Selling products to the masses.

c) Surveying a population.

d) Appealing to the government.

Correct Answer: a) Arguing that because a belief is popular or held by many people, it must be true or correct.

Explanation:

Truth is not determined by a majority vote. Millions of people once believed the Earth was flat, but that popularity did not make it factually true.

73. Describe the 'Straw Man' fallacy.

a) Building an argument out of weak premises.

b) Misrepresenting or exaggerating an opponent's argument to make it easier to attack and defeat.

c) Using a hypothetical scenario.

d) Attacking the person's clothing or appearance.

Correct Answer: b) Misrepresenting or exaggerating an opponent's argument to make it easier to attack and defeat.

Explanation:

If Person A says 'We should increase school funding', and Person B replies 'Person A wants to throw all our money away and bankrupt the town', Person B is attacking a straw man.

74. What is an 'Appeal to False Authority'?

a) Citing a known liar.

b) Relying on the endorsement of an expert in an unrelated field as definitive evidence for a conclusion.

c) Quoting a government official.

d) Disobeying the law.

Correct Answer: b) Relying on the endorsement of an expert in an unrelated field as definitive evidence for a conclusion.

Explanation:

Using a Nobel Prize-winning physicist's opinion to prove a point about macroeconomics is flawed because their expertise does not transfer to the unrelated topic.

75. What constitutes a 'False Analogy' (Apples to Oranges) flaw?

a) Comparing fruits in a math problem.

b) Comparing two situations or entities that have fundamental, relevant differences that invalidate the comparison.

c) Using metaphors in scientific writing.

d) Saying two identical things are different.

Correct Answer: b) Comparing two situations or entities that have fundamental, relevant differences that invalidate the comparison.

Explanation:

Arguing that 'Policy X worked in a small rural town, so it will work in a massive urban metropolis' ignores critical demographic and structural differences.

76. Explain the 'Time Shift' flaw.

a) Assuming time travel is possible.

b) Assuming that conditions in the past will remain exactly the same in the present or future.

c) Taking too long to answer a GMAT question.

d) Analyzing historical documents.

Correct Answer: b) Assuming that conditions in the past will remain exactly the same in the present or future.

Explanation:

Just because a marketing strategy worked flawlessly in 2005 does not guarantee it will work today; the argument assumes the market hasn't changed.

77. What is the flaw of 'Confusing Necessary and Sufficient Conditions'?

a) Thinking a requirement guarantees a result, or thinking a guarantee is the only way to get a result.

b) Not providing enough evidence.

c) Using too many words.

d) Confusing correlation with causation.

Correct Answer: a) Thinking a requirement guarantees a result, or thinking a guarantee is the only way to get a result.

Explanation:

Breathing is necessary to live, but it is not sufficient (you also need food). A flaw occurs if an argument assumes doing a necessary step guarantees success.

78. What happens when an argument 'ignores alternative explanations'?

a) It lists too many possibilities.

b) It leaps to one specific conclusion without considering that other factors could equally explain the evidence.

c) It uses unrepresentative data.

d) It attacks the arguer.

Correct Answer: b) It leaps to one specific conclusion without considering that other factors could equally explain the evidence.

Explanation:

If a student's grade improves and the author concludes it was due to a new textbook, they are ignoring alternatives like a new tutor, more study time, or an easier test.

79. What is 'Base Rate Neglect'?

a) Ignoring the interest rate in finance questions.

b) Focusing on specific, dramatic probability statistics while ignoring the underlying overall frequency (base rate) of the event.

c) Neglecting to read the premises.

d) Evaluating only the bottom half of a data set.

Correct Answer: b) Focusing on specific, dramatic probability statistics while ignoring the underlying overall frequency (base rate) of the event.

Explanation:

If a disease affects 1 in a million people, a test that is 99% accurate will still yield vastly more false positives than true positives because the base rate is so low.

80. What is the 'Sunk Cost Fallacy' as it relates to evaluating plans in CR?

a) Arguing that a project should continue solely because a lot of money/time has already been invested, despite evidence it will fail.

b) Assuming ships will sink.

c) Cutting costs to increase profits.

d) Ignoring past data.

Correct Answer: a) Arguing that a project should continue solely because a lot of money/time has already been invested, despite evidence it will fail.

Explanation:

Logically, future decisions should be based on future expected value, not on unrecoverable past expenses (sunk costs).

81. In an Inference question, what is the 'Must Be True' standard?

a) The answer must be factually true in the real world.

b) The answer must be a logical certainty derived entirely and exclusively from the provided premises.

c) The answer must summarize the main idea.

d) The answer must be the most popular opinion.

Correct Answer: b) The answer must be a logical certainty derived entirely and exclusively from the provided premises.

Explanation:

Inference answers leave no room for doubt. If the premises are true, the correct answer is mathematically/logically impossible to be false.

82. Why is outside information a trap in Inference questions?

a) Because you aren't allowed to use the internet during the test.

b) Because Inference questions test reading comprehension and logic based strictly on the given text, not your domain knowledge.

c) Because outside information is always factually wrong.

d) It is not a trap; you should use outside knowledge.

Correct Answer: b) Because Inference questions test reading comprehension and logic based strictly on the given text, not your domain knowledge.

Explanation:

Even if an answer choice states a well-known scientific fact, it is incorrect if it cannot be proven using ONLY the sentences in the prompt.

83. Can an Inference answer choice simply be a paraphrase of one of the premises?

a) No, it must combine all premises.

b) Yes, a correct inference can sometimes just restate a provided fact using different vocabulary.

c) No, that would be a main idea question.

d) Yes, but only if it reverses the meaning.

Correct Answer: b) Yes, a correct inference can sometimes just restate a provided fact using different vocabulary.

Explanation:

Since a paraphrase of a premise must be true if the premise is true, it perfectly satisfies the 'must be true' criteria of an Inference question.

84. If a prompt says 'Company A's average salary is higher than Company B's', what mathematical inference can be drawn?

a) Company A has more employees than Company B.

b) The highest paid employee works at Company A.

c) If both companies have the same number of employees, Company A's total payroll is larger.

d) Company A is more profitable.

Correct Answer: c) If both companies have the same number of employees, Company A's total payroll is larger.

Explanation:

Average = Total / Number. If the Average is higher, and the Number is equal, the Total must mathematically be higher.

85. Why is extreme language (e.g., 'always', 'all', 'never') usually a trap in Inference questions?

a) Because passages rarely provide the absolute proof necessary to support such sweeping 100% claims.

b) Because GMAT authors are moderate.

c) Because 'always' is a grammar error.

d) It is actually a sign of a correct answer.

Correct Answer: a) Because passages rarely provide the absolute proof necessary to support such sweeping 100% claims.

Explanation:

If a passage says 'Most dogs bark', you cannot infer that 'ALL dogs bark'. Extreme language requires extreme proof in the premises.

86. What is the 'Could Be True' trap in Inference questions?

a) An answer that is impossible.

b) An answer that is possible or highly likely based on the text, but not 100% definitively proven by it.

c) An answer that changes the timeline.

d) An answer that agrees with the author.

Correct Answer: b) An answer that is possible or highly likely based on the text, but not 100% definitively proven by it.

Explanation:

Inference requires certainty. A statement that has a 95% chance of being true is still a trap because it does not meet the 'must be true' standard.

87. What is the 'Real-World Truth' trap in Inference questions?

a) A false statement.

b) An answer choice that is undeniably true in real life, but not supported by the specific text in the passage.

c) An answer that talks about geography.

d) An answer that is too realistic.

Correct Answer: b) An answer choice that is undeniably true in real life, but not supported by the specific text in the passage.

Explanation:

For example, answering 'Water freezes at 0 degrees Celsius' might be factually true in reality, but if the passage only discusses boiling points, it's an invalid inference.

88. A common way to generate a correct Inference is to combine:

a) Two independent premises provided in the text to deduce a third unstated fact.

b) A premise and an outside fact.

c) The conclusion and the author's tone.

d) Two extreme answer choices.

Correct Answer: a) Two independent premises provided in the text to deduce a third unstated fact.

Explanation:

If Premise 1 is 'A > B' and Premise 2 is 'B > C', combining them yields the valid inference 'A > C'.

89. What is the primary difference between an Assumption and an Inference?

a) They are exactly the same.

b) An Assumption is an unstated premise needed to reach the conclusion; an Inference is an unstated conclusion derived strictly from the premises.

c) Assumptions are written down; inferences are not.

d) Inferences are used to weaken; assumptions are used to strengthen.

Correct Answer: b) An Assumption is an unstated premise needed to reach the conclusion; an Inference is an unstated conclusion derived strictly from the premises.

Explanation:

An assumption comes *before* the conclusion to support it. An inference comes *after* the premises as a guaranteed result.

90. When checking an Inference answer choice, you should ensure that its 'scope' is:

a) Broader than the passage.

b) Equal to or narrower than the scope of the provided premises.

c) Completely unrelated to the passage.

d) Focused entirely on the future.

Correct Answer: b) Equal to or narrower than the scope of the provided premises.

Explanation:

You cannot infer a broad rule ('All birds fly') from a narrow premise ('Eagles fly'). The scope of the answer must stay within the boundaries set by the text.

91. What is the primary task of a Boldface (Method of Reasoning) question?

a) To determine whether the bolded text is factually accurate.

b) To identify the structural and logical role the bolded portions play in the argument's architecture.

c) To find a weakness in the bolded text.

d) To correct the grammar of the argument.

Correct Answer: b) To identify the structural and logical role the bolded portions play in the argument's architecture.

Explanation:

These questions ask you to describe how the argument is built—for example, recognizing that the first boldface is a counter-premise and the second is the main conclusion.

92. What is the most crucial first step when tackling a Boldface question?

a) Reading the answer choices.

b) Identifying the author's main conclusion.

c) Looking for grammar errors.

d) Focusing only on the bolded words.

Correct Answer: b) Identifying the author's main conclusion.

Explanation:

You cannot determine the role of a bolded sentence until you know what the author is ultimately trying to prove (the main conclusion).

93. In Boldface terminology, what does 'Evidence' usually refer to?

a) The main conclusion.

b) A stated premise, fact, statistic, or finding.

c) An unstated assumption.

d) A logical flaw.

Correct Answer: b) A stated premise, fact, statistic, or finding.

Explanation:

Words like 'evidence', 'findings', 'data', and 'considerations' describe the premises that support a claim.

94. In Boldface terminology, what does 'Position' or 'Claim' usually refer to?

a) A raw statistic.

b) A conclusion, judgment, or opinion held by the author or someone else.

c) An undeniable fact.

d) The background context.

Correct Answer: b) A conclusion, judgment, or opinion held by the author or someone else.

Explanation:

'Position', 'claim', 'stance', and 'judgment' are words used to describe conclusions rather than hard factual evidence.

95. If two boldfaced portions are on OPPOSITE sides of the argument (e.g., one supports the author, one opposes), what should you look for in the answer choices?

a) Language indicating agreement (e.g., 'both support').

b) Language indicating contrast (e.g., 'the first opposes the main conclusion; the second is that conclusion').

c) Language indicating they are both evidence.

d) Language indicating they are irrelevant.

Correct Answer: b) Language indicating contrast (e.g., 'the first opposes the main conclusion; the second is that conclusion').

Explanation:

Identifying the relationship between the two boldfaces (agree vs. disagree) allows you to quickly eliminate answer choices that misrepresent their dynamic.

96. What is a common trap in Boldface questions regarding conclusions?

a) Misidentifying a premise as a fact.

b) Misidentifying an intermediate conclusion or an opponent's conclusion as the author's main conclusion.

c) Ignoring the bold text.

d) Reading the passage too slowly.

Correct Answer: b) Misidentifying an intermediate conclusion or an opponent's conclusion as the author's main conclusion.

Explanation:

Answer choices will try to trick you by saying 'the first is the main conclusion' when it is actually just an intermediate step or a critic's opinion.

97. Why is it highly recommended to 'Pre-think' the answer to a Boldface question?

a) Because the answer choices are written in dense, abstract language that can confuse you if you don't already have a grasp of the structure.

b) Because you can finish the question in 10 seconds.

c) Because the answer choices are always the same.

d) Because it allows you to skip reading the passage.

Correct Answer: a) Because the answer choices are written in dense, abstract language that can confuse you if you don't already have a grasp of the structure.

Explanation:

The options in Boldface questions are notoriously verbose and convoluted. Mapping the structure in your head first protects you from getting lost in the jargon.

98. What is the recommended average time to spend on a GMAT Critical Reasoning question?

a) 1 minute

b) 1.5 to 2 minutes

c) 3 minutes

d) 5 minutes

Correct Answer: b) 1.5 to 2 minutes

Explanation:

To maintain proper pacing on the Verbal section, you should aim to solve most CR questions within approximately 1 minute and 45 seconds to 2 minutes.

99. What is 'Process of Elimination' (POE) in GMAT CR?

a) Guessing 'C' when stuck.

b) Actively identifying and crossing out objectively wrong answers (e.g., out of scope, extreme language) to find the correct answer by default.

c) Eliminating the question and moving on.

d) Reading the passage multiple times.

Correct Answer: b) Actively identifying and crossing out objectively wrong answers (e.g., out of scope, extreme language) to find the correct answer by default.

Explanation:

Often, the correct answer is written in a confusing way, making it easier to find by eliminating the four definitively flawed trap answers.

100. Why should you read the question stem BEFORE reading the argument passage?

a) To save time by skipping the passage.

b) To know exactly what perspective (e.g., looking for a flaw vs. looking for an inference) to use while reading the text actively.

c) Because the question stem contains the answer.

d) To check if the grammar is correct.

Correct Answer: b) To know exactly what perspective (e.g., looking for a flaw vs. looking for an inference) to use while reading the text actively.

Explanation:

Knowing your task (Weaken, Assume, Infer, etc.) beforehand allows you to read actively, hunting for gaps or mapping logic right from the first read.

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1. In GMAT Critical Reasoning, what is the definition of a 'premise'?

2. What is a 'conclusion' in the context of a GMAT argument?

3. How is an 'assumption' defined in GMAT Critical Reasoning?

4. Which of the following words is most commonly used to signal a premise?

5. Which of the following words is a strong indicator of a conclusion?

6. What role does an 'Intermediate Conclusion' play in an argument?

7. What does the 'scope' of an argument refer to?

8. What comprises the 'core' of a GMAT argument?

9. What is the primary function of 'background information' in a Critical Reasoning prompt?

10. What is a 'counter-premise'?

11. Which question type asks you to find a piece of information that makes the author's conclusion less likely to be true?

12. Which question type asks you to identify a new piece of evidence that makes the conclusion more likely to be true?

13. If a question asks 'The argument depends on which of the following?', what is it asking for?

14. Which question type requires you to deduce a conclusion strictly from the provided facts without bringing in outside information?

15. A question asks you to 'explain the discrepancy'. What question type is this?

16. What is the primary goal of an 'Evaluate the Argument' question?

17. Which question type asks you to describe the logical error the author makes?

18. In a 'Boldface' question, what is your primary task?

19. How should you handle an 'EXCEPT' question (e.g., 'Each of the following weakens the argument EXCEPT')?

20. What is 'Pre-thinking' in GMAT Critical Reasoning?

21. What is the most effective way to weaken an argument on the GMAT?

22. If an argument claims that A caused B, which of the following is a classic way to weaken it?

23. What is 'Reverse Causation'?

24. How can you weaken an argument based on a survey or statistic?

25. When an argument uses an analogy (comparing X to Y), how do you weaken it?

26. When weakening a 'Plan' argument (Goal: achieve X by doing Y), what is a common correct answer?

27. What is the 'Time Shift' weakener?

28. Is extreme language (e.g., 'all', 'never') acceptable in a Weaken correct answer?

29. What is the 'True but Irrelevant' trap in Weaken questions?

30. An argument claims 'Company X will go bankrupt because its total debt increased by 10%.' What weakens this?

31. What is the most direct way to Strengthen an argument?

32. If an argument concludes that A causes B, how can you strengthen it?

33. Which of the following strengthens a causal claim (A causes B)?

34. How can you strengthen an argument based on an analogy?

35. To strengthen an argument based on a survey, the correct answer might:

36. When evaluating a plan to increase profits by raising prices, which fact strengthens the plan?

37. What is a common trap in Strengthen questions?

38. Why is an answer choice that simply restates a premise usually incorrect in a Strengthen question?

39. An argument claims a new fertilizer will increase crop yields. Which of the following strengthens this?

40. Which of the following is NOT a valid way to strengthen an argument?

41. In GMAT terminology, what is a 'Necessary Assumption'?

42. What is the 'Negation Test' (or Denial Test) used for?

43. How do you correctly negate the statement 'All cats are mammals' for the Negation Test?

44. How do you correctly negate the statement 'Some people like pizza'?

45. What is a 'Defender' assumption?

46. What is a 'Supporter' assumption?

47. If you apply the Negation Test to the correct answer of an Assumption question, what will happen?

48. Why is extreme language (e.g., 'always', 'only', 'never') often a trap in Assumption questions?

49. An argument assumes that lowering ticket prices will increase overall revenue. What is a necessary assumption?

50. Which trap involves choosing an answer that is the exact opposite of what the argument actually assumes?

51. What is the 'Variance Test' used for in GMAT Critical Reasoning?

52. In an Evaluate question, what does the word 'whether' signify in the answer choices?

53. If applying the Variance Test (Yes/No) to an Evaluate answer choice results in the argument being strengthened both times, is it the correct answer?

54. What is the primary objective in a 'Resolve the Paradox' question?

55. Which of the following is a common trap in Resolve the Paradox questions?

56. Is it acceptable for a correct answer in a Paradox question to contradict one of the premises given in the prompt?

57. What type of indicator words should you actively look for when reading a Paradox prompt?

58. A company sold 20% more items this year, but their total profit decreased. What would resolve this paradox?

59. In a Paradox question, why is an 'irrelevant comparison' a trap?

60. Which of the following describes the 'Deepening the Paradox' trap?

61. What is the logical flaw known as 'Correlation vs. Causation'?

62. What is the 'Post Hoc Ergo Propter Hoc' flaw?

63. Describe the 'Circular Reasoning' flaw.

64. What does an 'Ad Hominem' flaw entail?

65. What is the 'Equivocation' flaw?

66. Explain the 'Part to Whole' flaw.

67. What is the 'Whole to Part' flaw?

68. What is a 'False Dichotomy' (or False Dilemma)?

69. What is 'Survivorship Bias'?

70. What is the core issue with the 'Percentages vs. Absolute Numbers' flaw?

71. What is 'Self-Selection Bias' in surveys?

72. What is the 'Ad Populum' (Appeal to Majority) flaw?

73. Describe the 'Straw Man' fallacy.

74. What is an 'Appeal to False Authority'?

75. What constitutes a 'False Analogy' (Apples to Oranges) flaw?

76. Explain the 'Time Shift' flaw.

77. What is the flaw of 'Confusing Necessary and Sufficient Conditions'?

78. What happens when an argument 'ignores alternative explanations'?