The IELTS Reading test is a demanding 60-minute examination consisting of 40 questions across three passages, testing a candidate’s ability to scan for details, skim for main ideas, and comprehend complex arguments. While the Academic version features dense scholarly texts from books and journals, the General Training version utilizes everyday workplace notices, advertisements, and descriptive articles. Because no extra time is given to transfer answers to the answer sheet, success requires strict time management, advanced vocabulary recognition, and mastery of tricky question formats like True/False/Not Given.
1. What is the total time allowed to complete the IELTS Reading test?
Correct Answer: b) 60 minutes
Explanation:
The IELTS Reading test is exactly 60 minutes long for both the Academic and General Training formats.
2. How many questions in total must a candidate answer in the IELTS Reading test?
Correct Answer: b) 40
Explanation:
There are exactly 40 questions in the IELTS Reading test, divided across three sections.
3. How much extra time is given at the end of the Reading test to transfer your answers to the answer sheet?
Correct Answer: a) No extra time
Explanation:
Unlike the Listening test, the Reading test provides no extra transfer time. All answers must be written on the answer sheet within the 60 minutes.
4. How many reading passages/sections are there in the Academic Reading test?
Correct Answer: b) Three
Explanation:
The Academic Reading test consists of three long reading passages, making up three distinct sections.
5. What kind of writing instrument must be used to fill in the paper-based IELTS Reading answer sheet?
Correct Answer: c) An HB pencil
Explanation:
Answer sheets are scanned by a computer, so candidates must use an HB pencil for the Reading and Listening tests.
6. Which of the following best describes the texts used in the Academic Reading test?
Correct Answer: c) Authentic texts from books, journals, magazines, and newspapers
Explanation:
Academic texts are sourced from real-world publications and are suitable for non-specialist audiences entering higher education.
7. In the General Training Reading test, what does Section 1 typically focus on?
Correct Answer: b) Everyday social survival English
Explanation:
Section 1 of the GT Reading test tests basic survival skills using short factual texts like notices, ads, or timetables.
8. In the General Training Reading test, what does Section 2 typically focus on?
Correct Answer: c) Workplace contexts and employment
Explanation:
Section 2 of the GT test focuses on the workplace context, using texts like employee handbooks, contracts, and training materials.
9. Is negative marking used in the IELTS Reading test?
Correct Answer: c) No, wrong answers simply receive 0 points
Explanation:
IELTS does not use negative marking. Therefore, it is always a good strategy to guess an answer rather than leaving it blank.
10. Approximately how many total words will a candidate read across the three passages in the Academic Reading test?
Correct Answer: b) 2150 - 2750 words
Explanation:
The total text length across all three Academic Reading passages ranges from 2,150 to 2,750 words.
11. What reading skill involves quickly reading a text to get the general idea or 'gist'?
Correct Answer: b) Skimming
Explanation:
Skimming is reading quickly to understand the main idea or gist of a paragraph or text without focusing on details.
12. What reading skill involves quickly searching a text for specific information, like a name or date?
Correct Answer: b) Scanning
Explanation:
Scanning is moving your eyes quickly over a text to locate a specific piece of data, such as a keyword, number, or capitalized name.
13. Why is 'paraphrasing' a critical concept for the IELTS Reading test?
Correct Answer: b) Because the questions almost always use different words (synonyms) than the text to express the same meaning
Explanation:
IELTS heavily tests vocabulary through paraphrasing. The exact words in the question are rarely the exact words found in the text.
14. What is the recommended time distribution for the three sections in the Reading test?
Correct Answer: b) 20 minutes per section
Explanation:
The standard advice is to spend 20 minutes on each of the three sections, though advanced students often spend less time on Section 1 to save time for Section 3.
15. Are spelling mistakes accepted in the IELTS Reading test answers?
Correct Answer: b) No, answers must be spelled perfectly
Explanation:
Spelling must be 100% accurate. A misspelled word will receive zero marks, even if it is copied from the text.
16. If you write your answers in ALL CAPS on the answer sheet, what will happen?
Correct Answer: c) It is perfectly acceptable and often recommended to improve legibility
Explanation:
Writing in all capital letters is allowed and encouraged by many tutors to prevent the examiner from misreading messy handwriting.
17. How are hyphenated words, such as 'state-of-the-art', counted for word limits?
Correct Answer: a) As one word
Explanation:
According to IELTS rules, any word containing a hyphen is counted as a single word.
18. Does a number like '1998' count as a word?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, it counts as one word
Explanation:
A number written in digits (e.g., 25,000 or 1998) counts as one word.
19. What does a 'True' answer mean in a True/False/Not Given question?
Correct Answer: a) The statement agrees with the information in the passage
Explanation:
In TFNG, 'True' strictly means the statement factually agrees with or confirms the information explicitly given in the text.
20. What does a 'False' answer mean in a True/False/Not Given question?
Correct Answer: b) The statement contradicts the information in the passage
Explanation:
'False' means the passage says the exact opposite or provides information that directly makes the statement untrue.
21. What does a 'Not Given' answer mean in a True/False/Not Given question?
Correct Answer: c) There is no information in the passage to confirm or contradict the statement
Explanation:
'Not Given' means the text does not have enough information to allow you to say 'True' or 'False'. You cannot assume or use outside knowledge.
22. What is the key difference between True/False/Not Given (TFNG) and Yes/No/Not Given (YNNG) questions?
Correct Answer: b) TFNG deals with factual information, while YNNG deals with the writer's views or claims
Explanation:
TFNG asks if the statement agrees with the facts of the text. YNNG asks if the statement agrees with the opinions, claims, or views of the writer.
23. Do True/False/Not Given questions typically follow the chronological order of the text?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, the answers generally appear in the text in the same order as the questions
Explanation:
TFNG and YNNG questions almost always follow the progressive order of the reading passage.
24. What is a common trap in True/False/Not Given questions?
Correct Answer: c) Candidates use their own background knowledge instead of relying only on the text
Explanation:
A common mistake is answering based on what you know to be true in the real world, rather than what is explicitly stated in the passage.
25. In a 'Matching Headings' task, what are you trying to do?
Correct Answer: b) Choose the correct title that summarizes the main idea of a specific paragraph
Explanation:
Matching Headings tests your ability to grasp the overarching theme or main idea of a paragraph, not just finding a specific detail.
26. Do 'Matching Headings' questions follow the order of the text?
Correct Answer: b) No, because the paragraphs are labeled A, B, C, etc., and you must match a list of mixed-up headings to them
Explanation:
The headings are a scrambled list of Roman numerals. You must read each paragraph in turn and search the list for its matching heading.
27. In 'Matching Headings', are there usually more headings than paragraphs?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, there are always extra headings provided as distractors
Explanation:
IELTS always provides more headings than paragraphs to act as distractors and increase the difficulty of the task.
28. Which sentence in a paragraph is often the most helpful for determining its correct heading?
Correct Answer: c) The topic sentence, usually the first or second sentence
Explanation:
The first or second sentence usually introduces the main idea (the topic sentence), making it a key indicator for matching the heading.
29. Can you use a heading more than once in a 'Matching Headings' task?
Correct Answer: b) No, unless the instructions specifically state 'You may use any heading more than once'
Explanation:
By default, each heading can only be used once. If a letter or heading can be reused, the instructions will boldly state it.
30. Where does the list of headings usually appear in relation to the reading passage?
Correct Answer: c) Before the reading passage
Explanation:
Uniquely, the 'Matching Headings' task is usually placed *before* the reading passage in the question booklet.
31. What must you write on the answer sheet for a 'Matching Headings' question?
Correct Answer: c) The Roman numeral corresponding to the heading (i, ii, iii...)
Explanation:
Headings are numbered with Roman numerals. You must write the correct numeral (e.g., 'iv') on your answer sheet, not the text of the heading.
32. In 'Sentence Completion' questions, what is the most important grammatical rule?
Correct Answer: b) The exact word(s) extracted from the text must fit into the sentence grammatically without alteration
Explanation:
When taking a word directly from the text to fill a blank, it must fit the grammar of the sentence flawlessly without you changing the word's form.
33. If the instructions say 'NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS', and you write 'the red car', what happens?
Correct Answer: c) The answer is marked wrong because it is three words
Explanation:
Word count limits are absolute. Exceeding the stated limit by even one word results in an automatic zero.
34. What is a 'Summary Completion' task with a word box?
Correct Answer: b) Filling in blanks in a summary by choosing a letter from a provided list of option words
Explanation:
In this task, a box of words (labeled A, B, C...) is provided. These are often synonyms of words in the text, testing paraphrase recognition.
35. Do 'Summary Completion' questions typically follow the order of the text?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, the blanks generally follow the chronological order of the information in the targeted section of the text
Explanation:
Summaries usually follow the logical progression of the passage, making it easier to track your place as you read.
36. When labeling a diagram, where will you find the answers?
Correct Answer: b) Usually concentrated in one or two descriptive paragraphs detailing a process or structure
Explanation:
Diagram label answers are typically found grouped tightly together in a section of the text that describes how something looks or works.
37. Do 'Matching Information' questions (e.g., 'Which paragraph contains the following information?') come in order?
Correct Answer: b) No, the information statements do not follow the order of the text
Explanation:
Matching Information questions are notoriously tricky because they jump around the text; question 14 might be in paragraph E, and question 15 in paragraph A.
38. In 'Matching Features' (e.g., matching a researcher to their discovery), what is the best strategy?
Correct Answer: b) Scan the text for the capitalized names/features first, underline them, and read the surrounding sentences
Explanation:
Since names start with capital letters, they are easy to scan for. Locating all the names first creates an 'index' to quickly find answers.
39. If a question says 'You may use any letter more than once', what should you expect?
Correct Answer: b) At least one option (like a paragraph or a researcher's name) will be the answer to two or more questions
Explanation:
This instruction is a guarantee that you will reuse an option. Don't assume you made a mistake if you use 'Paragraph B' twice.
40. In a Multiple Choice question with options A, B, C, D, do the questions follow the order of the text?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, they follow the chronological progression of the text
Explanation:
Standard MCQs follow the text in order, which helps you locate the paragraph needed for each question.
41. What is a 'Global Multiple Choice' question?
Correct Answer: b) A question that asks you to choose the best title or the main purpose of the entire passage
Explanation:
Global MCQs typically appear at the very end of a section and ask about the passage as a whole (e.g., 'What is the writer's main purpose?').
42. Why can 'Multiple Choice' questions be particularly deceptive?
Correct Answer: a) They often mention keywords from all four options in the text to distract you
Explanation:
IELTS uses distractors heavily. You will likely see words from options A, B, C, and D in the text, but only one option completely and accurately answers the question.
43. If you don't know a word in the reading passage, what is the best approach?
Correct Answer: b) Use the context of the surrounding words and sentences to guess its general meaning
Explanation:
You are not expected to know every word. Deducing meaning from context is a key reading skill tested in IELTS.
44. How are the three reading passages structured in terms of difficulty in the Academic test?
Correct Answer: c) They generally get progressively more difficult, with Passage 3 being the most complex
Explanation:
Passage 1 is usually the most straightforward, while Passage 3 often contains complex discursive arguments and difficult vocabulary.
45. Why is it important to read the title and any subtitles of a passage before starting?
Correct Answer: b) They quickly give you the overarching context and activate your vocabulary related to the topic
Explanation:
The title immediately frames the context, helping your brain prepare for the concepts and terminology that will follow.
46. What is the recommended strategy if you are stuck on a difficult question for too long?
Correct Answer: b) Guess, mark it on the question paper, move on, and return if you have time left
Explanation:
Time management is crucial. Wasting 5 minutes on one question might cost you 3 easy points later in the test.
47. If an instruction says 'NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER', which of these answers is invalid?
Correct Answer: d) The 15 August
Explanation:
'The 15 August' contains two words ('The', 'August') and one number ('15'), violating the limit of one word and/or one number.
48. Does a symbol like '%' or '$' count as a word in the Reading test?
Correct Answer: b) No, symbols do not count towards the word limit
Explanation:
Standard symbols like % or $ do not count as words. Writing '50%' counts only as one number.
49. Are contractions (e.g., 'don't', 'it's') typically used as answers in the Reading test?
Correct Answer: b) No, Academic and formal GT texts rarely use contractions, so they are almost never the correct answer
Explanation:
Since IELTS Reading texts are formal, contractions are rarely present in the text and therefore rarely the correct answer to extract.
50. What makes a 'good' keyword to scan for in a passage?
Correct Answer: c) Unchanging words like proper nouns (names, places), dates, and specific numbers
Explanation:
Proper nouns and numbers cannot be easily paraphrased, making them perfect 'anchor' keywords to quickly find the relevant part of the text.
51. What is a 'mutating keyword' in the context of IELTS Reading strategy?
Correct Answer: b) A word in the question that is replaced by a synonym or phrase in the text
Explanation:
Standard nouns and verbs often 'mutate' into synonyms (e.g., 'agriculture' in the question becomes 'farming' in the text).
52. How is the grading scale applied to the Reading test?
Correct Answer: b) The raw score out of 40 is converted to the IELTS 9-band scale
Explanation:
Your total number of correct answers (e.g., 30/40) is mapped to the 0-9 band scale using a conversion table.
53. Does the General Training Reading test require the same raw score as the Academic test to get a Band 7?
Correct Answer: b) No, General Training requires a higher raw score (more correct answers) to achieve the same band
Explanation:
Because GT texts are generally less complex, candidates must score higher (e.g., ~34 for a 7.0) compared to Academic (e.g., ~30 for a 7.0).
54. Approximately how many correct answers are needed to achieve a Band 7.0 in Academic Reading?
Correct Answer: b) 30-32
Explanation:
While conversion tables fluctuate slightly per test, a 30 out of 40 generally guarantees a Band 7.0 in Academic Reading.
55. Approximately how many correct answers are needed to achieve a Band 7.0 in General Training Reading?
Correct Answer: c) 34-35
Explanation:
To achieve a 7.0 in General Training, candidates usually need around 34 to 35 correct answers due to the less demanding texts.
56. In the Academic Reading test, what happens if a text uses highly technical or specialist vocabulary?
Correct Answer: b) A simple glossary is provided at the bottom of the page to explain those specific terms
Explanation:
IELTS does not test specialist knowledge. If a non-common technical word is essential to the text, a brief glossary is provided.
57. Are candidates taking the paper-based test allowed to write on the question paper?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, candidates can underline, circle, and make notes on the question paper
Explanation:
You are encouraged to underline keywords and scribble notes on the question booklet. Only the answer sheet is assessed.
58. What is the format of 'Short-answer questions'?
Correct Answer: b) Answering a direct question with a short phrase extracted exactly from the text, obeying a word limit
Explanation:
These questions ask direct questions (e.g., 'What material was the bridge made of?') and require you to find the exact words in the text.
59. Do 'Short-answer questions' generally follow the order of the text?
Correct Answer: a) Yes, usually
Explanation:
Like most question types that require you to find specific details, short-answer questions typically follow the text sequentially.
60. If a completion question requires a word from the text, but you write a perfect synonym from your own vocabulary, what happens?
Correct Answer: c) You get zero marks because you must extract the exact word from the passage
Explanation:
Unless it is a summary completion with a box of pre-selected options, you must write the words exactly as they appear in the reading text.
61. When dealing with True/False/Not Given, why are qualifying words like 'all', 'some', 'always', or 'never' so important?
Correct Answer: b) They drastically change the meaning of the statement, often determining whether it is True, False, or Not Given
Explanation:
If the text says 'some people' and the question says 'all people', the statement is False. Extreme qualifiers are key to answering TFNG.
62. Where is the writer's overarching opinion or conclusion usually found in an academic passage?
Correct Answer: c) Often in the concluding paragraph or final few sentences
Explanation:
Academic texts usually present background, methodology, and arguments in the body, reserving the writer's final views or summary for the conclusion.
63. If you make a mistake on the paper-based answer sheet, how should you correct it?
Correct Answer: b) Erase it completely with an eraser and write the new answer clearly
Explanation:
Because sheets may be scanned, crossing out or writing over words can cause legibility errors. Erase mistakes completely.
64. In the computer-delivered Reading test, how can candidates mark important text?
Correct Answer: c) By using the built-in highlight and notes function by selecting text with the mouse
Explanation:
The computer-delivered software allows candidates to right-click and highlight text or make notes to mimic underlining on paper.
65. In the computer-delivered Reading test, how can you ensure you don't misspell a word extracted from the text?
Correct Answer: b) Copy (Ctrl+C) the word from the text and paste (Ctrl+V) it into the answer box
Explanation:
A massive advantage of the computer test is the ability to use keyboard shortcuts (Ctrl+C and Ctrl+V) to copy exact words without spelling errors.
66. How do you navigate between questions in the computer-delivered Reading test?
Correct Answer: a) Using a navigation bar at the bottom of the screen
Explanation:
The interface features a numbered navigation bar at the bottom, allowing you to jump freely between any of the 40 questions.
67. During the paper-based test, what time warnings does the invigilator typically give?
Correct Answer: b) At 40 minutes, 20 minutes, 10 minutes, and 5 minutes remaining
Explanation:
Standard protocol requires invigilators to announce when 40, 20, 10, and 5 minutes are left to help candidates manage their pacing.
68. Can you bring your own watch into the IELTS test room?
Correct Answer: c) No, watches of any kind are strictly prohibited
Explanation:
For security reasons, candidates cannot wear watches. A wall clock is provided, or a digital timer is on the screen for computer tests.
69. What happens if you leave the room to use the toilet during the Reading test?
Correct Answer: c) You are allowed, but the clock keeps running and you lose that time
Explanation:
Toilet breaks are permitted (except during specific locked-down periods), but test time is not paused. You lose valuable reading time.
70. If an instruction says 'Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS', is an answer of one word acceptable?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, one, two, or three words are all acceptable depending on the context
Explanation:
'No more than' establishes a maximum limit, meaning an answer of one word, two words, or three words can be correct.
71. When scanning for dates, what should you look for?
Correct Answer: b) Digits (e.g., 19, 20th) and capitalized months
Explanation:
Numbers (digits) and capitalized months stand out clearly against the surrounding lowercase text, making them very fast to scan for.
72. If the text states 'The bridge was constructed in 1894', and the question asks 'Is it True or False that the bridge was built in the late 19th century?', what is the answer?
Correct Answer: a) True
Explanation:
1894 is factually the late 19th century. The statement accurately reflects the text using different phrasing, so it is True.
73. If the text states 'The company employs 500 people', and the statement is 'The company employs exactly 1000 people', what is the answer?
Correct Answer: b) False
Explanation:
The text explicitly says 500. 1000 directly contradicts this fact, making the statement False.
74. If the text says 'The CEO resigned in May', and the statement says 'The CEO resigned because of a scandal', what is the answer for TFNG?
Correct Answer: c) Not Given
Explanation:
The text only states *when* they resigned, not *why*. Even if a scandal happened in real life, the passage does not give this information.
75. In 'Matching Headings', what happens if you try to match based purely on finding the exact same word in both the heading and the paragraph?
Correct Answer: b) You will likely fall into a trap, as distractors often use exact words to trick you
Explanation:
Headings summarize the *idea*. If a heading uses the exact words found in the text, it is highly likely a distractor designed to trap candidates who just match words.
76. Is it required to read the entire passage deeply before looking at the questions?
Correct Answer: b) No, skimming the text quickly and then moving to the questions to guide your scanning is generally more efficient
Explanation:
Reading deeply wastes time. Skim for 2-3 minutes to understand the layout, then let the questions tell you what specific details to hunt for.
77. What is the best way to handle 'Matching Features' questions when there are multiple names?
Correct Answer: b) Underline or highlight all occurrences of the names in the text before reading the statements
Explanation:
Creating a map of where all the names appear in the text allows you to quickly cross-reference statements with the relevant sections.
78. If you write 'T' instead of 'True' on your answer sheet, will it be accepted?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, standard marking guidelines generally accept T for True and F for False, though it's safer to write the full word
Explanation:
While 'T', 'F', and 'NG' are routinely accepted by examiners, writing the full word avoids any ambiguity in your handwriting.
79. What is the difference between 'True' and 'Yes'?
Correct Answer: b) True confirms facts; Yes confirms the writer's opinions or claims
Explanation:
Though they function similarly for test-taking logic, IELTS distinguishes between verifying objective facts (True) and verifying subjective views (Yes).
80. Can you use American spelling in your Reading answers (e.g., 'color' instead of 'colour')?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, standard American, British, and Australian spellings are all accepted
Explanation:
IELTS is an international test and accepts all recognized standard English spelling variations.
81. If a text includes a footnote with an asterisk (*), what should you do?
Correct Answer: b) Read it, as it usually provides the definition of a difficult or specialized word used in the text
Explanation:
Footnotes or glossaries at the bottom of the page provide vital definitions for technical terms that you are not expected to know.
82. What does a 'Summary Completion' task without a box require?
Correct Answer: b) Extracting exact words from the text to fill the blanks, adhering to a strict word limit
Explanation:
Without a word box provided, you must scan the text for the exact word that fits the blank and write it directly on the answer sheet.
83. Which of the following is true regarding grammar in completion questions?
Correct Answer: b) You must not alter the word from the text; if it doesn't fit grammatically, you have chosen the wrong word
Explanation:
Extracting words must be done verbatim. If the exact word from the text creates bad grammar in the summary, you have found the wrong word.
84. What is the function of words like 'However', 'Therefore', and 'Furthermore' in the text?
Correct Answer: b) They act as signposts, showing the logical flow of arguments, shifts in opinion, or conclusions
Explanation:
Discourse markers guide the reader through the text's logic, which is crucial for answering YNNG and Matching Headings tasks.
85. If you are unsure whether an answer is 'False' or 'Not Given', what is the deciding factor?
Correct Answer: b) If the text says the exact opposite, it is False; if the text simply omits the information, it is Not Given
Explanation:
False requires direct contradictory evidence in the text. Not Given means the evidence is simply absent.
86. Why is Section 3 of the GT Reading test considered difficult?
Correct Answer: b) It contains a single, long, complex text with discursive or descriptive language, similar to the Academic test
Explanation:
While Sections 1 and 2 of GT are everyday survival English, Section 3 requires handling a long, complex text of general interest.
87. What happens if a candidate writes two different answers for one question? (e.g., 'True/Not Given')
Correct Answer: c) The answer is marked wrong because it is ambiguous
Explanation:
You must provide one clear, definitive answer. Providing multiple options will result in zero marks.
88. How should a candidate manage reading texts about unfamiliar, highly specialized topics?
Correct Answer: b) Remember that IELTS is a language test, and all answers are contained within the text regardless of the topic
Explanation:
You don't need to be an expert in astrophysics or history to answer the questions; it is purely a test of reading comprehension.
89. In 'Matching Paragraph Information', what kind of information might you be asked to locate?
Correct Answer: b) A specific detail, a reason, a summary, a comparison, or an example
Explanation:
Matching info requires you to hunt for a very specific type of detail, such as 'a description of a specific mechanism' or 'an example of a failed experiment'.
90. If you finish the Reading test early, what should you do?
Correct Answer: c) Use the remaining time to check spelling, verify word limits, and attempt any unanswered questions
Explanation:
Never waste spare time. Review your answer sheet for careless errors like missing plural 's' or exceeding word counts.
91. If a multiple-choice question asks 'What is the writer’s main point in the second paragraph?', what should you read?
Correct Answer: c) Only the second paragraph, focusing on the topic and concluding sentences
Explanation:
When a question points to a specific paragraph, restrict your reading to that paragraph to avoid being confused by distractors from other parts of the text.
92. In a 'Flow-chart completion' task, what does the flow-chart represent?
Correct Answer: b) A sequence of events, stages, or a process described in the text
Explanation:
Flow-charts visually map out a process (like manufacturing or an application procedure). The blanks require you to complete the steps based on the text.
93. When scanning, how does using your finger or a pencil help?
Correct Answer: b) It guides your eyes down the page systematically, preventing you from reading every word and speeding up keyword location
Explanation:
Using a pencil as a pacing tool is a proven scanning technique to stop yourself from falling into the trap of reading slowly and deeply.
94. What is the best way to handle a passage title that contains a word you don't know?
Correct Answer: c) Look for a subtitle or read the first paragraph, which usually defines or gives context to the title word
Explanation:
If a key term is obscure, the writer almost always defines it immediately in the opening lines to establish context for the reader.
95. If the text uses the word 'inexpensive', which word in a question might be a paraphrase of it?
Correct Answer: b) Cheap
Explanation:
'Cheap' is a direct synonym for 'inexpensive'. Recognizing these vocabulary connections is how you locate answers.
96. Can you take the question booklet home after the paper-based test?
Correct Answer: b) No, all test materials are highly secure and must be handed back to the invigilator
Explanation:
Security protocols demand that all papers, including your rough notes and the question booklet, are collected before you leave the room.
97. If an answer is a plural noun (e.g., 'scientists'), but a candidate writes the singular form ('scientist'), what is the result?
Correct Answer: c) Zero marks, because grammar and exact extraction matter
Explanation:
A missing plural 's' makes the answer grammatically incorrect or factually inaccurate based on the text, resulting in no points.
98. In 'Matching Headings', why is it dangerous to only read the first sentence of a paragraph?
Correct Answer: b) Because the paragraph might introduce an idea in the first sentence but pivot with 'However' to a completely different main point
Explanation:
While the first sentence often has the topic, a paragraph can easily shift focus using contrasting discourse markers. You must skim the whole paragraph to confirm.
99. Which of these is the most effective overarching strategy to prepare for the IELTS Reading test?
Correct Answer: b) Reading widely from diverse, high-level English sources and practicing timed tests
Explanation:
Broad reading builds vocabulary and comprehension speed, while timed practice trains you in specific exam strategies and time management.
