The Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) conducts some of the largest competitive examinations globally to recruit personnel for Indian Railways across various cadres, including Non-Technical Popular Categories (NTPC), Assistant Loco Pilot (ALP), Junior Engineer (JE), and Level 1 (Group D) posts. These examinations typically feature multi-stage selection processes anchored by Computer-Based Tests (CBTs), physical efficiency tests (where applicable), and document verification. Understanding the unique exam weightages, sectional distribution for mathematics, reasoning, general science, and general awareness, as well as negative marking rules, is essential for aspirants targeting railway jobs.
1. What does the abbreviation RRB stand for in the context of Indian Railways?
Correct Answer: b) Railway Recruitment Board
Explanation:
RRB stands for Railway Recruitment Board, which is an organization under the Government of India that manages the appointment of new employees to work in Indian Railways.
2. Which ministry governs the Railway Recruitment Boards (RRBs) in India?
Correct Answer: c) Ministry of Railways
Explanation:
The RRBs function directly under the Ministry of Railways, Government of India.
3. How many Railway Recruitment Boards (RRBs) are currently functioning in India?
Correct Answer: c) 21
Explanation:
There are currently 21 Railway Recruitment Boards operating across different zones in India to conduct recruitment exams.
4. What was the previous name of the Railway Recruitment Board?
Correct Answer: a) Railway Service Commission
Explanation:
Originally known as the Railway Service Commission, it was later renamed to the Railway Recruitment Board (RRB).
5. In which year was the Railway Service Commission renamed to Railway Recruitment Board (RRB)?
Correct Answer: c) 1985
Explanation:
The Railway Service Commissions were renamed as Railway Recruitment Boards in the year 1985.
6. Which apex body coordinates and manages the functioning of all RRBs?
Correct Answer: a) Railway Recruitment Control Board (RRCB)
Explanation:
The Railway Recruitment Control Board (RRCB) was set up to formulate policies and coordinate the activities of all 21 RRBs.
7. In which year was the Railway Recruitment Control Board (RRCB) established?
Correct Answer: d) 1998
Explanation:
The Railway Recruitment Control Board (RRCB) was set up in 1998 in the Ministry of Railways (Railway Board), New Delhi.
8. Which of the following is NOT a recruitment exam conducted by RRB?
Correct Answer: d) SSC CGL
Explanation:
SSC CGL (Combined Graduate Level) is conducted by the Staff Selection Commission, whereas NTPC, ALP, and Group D are RRB exams.
9. What does 'NTPC' stand for in the context of RRB exams?
Correct Answer: b) Non-Technical Popular Categories
Explanation:
In RRB exams, NTPC stands for Non-Technical Popular Categories, which includes posts like Station Master, Ticket Clerk, etc.
10. What is the standard negative marking applied in RRB Computer Based Tests (CBTs) for incorrect answers?
Correct Answer: b) 1/3rd of the marks
Explanation:
RRB applies a penalty of 1/3rd of the allotted marks for every incorrect answer in its objective-type CBTs.
11. Which RRB exam is conducted to recruit candidates for the post of Station Master?
Correct Answer: c) RRB NTPC
Explanation:
The post of Station Master falls under the Non-Technical Popular Categories (NTPC) recruitment conducted by RRB.
12. What does ALP stand for in the RRB ALP exam?
Correct Answer: b) Assistant Loco Pilot
Explanation:
ALP stands for Assistant Loco Pilot, who assists the Loco Pilot in operating and driving the trains.
13. Which of the following bodies is responsible for conducting the Level-1 (Group D) recruitment for Indian Railways in recent years?
Correct Answer: a) RRB and RRC
Explanation:
While RRBs issue the notification and conduct CBTs, Railway Recruitment Cells (RRCs) often handle physical efficiency tests and final empanelment for Level-1 (Group D) posts.
14. What is the minimum educational qualification generally required for RRB Group D (Level 1) posts?
Correct Answer: c) 10th Pass (Matriculation) or ITI
Explanation:
The basic educational requirement for RRB Group D/Level 1 posts is generally 10th pass (Matriculation) or an ITI certification from a recognized institution.
15. What is the minimum age limit usually prescribed for RRB NTPC (Undergraduate level) posts?
Correct Answer: b) 18 years
Explanation:
The minimum age limit for most RRB exams, including undergraduate NTPC posts, is 18 years.
16. How many stages of Computer Based Tests (CBT) are typically there in the RRB NTPC selection process?
Correct Answer: b) Two
Explanation:
The RRB NTPC selection process primarily involves two stages of written exams: CBT 1 and CBT 2, followed by skill tests or document verification depending on the post.
17. Which of the following posts is NOT recruited through RRB NTPC?
Correct Answer: c) Junior Engineer
Explanation:
The Junior Engineer post is recruited through a separate exam called RRB JE, not through RRB NTPC.
18. In the RRB exams, what does 'CBT' stand for?
Correct Answer: a) Computer Based Test
Explanation:
CBT stands for Computer Based Test, which is the online mode used by RRB for conducting recruitment examinations.
19. Which statistical process does RRB use to adjust scores when exams are conducted in multiple shifts with varying difficulty levels?
Correct Answer: b) Normalization
Explanation:
RRB uses a Normalization process based on a statistical formula to ensure fairness across multiple shifts having different difficulty levels.
20. Which section is generally NOT a part of the RRB NTPC CBT 1 syllabus?
Correct Answer: d) English Language
Explanation:
Unlike banking or SSC exams, the English Language is typically not a subject in RRB NTPC and Group D CBTs. The focus is on Maths, Reasoning, and General Awareness.
21. For the post of Assistant Loco Pilot (ALP), what is the mandatory specific test conducted after CBT 1 and CBT 2?
Correct Answer: b) Computer Based Aptitude Test (CBAT)
Explanation:
Candidates applying for ALP must pass the Computer Based Aptitude Test (CBAT), often referred to as a psycho test, to assess their reflexes and mental fitness.
22. What is the physical test stage in RRB Group D known as?
Correct Answer: b) Physical Efficiency Test (PET)
Explanation:
After clearing the CBT for Group D (Level 1), candidates must qualify the Physical Efficiency Test (PET), which includes running and weight-carrying tasks.
23. In RRB Group D PET, male candidates are required to carry a specific weight for a certain distance. What is this weight?
Correct Answer: c) 35 kg
Explanation:
Male candidates in the RRB Group D PET are required to lift and carry a weight of 35 kg for a distance of 100 meters in 2 minutes without putting it down.
24. What weight are female candidates required to carry during the RRB Group D PET?
Correct Answer: b) 20 kg
Explanation:
Female candidates must carry a weight of 20 kg for 100 meters in 2 minutes without putting the weight down.
25. RRB Group D (Level 1) posts belong to which pay band of the 7th CPC (Central Pay Commission)?
Correct Answer: a) Level 1
Explanation:
RRB Group D posts are entry-level positions placed in Level 1 of the 7th Central Pay Commission (CPC) Pay Matrix.
26. What does RRB JE stand for?
Correct Answer: b) Junior Engineer
Explanation:
RRB JE stands for Junior Engineer. This exam recruits candidates with technical backgrounds (diploma/degree in engineering).
27. Which of the following qualifications is strictly required for the RRB Junior Engineer (JE) exam?
Correct Answer: c) Diploma or Degree in Engineering
Explanation:
The RRB JE is a technical post, and candidates must possess a relevant 3-year Diploma or a Degree (B.E./B.Tech) in Engineering.
28. What is the medical standard usually required for the post of Assistant Loco Pilot (ALP)?
Correct Answer: a) A-1
Explanation:
The ALP post requires the highest medical fitness category, A-1, ensuring perfect vision (6/6 without glasses) as the role directly involves train safety.
29. Which vision-related condition is an absolute disqualification for the RRB ALP post?
Correct Answer: b) Color Blindness
Explanation:
Candidates applying for the ALP post must pass a stringent color vision test; color blindness is an absolute disqualification for the A-1 medical category.
30. How many total questions are there in RRB NTPC CBT 1?
Correct Answer: b) 100
Explanation:
The CBT 1 exam for RRB NTPC consists of 100 questions (40 General Awareness, 30 Mathematics, 30 General Intelligence and Reasoning).
31. What is the total duration allotted for RRB NTPC CBT 1 for normal candidates?
Correct Answer: b) 90 minutes
Explanation:
Candidates are given 90 minutes (1.5 hours) to complete the 100 questions in RRB NTPC CBT 1.
32. In RRB NTPC CBT 2, how many questions are generally asked?
Correct Answer: b) 120
Explanation:
RRB NTPC CBT 2 consists of 120 questions (50 General Awareness, 35 Mathematics, 35 General Intelligence and Reasoning).
33. What is the duration of RRB NTPC CBT 2?
Correct Answer: a) 90 minutes
Explanation:
Like CBT 1, the total time allotted for RRB NTPC CBT 2 is also 90 minutes, but candidates must answer 120 questions instead of 100.
34. Which of the following RRB NTPC posts requires a Typing Skill Test (TST)?
Correct Answer: c) Junior Clerk cum Typist
Explanation:
Posts such as Junior Clerk cum Typist and Senior Clerk cum Typist require candidates to pass a Typing Skill Test (TST).
35. Which post in RRB NTPC requires a Computer Based Aptitude Test (CBAT)?
Correct Answer: a) Station Master
Explanation:
For the posts of Station Master and Traffic Assistant, candidates must clear a Computer Based Aptitude Test (CBAT) after CBT 2.
36. Does RRB conduct personal interviews for Group C (NTPC/ALP) and Group D posts?
Correct Answer: c) No, interviews were discontinued
Explanation:
The Government of India has discontinued personal interviews for lower-tier posts (Group C and Group D) to ensure transparency. Selection is purely based on CBT and skill/physical tests.
37. Which RRB exam caters to the recruitment of Staff Nurses, Pharmacists, and Health Inspectors?
Correct Answer: b) RRB Paramedical Categories
Explanation:
RRB conducts a separate recruitment drive for Paramedical Categories, which includes Staff Nurses, Pharmacists, Health and Malaria Inspectors, etc.
38. Under which category does the recruitment of Stenographers and Chief Law Assistants fall in RRB?
Correct Answer: b) Ministerial and Isolated Categories (MI)
Explanation:
Posts like Stenographer, Chief Law Assistant, and Junior Translator (Hindi) are recruited through the RRB Ministerial and Isolated Categories (MI) exam.
39. When candidates are selected by the RRB, who issues the final appointment letter?
Correct Answer: c) The concerned Zonal Railway/Production Unit
Explanation:
RRBs are recommending bodies. The final appointment letters are issued by the concerned Zonal Railways or Production Units after document verification and medical fitness tests.
40. Which of the following is an essential document phase after clearing all CBTs and skill tests in RRB?
Correct Answer: a) Document Verification (DV)
Explanation:
Document Verification (DV) is a mandatory final stage where candidates must present their original educational, caste, and identity certificates.
41. What is the full form of CEN, a term frequently seen in RRB notifications?
Correct Answer: a) Centralized Employment Notice
Explanation:
RRB issues official recruitment notifications under the title CEN, which stands for Centralized Employment Notice.
42. In the RRB ALP & Technician CBT 2, Part B of the exam is primarily meant for what?
Correct Answer: b) Qualifying test in the relevant trade/technical subject
Explanation:
Part B of the RRB ALP CBT 2 is a qualifying-in-nature test that evaluates a candidate's knowledge in their specific trade or technical subject (e.g., Electrician, Fitter).
43. What is the qualifying percentage required in Part B (Trade Test) of the RRB ALP CBT 2?
Correct Answer: b) 35%
Explanation:
A candidate must score a minimum of 35% in Part B of the RRB ALP CBT 2 to qualify, irrespective of their community category.
44. How many questions are asked in the General Science section of the RRB Group D CBT?
Correct Answer: c) 25
Explanation:
In the RRB Group D CBT pattern (100 questions total), 25 questions are specifically dedicated to General Science.
45. For RRB exams, under which act is the reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) provided?
Correct Answer: b) Constitution (103rd Amendment) Act
Explanation:
A 10% reservation for EWS candidates was implemented in RRB exams under the Constitution (103rd Amendment) Act, 2019.
46. What does PwBD stand for in RRB recruitment notifications?
Correct Answer: b) Persons with Benchmark Disabilities
Explanation:
PwBD stands for Persons with Benchmark Disabilities, a category eligible for specific reservations and age relaxations in RRB exams.
47. In RRB exams, what is the role of a 'Scribe'?
Correct Answer: b) A person who writes the exam on behalf of a visually impaired or eligible PwBD candidate
Explanation:
A scribe is a person permitted to read and enter answers on the computer for a candidate who is visually impaired or has physical limitations in writing.
48. Can a candidate apply to multiple RRBs for the same CEN (Centralized Employment Notice)?
Correct Answer: c) No, a candidate can apply to only one RRB for a given CEN
Explanation:
As per RRB rules, a candidate can submit only one application for a specific CEN, selecting only one RRB zone. Multiple applications lead to rejection.
49. Which of the following is considered a malpractice and leads to permanent debarment from all RRB exams?
Correct Answer: a) Applying from two different email IDs for the same notification
Explanation:
Submitting multiple applications for the same notification is strictly prohibited and can lead to the cancellation of the application and debarment from future RRB exams.
50. In RRB JE CBT 1, what is the total number of questions?
Correct Answer: a) 100
Explanation:
The RRB JE CBT 1 exam comprises 100 questions focused on Mathematics, General Intelligence & Reasoning, General Awareness, and General Science.
51. Does RRB JE CBT 1 have questions related to technical engineering subjects?
Correct Answer: c) No, CBT 1 is entirely non-technical (screening test)
Explanation:
RRB JE CBT 1 acts as a screening test and tests non-technical subjects only. Technical abilities are tested in CBT 2.
52. How many questions are there in RRB JE CBT 2?
Correct Answer: c) 150
Explanation:
RRB JE CBT 2 consists of 150 questions, with a significant portion (100 questions) dedicated to Technical Abilities based on the candidate's engineering branch.
53. In the context of the RRB JE syllabus, what does CMA stand for?
Correct Answer: b) Chemical and Metallurgical Assistant
Explanation:
The RRB JE recruitment also includes posts for CMA, which stands for Chemical and Metallurgical Assistant, requiring a B.Sc degree in specific subjects.
54. Which specific science subject is predominantly asked for the post of RRB JE (Information Technology)?
Correct Answer: c) Computer Fundamentals and IT
Explanation:
Candidates applying for RRB JE (IT) face technical questions specifically focused on Computer Fundamentals, Programming, and Information Technology.
55. According to RRB norms, what is the validity period of an RRB Empanelment list?
Correct Answer: b) 1 year
Explanation:
Generally, an RRB panel (list of selected candidates) is valid for one year from the date of its approval, though it can be extended by competent authorities under special circumstances.
56. In the RRB marking scheme, what happens to the score of an unattempted question?
Correct Answer: a) 0 marks are awarded
Explanation:
There is no penalty for unattempted questions in RRB exams; they yield 0 marks.
57. What is the typical minimum qualifying percentage for UR (Unreserved) candidates in most RRB CBTs?
Correct Answer: c) 40%
Explanation:
For Unreserved (UR) and EWS candidates, the minimum qualifying mark in CBTs is typically 40%.
58. What is the typical minimum qualifying percentage for OBC (Non-Creamy Layer) and SC candidates in RRB CBTs?
Correct Answer: b) 30%
Explanation:
OBC-NCL and SC candidates generally need a minimum of 30% marks to qualify in RRB CBTs.
59. What is the typical minimum qualifying percentage for ST candidates in RRB CBTs?
Correct Answer: b) 25%
Explanation:
ST candidates require a minimum of 25% marks to qualify in most RRB CBTs.
60. If two or more candidates secure the same normalized marks in an RRB exam, how is the tie typically resolved?
Correct Answer: c) By age (older candidate gets higher merit)
Explanation:
In RRB exams, if scores are tied, the older candidate is placed higher in the merit list. If age is also the same, alphabetical order of names (A to Z) is used.
61. Under RRB rules, can a candidate request to change their allotted RRB zone after the submission of the application?
Correct Answer: c) No, the chosen RRB zone cannot be changed under any circumstances
Explanation:
Once the application is finalized and submitted, RRB strictly prohibits any change in the chosen RRB zone.
62. Which official website acts as the central portal linking to all regional RRB websites?
Correct Answer: a) www.indianrailways.gov.in
Explanation:
The official website of the Ministry of Railways, www.indianrailways.gov.in, provides direct links to the official websites of all 21 regional RRBs.
63. Which of the following forms of identification is mandatory and commonly verified during RRB exams?
Correct Answer: a) Aadhaar Card
Explanation:
RRB heavily utilizes Aadhaar-based biometric authentication during CBTs to prevent impersonation, making it a highly recommended/mandatory ID.
64. What is 'B2' in the context of RRB notifications?
Correct Answer: b) A medical fitness standard category
Explanation:
B2 is one of the medical standards prescribed by RRB for specific technical and non-technical posts, focusing on specific visual and physical criteria.
65. In the context of Indian Railways recruitment, what does RRC stand for?
Correct Answer: b) Railway Recruitment Cell
Explanation:
RRC stands for Railway Recruitment Cell, which typically functions at the Zonal Railway level to conduct Group D (Level 1) recruitment and internal promotions.
66. Which section holds the maximum weightage (number of questions) in the RRB NTPC CBT 2 exam?
Correct Answer: c) General Awareness
Explanation:
In RRB NTPC CBT 2, General Awareness has the highest weightage with 50 questions, compared to 35 for Maths and 35 for Reasoning.
67. How many times can a candidate apply for an RRB exam under a specific CEN?
Correct Answer: a) Only once
Explanation:
A candidate is allowed to submit only one application form against a specific Centralized Employment Notice (CEN). Multiple applications will result in rejection.
68. Does the RRB refund the application fee to candidates?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, a partial refund is given only to candidates who actually appear for the CBT 1 exam
Explanation:
To curb absenteeism, RRB refunds a portion of the application fee (after deducting bank charges) directly to the bank accounts of candidates who actually sit for CBT 1.
69. What is the typical application fee for UR and OBC-NCL male candidates in recent RRB exams?
Correct Answer: c) Rs. 500
Explanation:
In recent RRB exams, the application fee for UR and OBC male candidates is typically Rs. 500, out of which Rs. 400 is refunded if they appear for the exam.
70. What is the application fee for SC/ST/Ex-Servicemen/Female/Minority/EBC candidates in recent RRB exams?
Correct Answer: b) Rs. 250
Explanation:
Candidates belonging to SC, ST, Female, Ex-Servicemen, and Economically Backward Classes pay a fee of Rs. 250, which is fully refunded if they appear for CBT 1.
71. What does EBC stand for in the context of RRB fee concessions?
Correct Answer: a) Economically Backward Class
Explanation:
EBC stands for Economically Backward Class. Candidates whose family income is less than Rs. 50,000 per annum qualify for a fee concession under this category.
72. Is EBC (Economically Backward Class) the same as EWS (Economically Weaker Section) in RRB exams?
Correct Answer: b) No, EBC is for fee concession only, while EWS is for a 10% seat reservation
Explanation:
EBC (income < 50k) is strictly used to provide a reduction in the exam fee. EWS (income < 8 Lakhs) is a constitutional category that provides a 10% reservation in jobs.
73. Which of the following items is strictly prohibited inside the RRB CBT exam hall?
Correct Answer: c) Mobile Phones and Electronic Gadgets
Explanation:
Mobile phones, calculators, Bluetooth devices, and any other electronic gadgets are strictly banned inside RRB examination halls.
74. What is the typical duration of an RRB CBT exam for a PwBD candidate utilizing a scribe?
Correct Answer: c) 120 minutes (an extra 30 minutes)
Explanation:
Eligible PwBD candidates accompanied by a scribe are generally provided compensatory time of 20 minutes per hour, making a 90-minute exam 120 minutes long.
75. If a candidate is selected in RRB NTPC for two different levels (e.g., Level 2 and Level 6), how is the final posting decided?
Correct Answer: c) Based on merit, medical fitness, and order of preference provided during the application
Explanation:
Final empanelment is strictly determined by the candidate's merit rank, their medical fitness for the post, and the post preference they locked in during the application phase.
76. Can candidates wear shoes during RRB Group D PET (Physical Efficiency Test)?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, candidates are advised to wear sports shoes
Explanation:
Candidates are strongly advised to wear comfortable sports shoes during the Physical Efficiency Test (PET) to avoid injuries during the running tasks.
77. What is the running requirement for male candidates in RRB Group D PET?
Correct Answer: a) 1000 meters in 4 minutes 15 seconds
Explanation:
Male candidates must complete a 1000-meter run in 4 minutes and 15 seconds in a single chance during the RRB Group D PET.
78. What is the running requirement for female candidates in RRB Group D PET?
Correct Answer: b) 1000 meters in 5 minutes 40 seconds
Explanation:
Female candidates must run 1000 meters in 5 minutes and 40 seconds in a single chance.
79. Which of the following topics is a core component of the 'Mathematics' section in RRB exams?
Correct Answer: b) BODMAS, Decimals, Fractions
Explanation:
BODMAS, Decimals, Fractions, LCM, HCF, Ratio and Proportion, and Percentages form the core syllabus of the Mathematics section in RRB exams.
80. Which of the following topics belongs to the 'General Intelligence and Reasoning' section in RRB exams?
Correct Answer: c) Syllogism and Venn Diagrams
Explanation:
Syllogism, Venn Diagrams, Coding-Decoding, and Blood Relations are standard topics in the General Intelligence and Reasoning section.
81. The 'General Science' syllabus in RRB Group D CBT is generally based on the curriculum of which educational standard?
Correct Answer: b) 10th Standard level (CBSE)
Explanation:
The official notification states that the General Science syllabus will cover Physics, Chemistry, and Life Sciences of 10th standard level (CBSE).
82. Under what circumstance does an RRB candidate's application get rejected regarding the photograph?
Correct Answer: b) If the candidate is wearing spectacles with glare or dark glasses in the photo
Explanation:
Applications are frequently rejected if the uploaded photograph has the candidate wearing dark glasses, caps, or if there is glare on regular spectacles, obscuring the eyes.
83. What is the penalty for copying, communicating, or using unfair means in an RRB CBT?
Correct Answer: c) Cancellation of candidature and debarment from future exams
Explanation:
Using unfair means leads to immediate cancellation of the candidate's exam and permanent debarment from all future RRB and RRC examinations.
84. If a candidate brings a banned item (like a mobile phone) to the RRB exam center, what action is taken?
Correct Answer: c) The candidate is debarred from the exam and future RRB exams
Explanation:
Possession of banned electronic devices inside the exam hall, even if switched off, is grounds for immediate disqualification and debarment.
85. What is 'CBT 1' primarily used for in the RRB NTPC selection process?
Correct Answer: b) Screening of candidates for CBT 2
Explanation:
CBT 1 is qualifying/screening in nature. The marks scored in CBT 1 are used to shortlist candidates for CBT 2, but are not added to the final merit list.
86. Generally, how many times the number of vacancies are candidates shortlisted for RRB NTPC CBT 2?
Correct Answer: d) 20 times
Explanation:
RRB typically shortlists candidates for CBT 2 at the rate of 20 times the number of vacancies for the respective posts.
87. Generally, how many times the number of vacancies are candidates shortlisted for RRB Group D PET (Physical Efficiency Test)?
Correct Answer: b) 3 times
Explanation:
Candidates are usually called for the PET at the rate of 3 times the total number of notified vacancies.
88. How are marks from CBT 2 and CBAT combined for the final merit of RRB Station Master?
Correct Answer: c) 70% CBT 2 marks and 30% CBAT marks
Explanation:
For the post of Station Master, the final merit list is drawn by giving 70% weightage to the marks obtained in CBT 2 and 30% weightage to the CBAT marks.
89. In the context of the RRB Typing Skill Test, what is the nature of the test?
Correct Answer: b) It is purely qualifying in nature
Explanation:
The Typing Skill Test is only qualifying in nature. Candidates must pass it, but its marks are not added to the final merit score.
90. What is the minimum typing speed required in English for the RRB Typing Skill Test?
Correct Answer: c) 30 words per minute
Explanation:
Candidates typing in English must achieve a minimum speed of 30 words per minute (WPM) without editing tools or spell check facilities.
91. What is the minimum typing speed required in Hindi for the RRB Typing Skill Test?
Correct Answer: b) 25 words per minute
Explanation:
If a candidate chooses to take the typing test in Hindi, the minimum required speed is 25 words per minute (WPM), usually typed in Kruti Dev or Mangal font.
92. Is the use of spell-check or autocorrect allowed during the RRB Typing Skill Test?
Correct Answer: b) No, all editing tools and spell-check facilities are disabled
Explanation:
To accurately measure raw typing ability, editing tools and spell-check facilities are strictly disabled on the computer.
93. Which of the following describes 'Standby Candidates' in RRB exams?
Correct Answer: b) Candidates kept in an extra panel to fill vacancies if selected candidates do not join
Explanation:
RRBs often declare an extra 50% candidates as 'Standby' (or waiting list) beyond the actual vacancies to ensure posts are filled if main candidates drop out or fail medicals.
94. For the Medical Examination stage in RRB recruitment, who bears the travel and stay expenses?
Correct Answer: c) The Candidate
Explanation:
Candidates must bear all expenses regarding their travel and stay during the Document Verification and Medical Examination phases, which may take a few days.
95. What happens if a candidate fails the medical standard required for their primary opted post but clears the standard for a lower preference post?
Correct Answer: b) They are offered the lower preference post, provided they meet its merit cutoff
Explanation:
If a candidate is medically unfit for their first preference but fit for another opted post, they can be considered for the alternative post if their score clears its specific merit cutoff.
96. What happens if a candidate clears the RRB CBT but does not attend the Document Verification (DV)?
Correct Answer: b) Their candidature is canceled
Explanation:
Attendance at Document Verification is mandatory. Absence without valid prior approval leads to the cancellation of the candidate's selection.
97. Is the RRB admit card sent to the candidates via postal mail?
Correct Answer: c) No, it must be downloaded online from the official RRB website
Explanation:
RRB no longer sends physical admit cards via post. E-call letters must be downloaded from the official RRB websites using login credentials.
98. What does an RRB candidate receive on their registered mobile number and email ID before the exam?
Correct Answer: b) An SMS and Email alert regarding their exam city and date intimation
Explanation:
RRB proactively sends SMS and email alerts to candidates to inform them of their exam date, shift, and city, typically 10 days before the exam.
99. At the RRB CBT exam center, what part of the admit card is usually retained by the invigilator?
Correct Answer: b) RRB's foil (bottom portion)
Explanation:
The E-call letter is divided into two parts. The lower portion (RRB's foil) is signed by the candidate in front of the invigilator and retained at the center.
100. Why is it crucial for a candidate to safely keep the 'Candidate's foil' of the admit card after CBT 1?
Correct Answer: b) It must be presented during Document Verification (DV)
Explanation:
Candidates must retain their half of the admit card (Candidate's foil) carefully, as presenting it during Document Verification is a mandatory requirement.
101. Does RRB provide free train travel passes for exams?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, but only for SC/ST candidates
Explanation:
RRB provides a Free Sleeper Class Railway Pass integrated into the e-call letter exclusively for SC and ST candidates to travel to the exam center.
102. Can an RRB application be submitted offline via post?
Correct Answer: c) No, only online applications are accepted
Explanation:
RRBs have fully digitized the application process. No physical or offline applications are accepted under any circumstances.
103. What is the format of the questions asked in all RRB Computer Based Tests?
Correct Answer: b) Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Explanation:
All RRB CBTs exclusively feature objective-type Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs), usually with 4 options.
104. What is the typical age relaxation provided to OBC (Non-Creamy Layer) candidates in RRB exams?
Correct Answer: b) 3 years
Explanation:
As per Indian Government norms, candidates belonging to the OBC (Non-Creamy Layer) category receive an upper age relaxation of 3 years.
105. What is the typical age relaxation provided to SC/ST candidates in RRB exams?
Correct Answer: b) 5 years
Explanation:
Candidates belonging to the Scheduled Caste (SC) and Scheduled Tribe (ST) categories receive an upper age relaxation of 5 years.
106. What is the typical age relaxation provided to PwBD (Unreserved) candidates in RRB exams?
Correct Answer: b) 10 years
Explanation:
Persons with Benchmark Disabilities (PwBD) belonging to the Unreserved (UR) category receive an age relaxation of 10 years. (OBC gets 13, SC/ST gets 15).
107. Which of the following is a post under RRB NTPC (Graduate Level)?
Correct Answer: b) Commercial Apprentice
Explanation:
Commercial Apprentice is a Graduate-level post under the RRB NTPC category. Junior Clerk and Trains Clerk are Undergraduate-level posts.
108. The post of 'Goods Guard' in RRB NTPC has been renamed to what?
Correct Answer: b) Train Manager
Explanation:
Indian Railways recently changed the designation of 'Goods Guard' to 'Train Manager' to reflect the dignity and responsibilities of the role.
109. A candidate clears CBT 1, CBT 2, and DV for RRB NTPC but is found medically unfit for the preferred post of Station Master. What happens next?
Correct Answer: c) They are considered for other opted posts like Good Guard or Clerk if they meet those medical standards and cutoffs
Explanation:
Candidates medically unfit for one post are considered for their alternate preferences provided they clear the respective cutoffs and medical standards of those posts.
110. Which body sets the medical standards (A-1, B-1, C-1, etc.) for railway recruitment?
Correct Answer: c) Railway Medical Manual
Explanation:
The medical standards are strictly governed by the guidelines laid out in the Indian Railway Medical Manual (IRMM).
111. What is the primary visual requirement for the 'A-2' medical standard in RRB exams?
Correct Answer: a) 6/9, 6/9 without glasses
Explanation:
The A-2 medical standard requires distant vision to be 6/9, 6/9 without glasses. Posts like Station Master and Train Manager require A-2 fitness.
112. Are candidates with Lasik surgery eligible for A-1, A-2, or A-3 medical categories in RRB?
Correct Answer: c) No, Lasik surgery is strictly disqualified for A-1, A-2, and A-3
Explanation:
Candidates who have undergone Lasik or any refractive surgery are deemed unfit for posts requiring A-1, A-2, and A-3 medical standards (like ALP, Station Master, Guards).
113. If a candidate creates a disturbance or misbehaves during an RRB exam, what action can the Board take?
Correct Answer: c) Handing over to police, cancellation of exam, and debarment
Explanation:
Misbehavior, creating disturbances, or using unfair means can lead to criminal prosecution (police action) and permanent debarment from RRB exams.
114. Can a candidate apply for both RRB NTPC Undergraduate and Graduate level posts in the same notification (if eligible)?
Correct Answer: c) Yes, a single application allows preference for all eligible levels
Explanation:
A graduate candidate can apply for both undergraduate and graduate-level posts by indicating their preferences in a single online application form.
115. What is a 'Normalization Formula' used by RRB primarily meant to account for?
Correct Answer: b) Differences in the difficulty level of question papers across multiple shifts
Explanation:
Because exams happen over many days and shifts, normalization ensures that candidates who got a difficult paper are evaluated fairly compared to those who got an easy one.
116. What is the primary role of the RRB 'Grievance Redressal Mechanism' or helpdesk?
Correct Answer: b) To help candidates resolve technical issues with application or admit card downloads
Explanation:
RRBs set up official helpdesks (phone/email) during recruitment drives to assist candidates with queries related to form submission, fee payment, and admit cards.
117. In which format are RRB exam answer keys released for candidates?
Correct Answer: a) As an online objection tracker where candidates can see their responses and the correct answers
Explanation:
After the CBT, RRB releases the question paper, candidate responses, and correct answer key online. Candidates can raise objections against incorrect keys for a fee.
118. If a candidate raises an objection against an answer key in the RRB portal and the objection is found valid, what happens to the fee paid?
Correct Answer: c) It is refunded to the candidate's bank account
Explanation:
If the candidate's objection is found to be correct by the expert panel, the fee paid for raising the objection is refunded to them.
119. In the RRB NTPC exam, the post of 'Traffic Assistant' corresponds to which pay level?
Correct Answer: c) Level 4
Explanation:
Under the 7th CPC, the post of Traffic Assistant is placed in Pay Level 4.
120. The 'Commercial Apprentice' post is placed in which pay level in RRB NTPC?
Correct Answer: d) Level 6
Explanation:
Commercial Apprentice, being one of the highest non-technical posts recruited through RRB NTPC, sits at Pay Level 6 alongside Station Master.
121. Which of the following describes the role of a 'Track Maintainer Grade IV' (RRB Group D)?
Correct Answer: c) Inspecting, maintaining, and repairing railway tracks to ensure safety
Explanation:
Track Maintainers work on the ground physically inspecting and repairing tracks to ensure trains run safely without derailments.
