Indian Polity is a foundational pillar of the General Studies syllabus in major competitive exams like UPSC, SSC, and State PSCs. It encompasses the study of the Indian Constitution, which is the supreme law of India, adopted on November 26, 1949, and effective from January 26, 1950. Key areas of study include the constitutional framework, fundamental rights (Articles 12-35), directive principles, the parliamentary system of government, and an independent judiciary. A strong grasp of the distribution of powers between the Union and States, as well as the roles of constitutional bodies like the Election Commission and Finance Commission, is critical for candidates. Mastering these concepts through objective questions enhances analytical skills and accuracy for high-stakes examinations.
1. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
Correct Answer: c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Explanation:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee, which was responsible for preparing the draft of the Indian Constitution.
2. Which Act introduced dyarchy at the provincial level in India?
Correct Answer: b) Government of India Act, 1919
Explanation:
The Government of India Act, 1919 (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms) introduced dyarchy, dividing provincial subjects into reserved and transferred categories.
3. The concept of 'Single Citizenship' in the Indian Constitution is borrowed from which country?
Correct Answer: c) United Kingdom
Explanation:
India adopted the parliamentary system and single citizenship from the British Constitution (United Kingdom).
4. How much time did it take to frame the Constitution of India?
Correct Answer: a) 2 years, 11 months, 18 days
Explanation:
The Constituent Assembly took exactly 2 years, 11 months, and 18 days to finalize the Constitution of India.
5. When was the Constitution of India adopted by the Constituent Assembly?
Correct Answer: c) November 26, 1949
Explanation:
The Constitution of India was adopted on November 26, 1949, and it came into full force on January 26, 1950.
6. Who moved the 'Objective Resolution' in the Constituent Assembly?
Correct Answer: b) Jawaharlal Nehru
Explanation:
Jawaharlal Nehru moved the historic Objective Resolution on December 13, 1946, which later formed the basis of the Preamble.
7. Which of the following words was NOT added to the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976?
Correct Answer: d) Republic
Explanation:
The word 'Republic' was in the original Preamble. The 42nd Amendment added 'Socialist', 'Secular', and 'Integrity'.
8. How many Schedules were there in the original Constitution of India?
Correct Answer: a) 8
Explanation:
The original Constitution contained 395 Articles divided into 22 Parts and 8 Schedules. Currently, there are 12 Schedules.
9. Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the Anti-Defection Law?
Correct Answer: c) Tenth Schedule
Explanation:
The Tenth Schedule, added by the 52nd Amendment Act (1985), contains provisions regarding disqualification on grounds of defection.
10. The concurrent list in the Indian Constitution was adopted from:
Correct Answer: b) Australia
Explanation:
The concept of the Concurrent List and freedom of trade and commerce were adopted from the Australian Constitution.
11. In which Part of the Indian Constitution are Fundamental Rights enshrined?
Correct Answer: b) Part III
Explanation:
Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution, from Articles 12 to 35.
12. Which Article of the Constitution abolishes 'Untouchability'?
Correct Answer: c) Article 17
Explanation:
Article 17 of the Indian Constitution abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form.
13. Right to Property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights by which Amendment?
Correct Answer: b) 44th Amendment
Explanation:
The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 deleted the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights and made it a legal right under Article 300A.
14. Which Article provides the Right to Education?
Correct Answer: b) Article 21A
Explanation:
Article 21A, added by the 86th Amendment in 2002, provides free and compulsory education to all children aged 6 to 14 years.
15. Which writ is issued by a court commanding a public official to perform their official duties?
Correct Answer: b) Mandamus
Explanation:
Mandamus literally means 'we command'. It is issued to direct a public authority to perform its legal duties.
16. The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are borrowed from which country?
Correct Answer: c) Ireland
Explanation:
The framers borrowed the concept of DPSP from the Irish Constitution, which in turn copied it from the Spanish Constitution.
17. Which Article directs the State to secure a Uniform Civil Code?
Correct Answer: c) Article 44
Explanation:
Article 44 of the Constitution directs the State to endeavor to secure a Uniform Civil Code for citizens throughout India.
18. Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution on the recommendation of which committee?
Correct Answer: b) Swaran Singh Committee
Explanation:
The Swaran Singh Committee recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties, leading to the 42nd Amendment Act in 1976.
19. How many Fundamental Duties are presently in the Indian Constitution?
Correct Answer: b) 11
Explanation:
Initially, 10 duties were added in 1976. The 11th duty (regarding education) was added by the 86th Amendment Act in 2002.
20. Which part of the Constitution deals with Fundamental Duties?
Correct Answer: c) Part IVA
Explanation:
Part IVA, consisting of a single Article 51A, deals with the Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens.
21. Who is the executive head of the Union of India?
Correct Answer: b) President
Explanation:
According to Article 53, the executive power of the Union is vested in the President of India.
22. What is the minimum age required to contest for the post of President of India?
Correct Answer: c) 35 years
Explanation:
Article 58 prescribes that a candidate must have completed 35 years of age to be eligible for election as President.
23. Which Article provides for the impeachment of the President?
Correct Answer: a) Article 61
Explanation:
Article 61 lays down the procedure for the impeachment of the President for 'violation of the Constitution'.
24. The power of the President to grant pardons is enshrined in which Article?
Correct Answer: b) Article 72
Explanation:
Article 72 grants the President the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment.
25. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
Correct Answer: b) Vice-President
Explanation:
Under Article 64, the Vice-President of India acts as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
26. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to:
Correct Answer: c) The Lok Sabha
Explanation:
According to Article 75(3), the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
27. Who appoints the Attorney General of India?
Correct Answer: c) President
Explanation:
The Attorney General for India is appointed by the President under Article 76.
28. What is the maximum strength of the Lok Sabha as per the Constitution?
Correct Answer: b) 550
Explanation:
After the 104th Amendment abolished the 2 Anglo-Indian seats, the maximum sanctioned strength of the Lok Sabha is 550.
29. What is the minimum age to become a member of the Lok Sabha?
Correct Answer: b) 25 years
Explanation:
A person must be at least 25 years old to be chosen as a member of the Lok Sabha.
30. How many members of the Rajya Sabha are nominated by the President?
Correct Answer: c) 12
Explanation:
The President nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha from among persons having special knowledge in literature, science, art, or social service.
31. What is the normal term of a member of the Rajya Sabha?
Correct Answer: c) 6 years
Explanation:
The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body, but one-third of its members retire every second year, giving each member a term of 6 years.
32. Who decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not?
Correct Answer: d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Explanation:
Article 110 states that if any question arises whether a bill is a Money Bill, the decision of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha thereon shall be final.
33. Who presides over the joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament?
Correct Answer: c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Explanation:
A joint sitting of Parliament, summoned by the President, is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
34. The Annual Financial Statement (Budget) is presented under which Article?
Correct Answer: b) Article 112
Explanation:
Article 112 of the Constitution mandates the presentation of the 'Annual Financial Statement' (commonly called the Budget) before Parliament.
35. Which Article gives the President the power to promulgate ordinances?
Correct Answer: a) Article 123
Explanation:
Article 123 empowers the President to promulgate ordinances when Parliament is not in session.
36. Who appoints the Chief Justice of India?
Correct Answer: c) President
Explanation:
The President of India appoints the Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court under Article 124.
37. What is the retirement age for a judge of the Supreme Court?
Correct Answer: c) 65 years
Explanation:
A judge of the Supreme Court holds office until attaining the age of 65 years.
38. The Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is covered under which Article?
Correct Answer: b) Article 131
Explanation:
Article 131 provides for the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in matters of disputes between the Centre and States.
39. Which Article allows the President to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court?
Correct Answer: d) Article 143
Explanation:
Article 143 grants the President the power to consult the Supreme Court on questions of law or fact of public importance.
40. Who is the Constitutional Head of a State in India?
Correct Answer: b) Governor
Explanation:
The Governor is the constitutional/executive head of a State, similar to the President at the Union level.
41. What is the minimum age required to be appointed as the Governor of a State?
Correct Answer: c) 35 years
Explanation:
Article 157 sets the minimum age requirement for the appointment as a Governor at 35 years.
42. Which Article grants the Governor the power to grant pardons?
Correct Answer: b) Article 161
Explanation:
Article 161 grants the Governor of a State the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment.
43. The power to create or abolish a State Legislative Council rests with:
Correct Answer: c) The Parliament
Explanation:
Under Article 169, Parliament can create or abolish a Legislative Council if the State Legislative Assembly passes a resolution to that effect.
44. What is the retirement age for a judge of a High Court?
Correct Answer: b) 62 years
Explanation:
A judge of a High Court holds office until attaining the age of 62 years.
45. Which Article provides for the establishment of a High Court for two or more states?
Correct Answer: c) Article 231
Explanation:
Article 231 empowers Parliament to establish a common High Court for two or more States or for two or more States and a Union Territory.
46. Which Constitutional Amendment introduced the Panchayati Raj system?
Correct Answer: b) 73rd Amendment
Explanation:
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj institutions.
47. Which Schedule was added to the Constitution by the 73rd Amendment?
Correct Answer: c) Eleventh Schedule
Explanation:
The Eleventh Schedule was added by the 73rd Amendment and contains 29 functional items of the Panchayats.
48. The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act is related to:
Correct Answer: b) Municipalities
Explanation:
The 74th Amendment Act of 1992 gave constitutional recognition to Municipalities (urban local government).
49. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India?
Correct Answer: c) President
Explanation:
Under Article 324, the President of India appoints the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners.
50. What is the tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner?
Correct Answer: b) 6 years or up to age 65
Explanation:
The Chief Election Commissioner holds office for a term of 6 years or until the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
51. The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is appointed under which Article?
Correct Answer: a) Article 148
Explanation:
Article 148 provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
52. Who acts as the 'guardian of the public purse' in India?
Correct Answer: c) Comptroller and Auditor General
Explanation:
The CAG audits all receipts and expenditure of the Government of India and the state governments, acting as the guardian of the public purse.
53. Which Article provides for the establishment of the Finance Commission?
Correct Answer: b) Article 280
Explanation:
Article 280 of the Constitution lays down the provision for the constitution of a Finance Commission every five years.
54. The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) submits its annual report to:
Correct Answer: c) President
Explanation:
Under Article 323, the UPSC submits an annual report of its work to the President, who then places it before both Houses of Parliament.
55. Which Article established the National Commission for Scheduled Castes?
Correct Answer: a) Article 338
Explanation:
Article 338 provides for a National Commission for the Scheduled Castes to monitor safeguards provided for them.
56. Article 352 of the Indian Constitution deals with:
Correct Answer: b) National Emergency
Explanation:
Article 352 empowers the President to declare a National Emergency due to war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
57. Under which Article can the President's Rule be imposed in a State?
Correct Answer: b) Article 356
Explanation:
Article 356 allows the imposition of President's Rule in a State if the constitutional machinery of the state has failed.
58. How many times has a Financial Emergency (Article 360) been declared in India?
Correct Answer: d) Never
Explanation:
Financial Emergency under Article 360 has never been declared in the history of independent India.
59. Which Article deals with the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution?
Correct Answer: c) Article 368
Explanation:
Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution deals with the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure.
60. Which Amendment Act is known as the 'Mini Constitution'?
Correct Answer: b) 42nd Amendment
Explanation:
The 42nd Amendment Act (1976) is known as the Mini Constitution due to the extensive changes it made to the Constitution.
61. The voting age was reduced from 21 to 18 years by which Constitutional Amendment?
Correct Answer: a) 61st Amendment
Explanation:
The 61st Amendment Act of 1988 reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years for the Lok Sabha and assembly elections.
62. Which Constitutional Amendment introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST)?
Correct Answer: c) 101st Amendment
Explanation:
The 101st Amendment Act (2016) introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India.
63. Which Constitutional Amendment provided a 10% quota for the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS)?
Correct Answer: c) 103rd Amendment
Explanation:
The 103rd Amendment Act (2019) introduced a 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections in educational institutions and public employment.
64. The 104th Amendment Act relates to:
Correct Answer: c) Extension of SC/ST reservation in legislatures
Explanation:
The 104th Amendment extended the reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha and state assemblies for another 10 years, while abolishing Anglo-Indian nominations.
65. The institution of Lokpal and Lokayukta was first recommended by which committee/commission?
Correct Answer: b) First Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC)
Explanation:
The First ARC (1966-70) recommended the setting up of two special authorities designated as Lokpal and Lokayukta to address citizen grievances.
66. Who was the first Chief Information Commissioner of India?
Correct Answer: a) Wajahat Habibullah
Explanation:
Wajahat Habibullah served as the first Chief Information Commissioner of India after the RTI Act came into force in 2005.
67. The Right to Information (RTI) Act came into force in which year?
Correct Answer: b) 2005
Explanation:
The Right to Information Act, mandating timely response to citizen requests for government information, came into force on October 12, 2005.
68. In the Indian Constitution, the idea of a 'Welfare State' is predominantly found in:
Correct Answer: c) Directive Principles of State Policy
Explanation:
The DPSP outlined in Part IV embody the concept of a welfare state, promoting social and economic democracy.
69. The Sarkaria Commission was appointed to examine:
Correct Answer: b) Centre-State relations
Explanation:
The Sarkaria Commission was set up in 1983 by the central government to examine the relationship and power balance between the Centre and the States.
70. Which of the following is an extra-constitutional body?
Correct Answer: c) NITI Aayog
Explanation:
NITI Aayog is a non-constitutional and non-statutory body created by an executive resolution of the Union Cabinet.
71. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of the NITI Aayog?
Correct Answer: c) Prime Minister
Explanation:
The Prime Minister of India serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the NITI Aayog.
72. Zonal Councils are:
Correct Answer: b) Statutory bodies
Explanation:
Zonal Councils are statutory bodies established under the States Reorganisation Act of 1956.
73. Which body is responsible for conducting elections to Panchayats and Municipalities?
Correct Answer: b) State Election Commission
Explanation:
Under Article 243K and 243ZA, the superintendence, direction, and control of local body elections are vested in the State Election Commission.
74. The Interstate Council was established under which Article?
Correct Answer: b) Article 263
Explanation:
Article 263 empowers the President to establish an Inter-State Council to facilitate coordination between states and the centre.
75. Which language is NOT included in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution?
Correct Answer: c) English
Explanation:
English is not included in the 22 recognized languages of the Eighth Schedule, though it serves as an official working language.
76. The Supreme Court of India consists of the Chief Justice and how many other judges (as of latest sanctioned strength)?
Correct Answer: c) 33
Explanation:
The current maximum sanctioned strength of the Supreme Court is 34 (1 Chief Justice + 33 other judges).
77. Who administers the oath of office to the President of India?
Correct Answer: b) Chief Justice of India
Explanation:
According to Article 60, the Chief Justice of India (or in his absence, the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court) administers the oath to the President.
78. Which of the following describes India as a Secular State?
Correct Answer: d) Preamble to the Constitution
Explanation:
The word 'Secular' was explicitly added to the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment, firmly describing India as a secular state.
79. Under which Article are special provisions provided for the State of Jammu and Kashmir (before abrogation)?
Correct Answer: b) Article 370
Explanation:
Article 370 formerly granted special autonomous status to Jammu and Kashmir, which was effectively nullified in August 2019.
80. In the event of a vacancy in the offices of both President and Vice-President, who acts as the President?
Correct Answer: b) Chief Justice of India
Explanation:
The President (Discharge of Functions) Act, 1969 states that the Chief Justice of India acts as President if both the President and Vice-President offices are vacant.
81. Who was the first woman judge of the Supreme Court of India?
Correct Answer: c) Fathima Beevi
Explanation:
Justice M. Fathima Beevi became the first female judge to be appointed to the Supreme Court of India in 1989.
82. The concept of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) originated in:
Correct Answer: d) United States
Explanation:
The concept of PIL originated and developed in the USA in the 1960s before being adapted in India.
83. Who introduced the concept of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India?
Correct Answer: a) Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer and Justice P.N. Bhagwati
Explanation:
Justices V.R. Krishna Iyer and P.N. Bhagwati pioneered the PIL movement in India to provide access to justice for marginalized groups.
84. Which constitutional article defines the State?
Correct Answer: a) Article 12
Explanation:
Article 12 defines the term 'State' for the purposes of Part III (Fundamental Rights) of the Constitution.
85. A resolution for the removal of the Vice-President can be introduced in:
Correct Answer: b) Rajya Sabha only
Explanation:
According to Article 67(b), a resolution to remove the Vice-President can only be introduced in the Rajya Sabha.
86. The system of Judicial Review originated in:
Correct Answer: c) USA
Explanation:
The doctrine of judicial review originated and developed in the USA, notably established in the Marbury v. Madison case (1803).
87. Which of the following schedules allocates seats in the Rajya Sabha?
Correct Answer: c) Fourth Schedule
Explanation:
The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and union territories.
88. The members of the State Public Service Commission are appointed by:
Correct Answer: b) Governor
Explanation:
Under Article 316, the Chairman and other members of a State Public Service Commission are appointed by the Governor of the State.
89. The term of members of the State Public Service Commission is:
Correct Answer: b) 6 years or up to 62 years of age
Explanation:
A member of a State Public Service Commission holds office for a term of 6 years or until the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier.
90. Panchayati Raj belongs to which list?
Correct Answer: b) State List
Explanation:
Local government, including Panchayati Raj, falls under the State List (List II) in the Seventh Schedule.
91. Which committee was formed to determine the poverty line in India?
Correct Answer: a) Tendulkar Committee
Explanation:
The Suresh Tendulkar Committee was established to look into the methodology for the estimation of poverty in India.
92. How many times can the President of India seek re-election to their post?
Correct Answer: d) Any number of times
Explanation:
Article 57 states that a person who holds, or who has held, office as President is eligible for re-election to that office any number of times.
93. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right?
Correct Answer: b) Right to Property
Explanation:
The Right to Property ceased to be a Fundamental Right after the 44th Amendment in 1978 and is now a legal right.
94. Article 1 of the Constitution declares India as:
Correct Answer: d) Union of States
Explanation:
Article 1(1) states: 'India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.'
95. Who can declare a Financial Emergency?
Correct Answer: d) President
Explanation:
The President is empowered by Article 360 to declare a Financial Emergency.
96. Which of the following Articles cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency?
Correct Answer: c) Articles 20 and 21
Explanation:
Following the 44th Amendment Act, the fundamental rights guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended during an emergency.
97. The quorum required to hold a meeting of the Lok Sabha is:
Correct Answer: b) One-tenth of the total membership
Explanation:
Article 100(3) sets the quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament at one-tenth of the total number of members of the House.
98. EVM (Electronic Voting Machine) was first used in which state?
Correct Answer: a) Kerala
Explanation:
EVMs were first used in 1982 in the by-election to Parur Assembly Constituency of Kerala.
99. Who is the supreme commander of the Indian Armed Forces?
Correct Answer: c) President
Explanation:
Article 53(2) declares that the supreme command of the Defence Forces of the Union is vested in the President.
