The International English Language Testing System (IELTS) evaluates and reports English proficiency using a non-biased, standardized nine-band scale ranging from 0 (Did not attempt the test) to 9 (Expert user). Each of the four core sections Listening, Reading, Writing, and Speaking receives an individual band score, which are then averaged and rounded to the nearest half-band to determine the final overall score. Understanding how raw scores convert to bands and what specific descriptors examiners look for in performance criteria is essential for candidates targeting specific university, migration, or professional registration requirements.
1. What is the highest possible band score a candidate can achieve in the IELTS exam?
Correct Answer: c) 9
Explanation:
The IELTS exam is graded on a 9-band scale, with 9 being the highest possible score.
2. What does an IELTS Band Score of 9 indicate?
Correct Answer: b) Expert user
Explanation:
A Band 9 indicates an 'Expert user' who has full operational command of the language: appropriate, accurate, and fluent with complete understanding.
3. What does an IELTS Band Score of 8 indicate?
Correct Answer: c) Very good user
Explanation:
A Band 8 is classified as a 'Very good user' who handles complex detailed argumentation well, despite occasional inaccuracies.
4. What does an IELTS Band Score of 7 indicate?
Correct Answer: b) Good user
Explanation:
A Band 7 indicates a 'Good user' who has operational command of the language, though with occasional inaccuracies, inappropriacies, and misunderstandings in some situations.
5. What does an IELTS Band Score of 6 indicate?
Correct Answer: c) Competent user
Explanation:
A Band 6 is a 'Competent user' who has generally effective command of the language despite some inaccuracies and misunderstandings.
6. What does an IELTS Band Score of 5 indicate?
Correct Answer: d) Modest user
Explanation:
A Band 5 is a 'Modest user' who has partial command of the language, coping with overall meaning in most situations, though likely to make many mistakes.
7. What does an IELTS Band Score of 4 indicate?
Correct Answer: a) Limited user
Explanation:
A Band 4 indicates a 'Limited user' whose basic competence is limited to familiar situations, and who has frequent problems in understanding and expression.
8. What does an IELTS Band Score of 1 indicate?
Correct Answer: c) Non-user
Explanation:
A Band 1 indicates a 'Non-user' who essentially has no ability to use the language beyond possibly a few isolated words.
9. Under what circumstance would a candidate receive a Band Score of 0?
Correct Answer: b) Did not attempt the test
Explanation:
A Band 0 is only given when a candidate did not answer the questions or did not attend the test.
10. Are half-band scores (e.g., 6.5, 7.5) awarded in the IELTS test?
Correct Answer: a) Yes, for both the overall score and individual section scores
Explanation:
IELTS allows candidates to score whole and half bands for each of the four individual sections, as well as for their overall score.
11. How is the Overall Band Score calculated?
Correct Answer: b) By taking the average of the four section scores (Listening, Reading, Writing, Speaking)
Explanation:
The overall score is calculated by taking the mean average of the four component scores, which is then rounded to the nearest whole or half band.
12. If the average of the four sections ends in .25, how is the Overall Band Score rounded?
Correct Answer: b) It is rounded up to the next half band (e.g., .5)
Explanation:
IELTS rounding rules state that if the average ends in .25, the overall score is rounded up to the next half band (e.g., 6.25 becomes 6.5).
13. If the average of the four sections ends in .75, how is the Overall Band Score rounded?
Correct Answer: a) It is rounded up to the next whole band
Explanation:
If the average ends in .75, the overall score is rounded up to the next whole band (e.g., 6.75 becomes 7.0).
14. If the average of the four sections ends in .125, how is the Overall Band Score rounded?
Correct Answer: b) It is rounded down to the nearest whole band
Explanation:
Averages ending in .125 are rounded down to the nearest whole band (e.g., 6.125 becomes 6.0).
15. If the average of the four sections ends in .875, how is the Overall Band Score rounded?
Correct Answer: b) It is rounded up to the next whole band
Explanation:
Averages ending in .875 are rounded up to the next whole band (e.g., 6.875 becomes 7.0).
16. Calculate the Overall Band Score for a candidate with: Listening 6.5, Reading 6.5, Writing 5.0, Speaking 7.0.
Correct Answer: b) 6.5
Explanation:
The sum is 25.0. 25.0 / 4 = 6.25. Since it ends in .25, it rounds up to the next half band, resulting in 6.5.
17. Calculate the Overall Band Score for a candidate with: Listening 7.0, Reading 7.5, Writing 7.0, Speaking 7.0.
Correct Answer: a) 7.0
Explanation:
The sum is 28.5. 28.5 / 4 = 7.125. Since it ends in .125, it rounds down to the nearest whole band, resulting in 7.0.
18. Calculate the Overall Band Score for a candidate with: Listening 8.0, Reading 8.0, Writing 7.0, Speaking 7.5.
Correct Answer: b) 7.5
Explanation:
The sum is 30.5. 30.5 / 4 = 7.625. Since it ends in .625, it rounds down to the nearest half band, resulting in 7.5.
19. Calculate the Overall Band Score for a candidate with: Listening 5.0, Reading 5.5, Writing 5.0, Speaking 5.0.
Correct Answer: a) 5.0
Explanation:
The sum is 20.5. 20.5 / 4 = 5.125. Since it ends in .125, it rounds down to the nearest whole band, resulting in 5.0.
20. Calculate the Overall Band Score for a candidate with: Listening 6.0, Reading 6.0, Writing 6.5, Speaking 7.0.
Correct Answer: b) 6.5
Explanation:
The sum is 25.5. 25.5 / 4 = 6.375. Since it ends in .375, it rounds up to the nearest half band, resulting in 6.5.
21. How many total raw marks are available in the IELTS Listening test?
Correct Answer: b) 40
Explanation:
The Listening test contains 40 questions, and each correct answer is awarded one mark, making the total raw score 40.
22. In the Listening test, typically how many correct answers are required to achieve a Band 9.0?
Correct Answer: d) 39-40
Explanation:
To achieve a perfect Band 9.0 in Listening, a candidate must answer 39 or 40 questions correctly.
23. In the Listening test, typically how many correct answers are required to achieve a Band 7.0?
Correct Answer: c) 30-31
Explanation:
While curves can slightly fluctuate, answering 30 to 31 questions correctly generally yields a Band 7.0 in Listening.
24. In the Listening test, typically how many correct answers are required to achieve a Band 6.0?
Correct Answer: c) 23-25
Explanation:
A raw score of 23 to 25 correct answers out of 40 will typically convert to a Band 6.0 in the Listening test.
25. Is negative marking used in the IELTS Listening or Reading tests?
Correct Answer: c) No, wrong answers simply receive 0 marks with no penalty
Explanation:
There is no negative marking in IELTS. It is always better to guess an answer rather than leaving it blank.
26. If a candidate misspells an answer in the Listening or Reading test, what happens?
Correct Answer: c) The answer is marked completely incorrect and receives 0 marks
Explanation:
Spelling is crucial in both the Listening and Reading tests. Any spelling mistake results in the answer being marked wrong.
27. Are answers in the Listening and Reading tests case-sensitive?
Correct Answer: b) No, both upper and lower case letters are accepted
Explanation:
IELTS accepts answers in upper or lower case. In fact, writing all answers in uppercase is recommended to avoid legibility issues.
28. If an audio recording says 'cars' and a candidate writes 'car' as their answer, what is the score for that question?
Correct Answer: a) 0 marks, because the plural form is required for grammatical or factual accuracy
Explanation:
Grammar and singular/plural forms must be exact in the Listening test. Missing an 's' results in a completely wrong answer.
29. How many total raw marks are available in the IELTS Reading test?
Correct Answer: b) 40
Explanation:
Both the Academic and General Training Reading tests contain 40 questions, yielding a maximum raw score of 40.
30. In the Academic Reading test, typically how many correct answers are required to achieve a Band 9.0?
Correct Answer: c) 39-40
Explanation:
To score a Band 9.0 in Academic Reading, candidates usually need 39 or 40 correct answers.
31. In the Academic Reading test, typically how many correct answers are required to achieve a Band 7.0?
Correct Answer: c) 30-32
Explanation:
While conversion tables vary slightly by test version, 30 to 32 correct answers generally convert to a Band 7.0 in Academic Reading.
32. In the Academic Reading test, typically how many correct answers are required to achieve a Band 6.0?
Correct Answer: c) 23-26
Explanation:
A raw score of 23 to 26 correct answers typically equates to a Band 6.0 in the Academic Reading test.
33. In the Academic Reading test, typically how many correct answers are required to achieve a Band 5.0?
Correct Answer: b) 15-18
Explanation:
Getting 15 to 18 questions correct out of 40 will generally result in a Band 5.0 in Academic Reading.
34. How does the scoring curve for General Training Reading compare to Academic Reading?
Correct Answer: c) General Training requires a higher raw score to achieve the same band
Explanation:
Because General Training texts are generally easier and more factual, candidates must answer more questions correctly to achieve the same band score.
35. In the General Training Reading test, typically how many correct answers are required to achieve a Band 7.0?
Correct Answer: b) 34-35
Explanation:
A Band 7.0 in General Training Reading typically requires 34 to 35 correct answers, compared to 30-32 in the Academic version.
36. In the General Training Reading test, typically how many correct answers are required to achieve a Band 6.0?
Correct Answer: c) 30-31
Explanation:
In GT Reading, candidates usually need 30 or 31 correct answers to achieve a Band 6.0.
37. In the General Training Reading test, typically how many correct answers are required to achieve a Band 5.0?
Correct Answer: c) 23-26
Explanation:
A raw score of 23 to 26 typically yields a Band 5.0 in General Training Reading.
38. Are Academic and General Training Listening tests graded on the same raw-to-band conversion scale?
Correct Answer: a) Yes, because the Listening test is exactly the same for both versions
Explanation:
Both versions share the exact same Listening test and use the exact same raw-to-band conversion scale.
39. Are Academic and General Training Speaking tests graded on the same criteria?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, the Speaking test format and grading criteria are identical for both
Explanation:
There is no difference in the Speaking test between Academic and General Training; both are graded using the exact same four criteria.
40. What is the weighting of Task 1 and Task 2 in the IELTS Writing final score calculation?
Correct Answer: c) Task 2 is worth 2/3, Task 1 is worth 1/3
Explanation:
Task 2 is more heavily weighted, contributing approximately 66% (2/3) to the final Writing band score, while Task 1 contributes 33% (1/3).
41. How many assessment criteria are used by examiners to grade the IELTS Writing test?
Correct Answer: c) 4
Explanation:
The Writing test is assessed across four criteria: Task Achievement/Response, Coherence and Cohesion, Lexical Resource, and Grammatical Range and Accuracy.
42. Which Writing criterion specifically evaluates how well a candidate addresses the prompt and presents a clear position in Task 2?
Correct Answer: b) Task Response
Explanation:
Task Response is the criterion for Task 2 that assesses how fully the candidate answers the prompt, develops arguments, and presents a clear position.
43. Which Writing criterion evaluates a candidate's ability to report and summarize data objectively in Academic Task 1?
Correct Answer: b) Task Achievement
Explanation:
Task Achievement is used for Task 1 to evaluate how well the candidate fulfills the requirements of the task, such as providing a clear overview and highlighting key data.
44. Which Writing criterion assesses paragraphing, logical flow, and the use of linking words?
Correct Answer: d) Coherence and Cohesion
Explanation:
Coherence and Cohesion (CC) measures the logical organization of information and how well sentences and paragraphs are linked.
45. Which Writing criterion evaluates the range, precision, and spelling of the vocabulary used?
Correct Answer: b) Lexical Resource
Explanation:
Lexical Resource (LR) focuses entirely on vocabulary, including the use of synonyms, collocations, and correct spelling.
46. Which Writing criterion evaluates sentence structures, tense usage, and punctuation?
Correct Answer: a) Grammatical Range and Accuracy
Explanation:
Grammatical Range and Accuracy (GRA) looks at the variety of complex sentences used and the frequency of grammatical or punctuation errors.
47. What happens to the score if a candidate writes an essay completely off-topic in Task 2?
Correct Answer: c) The Task Response score is severely penalized, often dropping to a Band 1 or 2
Explanation:
If the essay does not answer the specific prompt given, it fails the Task Response criterion, which dictates the score regardless of how well it is written.
48. If an examiner determines an essay is entirely memorized from a template, how is it scored?
Correct Answer: b) It is heavily penalized or may receive a Band 0 because memorized text cannot be assessed as original language
Explanation:
Examiners are trained to spot and ignore memorized chunks of text. An essay reliant on templates will receive a severe penalty.
49. If a candidate's handwriting is completely illegible in the paper-based test, what is the outcome?
Correct Answer: c) The illegible sections cannot be assessed, resulting in a very low score or a 0
Explanation:
Examiners can only grade what they can read. If the text is illegible, it cannot meet any of the assessment criteria.
50. In Academic Writing Task 1, what happens to the Task Achievement score if the candidate fails to include an overview?
Correct Answer: b) The Task Achievement score is typically capped at a Band 5
Explanation:
According to the public band descriptors, a response that recounts detail mechanically with no clear overview cannot score higher than a 5 for Task Achievement.
51. What happens if a candidate fails to reach the 250-word minimum in Writing Task 2?
Correct Answer: b) Marks are deducted under the Task Response criterion for failing to fully develop the answer
Explanation:
Writing an under-length response generally means the candidate has not sufficiently developed their arguments, penalizing the Task Response score.
52. Are the four criteria in the Writing test weighted equally when calculating the task score?
Correct Answer: a) Yes, each of the four criteria contributes 25% to the specific task's band score
Explanation:
For any given writing task, the four criteria (TA/TR, CC, LR, GRA) are weighted equally to calculate the score for that specific task.
53. How many assessment criteria are used by examiners to grade the IELTS Speaking test?
Correct Answer: c) 4
Explanation:
The Speaking test is assessed across four criteria: Fluency and Coherence, Lexical Resource, Grammatical Range and Accuracy, and Pronunciation.
54. Which Speaking criterion evaluates speech rate, continuity, and the use of linking words?
Correct Answer: b) Fluency and Coherence
Explanation:
Fluency focuses on speaking smoothly without unnatural hesitation, while Coherence focuses on connecting ideas logically.
55. Which Speaking criterion evaluates intelligibility, intonation, and word stress?
Correct Answer: a) Pronunciation
Explanation:
Pronunciation assesses how clearly a candidate speaks and how well they use phonetic features like rhythm and intonation.
56. Does having a strong accent from your home country negatively impact the Pronunciation score?
Correct Answer: b) No, accents are not penalized as long as they do not interfere with the examiner's ability to understand you
Explanation:
IELTS embraces all accents. The Pronunciation score is based on clarity, stress, and intonation, not on sounding like a native speaker.
57. What happens to the Fluency score if a candidate pauses frequently to search for the right English vocabulary?
Correct Answer: c) It lowers the Fluency score due to language-related hesitation
Explanation:
Pausing because you cannot find a word or grammar rule breaks the flow of speech and is penalized under Fluency and Coherence.
58. Is pausing to think of an *idea* penalized the same way as pausing for *language* in the Speaking test?
Correct Answer: b) No, content-related hesitation (thinking of an idea) is natural and less penalized than language-related hesitation
Explanation:
Native speakers pause to think of ideas. If you use natural fillers (e.g., 'Let me think...'), content hesitation does not significantly damage fluency.
59. What happens to the Fluency score if a candidate frequently self-corrects their grammar while speaking?
Correct Answer: b) It lowers the Fluency score because it disrupts the natural flow of speech
Explanation:
While correcting a rare slip is fine, constant self-correction makes speech sound disjointed and lowers the Fluency and Coherence score.
60. What is required to achieve a Band 7 in Lexical Resource for the Speaking test?
Correct Answer: b) Using some less common and idiomatic vocabulary, showing an awareness of style and collocation
Explanation:
Band 7 LR explicitly requires the use of 'idiomatic vocabulary' and 'less common' words, combined with the ability to paraphrase well.
61. If a candidate speaks with perfect accuracy but only uses very simple, short sentences, what happens to their Speaking score?
Correct Answer: b) Their Grammatical Range and Accuracy score is capped (typically at Band 5 or 6) because they lack complex structures
Explanation:
GRA assesses both 'Range' and 'Accuracy'. Perfect accuracy on basic grammar cannot score highly if the candidate cannot demonstrate complex sentence range.
62. What is a 'systematic error' in the context of Grammatical Range and Accuracy?
Correct Answer: b) Making the exact same fundamental grammatical mistake repeatedly throughout the test
Explanation:
Systematic errors (like consistently leaving off plural 's' or messing up the past tense) show a lack of grammatical control and lower the GRA score.
63. What does a Band 7 in Speaking for Fluency and Coherence look like according to descriptors?
Correct Answer: a) Speaks at length without noticeable effort or loss of coherence
Explanation:
A Band 7 candidate can keep going easily. They might show some hesitation, but they do not struggle to keep the speech flowing logically.
64. Are the four criteria in the Speaking test weighted equally?
Correct Answer: a) Yes, each contributes 25% to the final Speaking band score
Explanation:
The four criteria (FC, LR, GRA, PR) are weighted equally to calculate the overall Speaking section score.
65. How long is an IELTS Test Report Form (TRF) generally valid for?
Correct Answer: b) 2 years
Explanation:
Most receiving organizations, universities, and immigration departments recognize IELTS scores as valid for up to two years from the test date.
66. What does 'EoR' stand for in the IELTS grading process?
Correct Answer: c) Enquiry on Results
Explanation:
An Enquiry on Results (EoR) is the formal process candidates use to request a remark of their test if they believe their score is incorrect.
67. What is the deadline for a candidate to apply for an Enquiry on Results (EoR)?
Correct Answer: b) Within 6 weeks of the test date
Explanation:
Candidates must submit their application for an EoR within six weeks of their original test date.
68. Can an IELTS score decrease after an Enquiry on Results (EoR) is processed?
Correct Answer: b) No, standard IELTS policy dictates that scores can only increase or remain the same; they will not be lowered
Explanation:
Candidates risk the EoR fee, but they do not risk their score. If the senior examiner gives a lower score, the original higher score is kept.
69. If a candidate's score increases after an Enquiry on Results (EoR), what happens to the EoR fee?
Correct Answer: c) The fee is fully refunded to the candidate
Explanation:
If the remark results in a higher band score, the candidate receives a full refund of the Enquiry on Results fee.
70. Which sections of the IELTS test are most commonly submitted for an Enquiry on Results (remark)?
Correct Answer: b) Writing and Speaking
Explanation:
Writing and Speaking are subjective assessments made by human examiners, making them much more likely to change during a remark than the objective Reading and Listening tests.
71. Can a candidate request a remark (EoR) for just one single section of the test?
Correct Answer: a) Yes, a candidate can choose to remark one, multiple, or all sections for the same fee
Explanation:
Candidates specify which components they want remarked. The fee is usually a flat rate regardless of how many sections are chosen.
72. What is 'IELTS One Skill Retake'?
Correct Answer: b) A feature allowing candidates to retake just one of the four sections to improve their score, without retaking the full test
Explanation:
Introduced recently in eligible test centers, One Skill Retake allows candidates to redo a single component if they missed their target score in just that area.
73. Within what timeframe must a candidate complete an IELTS One Skill Retake?
Correct Answer: b) Within 60 days of the original test date
Explanation:
Candidates must book and sit for their One Skill Retake within 60 days of their original test date.
74. When a candidate completes a One Skill Retake, how is the score reported?
Correct Answer: a) They receive an entirely new Test Report Form including the updated score alongside their original other scores
Explanation:
A new TRF is issued containing the improved section score alongside the original scores for the other three sections, maintaining the original test date.
75. What CEFR (Common European Framework of Reference for Languages) level does an IELTS Band 9 correspond to?
Correct Answer: c) C2
Explanation:
An IELTS Band 9 (and 8.5) maps to C2, which is the highest level of proficiency (Mastery) on the CEFR scale.
76. What CEFR level does an IELTS Band 7.0 to 8.0 typically correspond to?
Correct Answer: c) C1
Explanation:
Band scores from 7.0 up to 8.0 align with the C1 level (Effective Operational Proficiency) on the CEFR scale.
77. What CEFR level does an IELTS Band 5.5 to 6.5 typically correspond to?
Correct Answer: c) B2
Explanation:
Band scores from 5.5 to 6.5 align with the B2 level (Vantage) on the CEFR scale, which is the most common requirement for university entry.
78. What CEFR level does an IELTS Band 4.0 to 5.0 typically correspond to?
Correct Answer: b) B1
Explanation:
Band scores from 4.0 to 5.0 align with the B1 level (Threshold) on the CEFR scale.
79. Are scores for IELTS for UKVI on a different band scale than standard IELTS?
Correct Answer: b) No, they use the exact same 9-band scale, content, and format as standard IELTS
Explanation:
IELTS for UKVI is academically identical to the standard IELTS and uses the exact same 9-band scale. The only difference is extra security protocols at the test center.
80. How is the 'IELTS Life Skills' test scored?
Correct Answer: b) As Pass or Fail
Explanation:
Unlike standard IELTS, the IELTS Life Skills test (used for certain UK visas) assesses only speaking and listening and is graded strictly as Pass or Fail.
81. Is it possible to 'fail' the standard IELTS Academic or General Training test?
Correct Answer: b) No, there is no pass or fail; candidates receive a band score that reflects their proficiency
Explanation:
IELTS is a proficiency test. It does not issue a 'fail' grade; institutions simply set their own minimum required band scores.
82. Which version of the IELTS test is most commonly required by immigration authorities for skilled worker visas?
Correct Answer: b) IELTS General Training
Explanation:
General Training is typically the standard requirement for migration to English-speaking countries like Canada, Australia, and the UK for work purposes.
83. Which version of the IELTS test is most commonly required by universities for admission to degree programs?
Correct Answer: b) IELTS Academic
Explanation:
Higher education institutions almost universally require the IELTS Academic format to ensure candidates can comprehend complex academic texts and write essays.
84. What does TRF stand for in the context of IELTS scores?
Correct Answer: b) Test Report Form
Explanation:
The Test Report Form (TRF) is the official paper or digital document that displays a candidate's IELTS scores.
85. Are the individual section band scores printed on the Test Report Form (TRF)?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, the TRF displays the Overall Band Score as well as the individual scores for Listening, Reading, Writing, and Speaking
Explanation:
The official TRF breaks down the candidate's performance, showing the precise band score achieved in each of the four skills alongside the overall average.
86. What is the minimum overall score required by most top-tier universities (e.g., Oxford, Cambridge, Ivy League)?
Correct Answer: c) 7.0 to 7.5
Explanation:
While requirements vary by program, top-tier global universities generally require an overall band score of 7.0 to 7.5, often with minimums in each section.
87. If a university requires a '6.5 overall, with no band less than 6.0', and a candidate scores L: 7.0, R: 6.5, W: 5.5, S: 7.0 (Overall 6.5), will they be accepted?
Correct Answer: b) No, because the Writing score (5.5) is below the minimum requirement of 6.0
Explanation:
Institutions frequently enforce minimum 'sub-scores' for each section. Failing to meet a sub-score requirement results in rejection, regardless of the overall average.
88. Is there a Band 10 in IELTS?
Correct Answer: c) No, the scale strictly maxes out at Band 9
Explanation:
The IELTS scale is definitively 0 to 9. A Band 9 represents full mastery, and no higher band exists.
89. If an examiner gives a candidate a 6.5 for Task Achievement, 6.0 for Cohesion, 6.0 for Lexical Resource, and 6.0 for Grammar in Writing Task 1, what is the Task 1 score?
Correct Answer: a) 6.0
Explanation:
The average of 6.5, 6.0, 6.0, 6.0 is 6.125. Following standard rounding rules, 6.125 rounds down to 6.0 for that specific task.
90. Can candidates receive their IELTS results online?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, results are available online before the physical TRF arrives (usually 3-5 days for computer-delivered, 13 days for paper-based)
Explanation:
Candidates can preview their scores via an online portal exactly 13 days after a paper test, or 3-5 days after a computer test.
91. How many free Test Report Forms (TRFs) can a candidate request to be sent to institutions at the time of registration?
Correct Answer: b) Up to 5 copies are sent free of charge to recognizing organizations
Explanation:
Test centers will typically send up to 5 copies of the TRF directly to universities or institutions free of charge if requested during registration.
92. Does taking the computer-delivered test change the way the Reading and Listening sections are scored?
Correct Answer: b) No, the raw-to-band conversion and difficulty are identical to the paper-based test
Explanation:
The mode of delivery (computer vs. paper) does not alter the test content, difficulty, or the band score calculations in any way.
93. What does it mean if an IELTS score indicates the candidate is a 'Non-user' (Band 1)?
Correct Answer: b) They have essentially no ability to use the language beyond possibly a few isolated words
Explanation:
Band 1 is reserved for candidates who attempt the test but can only produce a few isolated words, showing no real communication ability.
94. In the context of the Speaking test, what does 'intelligibility' refer to under the Pronunciation criteria?
Correct Answer: b) How easily the examiner can understand what the candidate is saying without strain
Explanation:
Intelligibility simply means being understood clearly. An accent is fine, as long as the pronunciation of the words doesn't force the examiner to struggle to understand.
95. If a candidate is aiming for Canadian Express Entry (immigration), what score format is usually used to translate IELTS bands?
Correct Answer: b) CLB (Canadian Language Benchmarks)
Explanation:
The Canadian government translates IELTS General Training band scores into CLB levels to assign immigration points (e.g., CLB 9 usually requires L:8.0, R:7.0, W:7.0, S:7.0).
