The “People, Development, and Environment” unit is a vital, high-scoring component of Paper 1 in the University Grants Commission National Eligibility Test (UGC NET). It evaluates a candidate’s understanding of human-environment interactions, sustainable development milestones, global climate agreements, pollution types and their health effects, renewable energy resources, and environmental protection legislation. A thorough grasp of international protocols like the Paris Agreement, Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), and statutory environmental acts is crucial for clearing the exam. Practicing structured multiple-choice questions helps aspirants build the analytical precision required for competitive examination success.
1. What are the primary pillars of sustainable development as outlined in international frameworks?
Correct Answer: b) Economic development, social inclusion, and environmental protection
Explanation:
Sustainable development integrates three core pillars: economic growth, social inclusion, and environmental protection to meet current needs without compromising future generations.
2. When was the Paris Agreement on climate change officially adopted?
Correct Answer: c) 2015
Explanation:
The Paris Agreement was adopted at COP21 in Paris in December 2015, aiming to limit global warming to well below 2 degrees Celsius.
3. What is the primary objective of the Montreal Protocol?
Correct Answer: b) Phasing out substances that deplete the ozone layer
Explanation:
The Montreal Protocol (1987) is a landmark international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production of ozone-depleting substances like CFCs.
4. Which greenhouse gas has the highest relative global warming potential (GWP) over a 100-year timescale among common trace gases?
Correct Answer: c) Nitrous oxide (N2O)
Explanation:
Nitrous oxide has a global warming potential approximately 273 times higher than carbon dioxide over a 100-year period, making it a potent greenhouse gas.
5. What does the Kyoto Protocol primarily regulate?
Correct Answer: b) Binding emission reduction targets for industrialized nations regarding greenhouse gases
Explanation:
The Kyoto Protocol operationalized the UNFCCC by committing industrialized countries to limit and reduce greenhouse gas emissions.
6. What are Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) succeeded by?
Correct Answer: a) Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)
Explanation:
The 8 MDGs (2000-2015) were succeeded by the 17 comprehensive Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) for the 2030 agenda.
7. How many Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were established by the United Nations in 2015?
Correct Answer: c) 17
Explanation:
The 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development features 17 interconnected SDGs addressing global challenges.
8. Which pollutant gas is primarily responsible for forming photochemical smog and causing respiratory irritation?
Correct Answer: b) Nitrogen dioxide (NO2)
Explanation:
Nitrogen oxides react with volatile organic compounds in sunlight to produce ground-level ozone and photochemical smog.
9. What is 'Biological Oxygen Demand' (BOD) used as an indicator for?
Correct Answer: b) The amount of dissolved oxygen needed by aerobic biological organisms to break down organic material present in water
Explanation:
Higher BOD levels indicate greater organic pollution and lower available dissolved oxygen in aquatic ecosystems.
10. What is Eutrophication in aquatic bodies caused by?
Correct Answer: a) Excessive nutrient enrichment (nitrogen and phosphorus) leading to algal blooms and oxygen depletion
Explanation:
Runoff containing fertilizers enriches water bodies with nitrates and phosphates, triggering rapid algal growth and subsequent dead zones.
11. Which of the following is classified as a secondary air pollutant?
Correct Answer: c) Ground-level Ozone (O3)
Explanation:
Secondary pollutants like ozone are not emitted directly but form via chemical reactions between primary pollutants in the atmosphere.
12. What does PM2.5 refer to in air quality monitoring?
Correct Answer: a) Particulate matter with a diameter of 2.5 micrometers or less
Explanation:
PM2.5 fine particles penetrate deep into human lungs and enter the bloodstream, posing severe health hazards.
13. Which international agreement established the framework for climate change negotiations and the Conference of the Parties (COP)?
Correct Answer: a) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
Explanation:
The UNFCCC (1992) sets the overarching international treaty framework for intergovernmental efforts to address climate change.
14. What is the primary objective of the Ramsar Convention?
Correct Answer: a) Protection and sustainable wise use of wetlands of international importance
Explanation:
The Ramsar Convention (1971) is an international treaty focusing on the conservation and wise use of wetland habitats.
15. What does the Basel Convention regulate?
Correct Answer: a) Transboundary movements of hazardous wastes and their disposal
Explanation:
The Basel Convention restricts the movement of hazardous wastes between nations, particularly preventing dumping in developing countries.
16. What is biomagnification (biological amplification)?
Correct Answer: a) The increase in concentration of toxic substances in organisms at higher trophic levels of a food chain
Explanation:
Biomagnification occurs when persistent pollutants accumulate and magnify in concentration as they move up trophic levels.
17. Which renewable energy source harnesses heat trapped beneath the Earth's crust?
Correct Answer: b) Geothermal energy
Explanation:
Geothermal energy exploits thermal energy stored beneath the Earth's surface for electricity generation and heating.
18. What is the primary greenhouse gas emitted through human activities such as fossil fuel combustion and deforestation?
Correct Answer: b) Carbon dioxide (CO2)
Explanation:
Carbon dioxide is the primary anthropogenic greenhouse gas driving global climate change.
19. What is the main purpose of India's National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC)?
Correct Answer: a) To outline domestic policy measures for sustainable development and climate mitigation/adaptation across core national missions
Explanation:
NAPCC comprises core national missions addressing solar energy, enhanced energy efficiency, sustainable habitat, water, and Himalayan ecosystems.
20. What does 'Biochemical Oxygen Demand' (BOD) measure in polluted water bodies?
Correct Answer: a) Oxygen consumed by bacteria and microorganisms while decomposing organic matter
Explanation:
BOD measures the biological oxygen consumption required to breakdown organic pollutants in water.
21. Which layer of the Earth's atmosphere contains the ozone layer that absorbs harmful ultraviolet-B radiation?
Correct Answer: b) Stratosphere
Explanation:
The stratosphere houses the ozone layer (ozonosphere), absorbing solar UV radiation and shielding life on Earth.
22. What causes acid rain primarily?
Correct Answer: a) Emissions of sulfur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides (NOx) reacting with atmospheric moisture
Explanation:
Industrial SO2 and NOx emissions form sulfuric and nitric acids when dissolved in atmospheric precipitation, resulting in acid rain.
23. What is the primary goal of the Stockholm Convention?
Correct Answer: a) Eliminating or restricting the production and use of Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)
Explanation:
The Stockholm Convention (2001) protects human health and the environment from POPs that persist and bioaccumulate.
24. What is the objective of the Minamata Convention on Mercury?
Correct Answer: a) Protecting human health and the environment from anthropogenic emissions and releases of mercury and mercury compounds
Explanation:
The Minamata Convention addresses global pollution linked to mercury exposure and poisoning.
25. What does 'Albedo' refer to in Earth science and climate studies?
Correct Answer: a) The reflectivity of a surface, measuring how much solar radiation is reflected back into space
Explanation:
High-albedo surfaces (like ice and snow) reflect high percentages of solar radiation, whereas dark surfaces absorb it.
26. Which of the following disasters is classified as a geophysical hazard?
Correct Answer: a) Earthquakes and volcanic eruptions
Explanation:
Geophysical hazards originate from internal earth processes, including earthquakes, tsunamis, and volcanic activity.
27. What is the primary cause of cultural eutrophication in freshwater lakes?
Correct Answer: a) Nutrient runoff from agricultural fertilizers and untreated sewage discharge
Explanation:
Anthropogenic nutrient runoff accelerates eutrophication, choking water bodies with excessive plant and algal growth.
28. What is the greenhouse effect?
Correct Answer: a) The trapping of thermal infrared radiation by atmospheric gases, warming the Earth's surface
Explanation:
Greenhouse gases absorb and re-emit infrared radiation, maintaining Earth's habitable temperature range.
29. Which international solar alliance was initiated by India and France to promote solar energy deployment?
Correct Answer: a) International Solar Alliance (ISA)
Explanation:
The ISA was launched at COP21 in Paris with its secretariat headquartered in Gurugram, India, promoting solar energy.
30. What is the main purpose of an Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)?
Correct Answer: a) To evaluate the potential environmental, social, and economic consequences of a proposed development project prior to decision-making
Explanation:
EIA is a planning and decision-making tool ensuring environmental considerations are integrated into project design.
31. What is the primary source of groundwater contamination by arsenic in parts of India and Bangladesh?
Correct Answer: a) Natural geological leaching from mineral-rich alluvial sediments
Explanation:
Arsenic contamination in groundwater is primarily geogenic, resulting from arsenic-bearing minerals leaching into aquifers.
32. What causes Fluorosis, a debilitating health condition affecting teeth and bones?
Correct Answer: a) Excessive ingestion of fluoride through contaminated drinking water or food
Explanation:
Prolonged consumption of groundwater with high fluoride concentrations leads to dental and skeletal fluorosis.
33. What does National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) regulate in India?
Correct Answer: a) Permissible concentration limits of major air pollutants over specific time intervals
Explanation:
NAAQS sets legal standards for ambient pollutant concentrations to protect public health and ecosystems.
34. Which act in India serves as the umbrella legislation for the protection and improvement of the environment?
Correct Answer: a) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
Explanation:
Enacted in the wake of the Bhopal disaster, the EPA 1986 empowers the central government to coordinate environmental protection nationwide.
35. When was the Wildlife Protection Act enacted in India?
Correct Answer: a) 1972
Explanation:
The Wildlife Protection Act of 1972 provides a legal framework for protecting wild animals, birds, and plant species and establishing protected areas.
36. What is the primary objective of Project Tiger launched in India in 1973?
Correct Answer: a) Ensuring a viable population of Bengal tigers in their natural habitats and protecting them from extinction
Explanation:
Project Tiger is a centrally sponsored tiger conservation program ensuring the preservation of tiger reserves across India.
37. What is the objective of Project Elephant launched in India in 1992?
Correct Answer: a) Protecting elephants, their habitats, and migratory corridors, and addressing human-elephant conflict
Explanation:
Project Elephant provides financial and technical support to states for wild elephant conservation.
38. What is the main focus of the National Solar Mission under NAPCC?
Correct Answer: a) Promoting solar energy development and grid integration to establish India as a global solar leader
Explanation:
The National Solar Mission aims to accelerate solar technology adoption, manufacturing, and capacity installation across India.
39. What does biomedical waste management rules mandate regarding hospital waste?
Correct Answer: a) Segregation of infectious and hazardous medical waste into color-coded bags and containers prior to safe disposal or incineration
Explanation:
Biomedical waste rules require rigorous segregation using color-coded streams (yellow, red, white, blue) to prevent contamination.
40. What is electronic waste (e-waste)?
Correct Answer: a) Discarded electrical or electronic devices and appliances
Explanation:
E-waste comprises obsolete electronic equipment containing hazardous toxins like lead, mercury, and cadmium.
41. What is solid waste management hierarchy priority order?
Correct Answer: a) Reduce, Reduce, Reuse, Recycle, Recovery, Disposal
Explanation:
The waste management hierarchy prioritizes waste minimization at source, followed by reuse, recycling, energy recovery, and safe disposal.
42. What is municipal solid waste (MSW)?
Correct Answer: a) Everyday garbage and refuse collected from residential, commercial, and institutional establishments
Explanation:
MSW includes everyday consumer waste generated by households, offices, and small businesses in urban areas.
43. What is the primary cause of nuclear disasters like Chernobyl and Fukushima?
Correct Answer: a) Loss of reactor cooling systems leading to core overheating and radioactive releases
Explanation:
Failures in cooling mechanisms trigger core meltdowns and dangerous emissions of radioactive isotopes.
44. What is indoor air pollution primarily caused by in rural developing households?
Correct Answer: a) Burning solid biomass fuels (wood, crop residue, dung) in traditional unventilated cookstoves
Explanation:
Traditional biomass combustion in inefficient stoves releases high levels of particulate matter and carbon monoxide indoors.
45. What is the primary objective of the Paris Agreement's 'Nationally Determined Contributions' (NDCs)?
Correct Answer: a) Voluntary national climate action plans detailing emission reduction targets and adaptation strategies
Explanation:
Under the Paris Agreement, countries submit NDCs outlining their domestic greenhouse gas reduction and climate adaptation commitments.
46. What is 'Net-Zero emissions' target commitment?
Correct Answer: a) Achieving an overall balance between greenhouse gas emissions produced and greenhouse gas emissions removed from the atmosphere
Explanation:
Net-zero means anthropogenic emissions are balanced by carbon removal methods such as afforestation and carbon capture technologies.
47. Which of the following is considered a non-point source of water pollution?
Correct Answer: a) Agricultural runoff from widespread farmlands
Explanation:
Non-point source pollution comes from diffuse, hard-to-trace origins like agricultural runoff, unlike discrete point-source pipes.
48. What is a point source of water pollution?
Correct Answer: a) A single, identifiable, localized source of pollution such as an industrial discharge pipe
Explanation:
Point sources discharge pollutants directly into water bodies from distinct, traceable outlets like pipes or ditches.
49. What is the primary objective of the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) launched in India?
Correct Answer: a) To reduce particulate matter (PM2.5 and PM10) concentrations by 20-30% across targeted Indian cities
Explanation:
NCAP is a comprehensive national strategy to tackle urban air pollution through city-specific clean air action plans.
50. What is the significance of the 1992 Rio Earth Conference (UNCED)?
Correct Answer: a) It mainstreamed sustainable development globally, adopting Agenda 21, the UNFCCC, and the Convention on Biological Diversity
Explanation:
The Rio Earth Summit (1992) was a milestone global conference shaping modern environmental governance and biodiversity conventions.
51. What is Agenda 21 adopted at the Rio Earth Summit?
Correct Answer: a) A non-binding comprehensive action plan of action for sustainable development to be executed globally, nationally, and locally
Explanation:
Agenda 21 is a comprehensive blueprint of action for sustainable development into the 21st century.
52. What is the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) focused on?
Correct Answer: a) Conservation of biological diversity, sustainable use of its components, and fair sharing of genetic resources
Explanation:
The CBD is an international treaty dedicated to preserving global biodiversity and ecological resilience.
53. What is the primary objective of the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety?
Correct Answer: a) Ensuring safe transfer, handling, and use of Living Modified Organisms (LMOs) resulting from modern biotechnology
Explanation:
The Cartagena Protocol governs the transboundary movement of genetically modified organisms to protect biological diversity.
54. What does the Nagoya Protocol on Access and Benefit-Sharing regulate?
Correct Answer: a) Fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources
Explanation:
The Nagoya Protocol ensures providers of genetic resources share fairly in the commercial and scientific benefits derived from them.
55. What is soil erosion primarily accelerated by in tropical agricultural regions?
Correct Answer: a) Deforestation, overgrazing, intensive tilling, and heavy rainfall runoffs
Explanation:
Unsustainable land-use practices strip protective vegetation, exposing topsoil to rapid wind and water erosion.
56. What is desertification?
Correct Answer: a) The degradation of land in arid, semi-arid, and dry sub-humid areas resulting from various factors including climatic variations and human activities
Explanation:
Desertification transforms fertile drylands into desert expanses due to climate pressures and unsustainable land exploitation.
57. What is the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) focused on?
Correct Answer: a) Mitigating the effects of desertification and drought through national action programs and international cooperation
Explanation:
UNCCD is the sole legally binding international agreement linking environment and development to sustainable land management.
58. Which of the following energy sources is considered non-renewable?
Correct Answer: a) Coal, petroleum, natural gas, and nuclear uranium
Explanation:
Fossil fuels and uranium exist in finite geological reserves and cannot be replenished on a human timescale, rendering them non-renewable.
59. What is the primary advantage of wind energy over conventional coal power generation?
Correct Answer: a) It produces electricity without direct greenhouse gas emissions or toxic air pollutants during operation
Explanation:
Wind power is a clean, renewable energy source emitting zero operational greenhouse gases.
60. What is tidal energy harnessed from?
Correct Answer: a) Natural kinetic and potential energy generated by oceanic tidal movements driven by gravitational forces of the moon and sun
Explanation:
Tidal power captures energy from predictable, massive volumes of water moving during ebb and flow cycles.
61. What is biomass energy derived from?
Correct Answer: a) Organic materials such as plant matter, agricultural residues, wood, and animal waste used for fuel or power generation
Explanation:
Biomass utilizes recently living organic materials as renewable fuel sources.
62. What is the primary cause of thermal pollution in aquatic ecosystems?
Correct Answer: a) Discharge of heated wastewater from industrial plants and power station cooling systems into rivers and lakes
Explanation:
Thermal pollution lowers dissolved oxygen levels in water bodies, stressing aquatic organisms and disrupting ecosystems.
63. What is noise pollution measured in?
Correct Answer: a) Decibels (dB)
Explanation:
Sound intensity and noise pollution levels are quantified using the decibel logarithmic scale.
64. What is the recommended safe ambient noise level in residential areas during daytime according to central pollution standards in India?
Correct Answer: a) 55 dB
Explanation:
India's ambient air quality standards for noise specify a daytime limit of 55 dB and nighttime limit of 45 dB for residential zones.
65. What is the primary environmental impact of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) released into the atmosphere?
Correct Answer: a) Catalytic destruction of ozone molecules in the stratosphere
Explanation:
CFC molecules break down under UV radiation releasing chlorine atoms that catalytically destroy ozone molecules.
66. What is an ecological footprint?
Correct Answer: a) A measure of human demand on Earth's ecosystems, comparing human consumption with Earth's ecological capacity to regenerate
Explanation:
Ecological footprint accounts for the biologically productive land and water area needed to produce resources consumed and absorb wastes.
67. What is sustainable consumption?
Correct Answer: a) The use of services and related products which respond to basic needs and bring a better quality of life while minimizing the use of natural resources and toxic materials
Explanation:
Sustainable consumption promotes resource efficiency, waste reduction, and ethical product lifecycles.
68. Which of the following is a key target under SDG 7 (Affordable and Clean Energy)?
Correct Answer: a) Ensuring universal access to affordable, reliable, sustainable, and modern energy services
Explanation:
SDG 7 focuses on expanding clean energy access, increasing renewable energy shares, and improving global energy efficiency.
69. What is the core focus of SDG 13 (Climate Action)?
Correct Answer: a) Taking urgent action to combat climate change and its impacts through mitigation and adaptation policies
Explanation:
SDG 13 mandates strengthening resilience and adaptive capacity to climate-related hazards worldwide.
70. What does SDG 6 focus on?
Correct Answer: a) Ensure availability and sustainable management of water and sanitation for all
Explanation:
SDG 6 addresses universal access to safe drinking water, sanitation, and hygiene, alongside improved water resource management.
71. What is the objective of SDG 14 (Life Below Water)?
Correct Answer: a) Conserving and sustainably using the oceans, seas, and marine resources for sustainable development
Explanation:
SDG 14 targets marine pollution prevention, ocean acidification reduction, and sustainable fisheries management.
72. What is the objective of SDG 15 (Life on Land)?
Correct Answer: a) Protecting, restoring, and promoting sustainable use of terrestrial ecosystems, halting deforestation, and reversing land degradation
Explanation:
SDG 15 focuses on terrestrial biodiversity protection, halting desertification, and stopping biodiversity loss.
73. What is the primary purpose of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) in India?
Correct Answer: a) Laying down policies, plans, and guidelines for disaster management and coordinating disaster response nationally
Explanation:
NDMA is the apex statutory body mandated to spearhead a holistic, proactive disaster management strategy in India.
74. Which act in India established the legal framework for disaster management, leading to the creation of NDMA and SDMAs?
Correct Answer: a) Disaster Management Act, 2005
Explanation:
The Disaster Management Act of 2005 provides the legal institutional framework at national, state, and district levels for disaster response.
75. What is a natural disaster?
Correct Answer: a) A catastrophic event resulting from natural geological or meteorological processes causing severe loss of life and property
Explanation:
Natural disasters stem from extreme natural phenomena such as earthquakes, floods, cyclones, and droughts.
76. What is a man-made (anthropogenic) disaster?
Correct Answer: a) A catastrophic event caused by human negligence, technological failure, or malicious intent (e.g., industrial spills, nuclear accidents)
Explanation:
Anthropogenic disasters arise from human activities and technological failures rather than natural earth processes.
77. What is vulnerability in the context of disaster management?
Correct Answer: a) The characteristics and circumstances of a community or system that make it susceptible to the damaging effects of a hazard
Explanation:
Vulnerability determines a population's resilience and susceptibility when confronted with natural or man-made hazards.
78. What is disaster mitigation?
Correct Answer: a) The minimization of the severity of potential disasters through structural and non-structural preventive measures
Explanation:
Mitigation involves proactive measures taken prior to a disaster to reduce its potential adverse impacts.
79. What is disaster preparedness?
Correct Answer: a) Knowledge and capacities developed by governments, professional response organizations, and communities to anticipate and respond effectively to disasters
Explanation:
Preparedness encompasses training, early warning systems, evacuation drills, and resource stockpiling before emergencies.
80. What is the primary role of the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)?
Correct Answer: a) Providing policymakers with regular objective scientific assessments regarding climate change, its risks, and adaptation options
Explanation:
The IPCC evaluates peer-reviewed scientific literature to deliver comprehensive assessments on climate change science.
81. What is the primary objective of studying People, Development, and Environment for UGC NET Paper 1 aspirants?
Correct Answer: a) Developing critical awareness of environmental issues, sustainable policies, and human-environment interactions vital for academic and research excellence
Explanation:
Mastering this unit ensures candidates understand global environmental frameworks and sustainable development paradigms tested in competitive exams.
