International Relations (IR) is a major subfield of political science dedicated to analyzing political, economic, and security interactions among sovereign states, non-state actors, and international organizations. Formally established as an academic discipline after World War I, IR investigates why states go to war, how international order is maintained, and how global institutions function under systemic anarchy. The discipline is anchored by core theoretical paradigms including Realism, Liberalism, Constructivism, and Marxism which provide competing frameworks for interpreting state power, diplomacy, and global governance. Mastering IR terminology, institutional frameworks, and analytical paradigms is vital for students preparing for civil service examinations, university assessments, and diplomatic career tests.
1. Who is considered a primary founder of classical realism in modern International Relations?
Correct Answer: b) Hans Morgenthau
Explanation:
Hans Morgenthau's work, especially 'Politics Among Nations', established the framework for classical realism.
2. Which ancient Greek historian's work on the Peloponnesian War is often cited as an early realist text?
Correct Answer: c) Thucydides
Explanation:
Thucydides wrote the 'History of the Peloponnesian War', highlighting power dynamics and self-interest.
3. Neorealism, or structural realism, was primarily developed by which scholar?
Correct Answer: a) Kenneth Waltz
Explanation:
Kenneth Waltz developed neorealism in his 1979 book 'Theory of International Politics'.
4. According to realism, what is the primary actor in international relations?
Correct Answer: c) The state
Explanation:
Realism posits that the sovereign state is the principal and most important actor in the international system.
5. Which concept describes the absence of a central global authority above states?
Correct Answer: b) Anarchy
Explanation:
In IR, anarchy refers to the lack of a supreme worldwide government or central authority.
6. Offensive realism, which argues states seek to maximize power to ensure survival, is associated with:
Correct Answer: a) John Mearsheimer
Explanation:
John Mearsheimer is the leading proponent of offensive realism.
7. Which IR theory emphasizes the role of institutions in mitigating anarchy?
Correct Answer: c) Neoliberal Institutionalism
Explanation:
Neoliberal institutionalism argues that international institutions can facilitate cooperation despite anarchy.
8. The concept of 'Complex Interdependence' was introduced by:
Correct Answer: b) Keohane and Nye
Explanation:
Robert Keohane and Joseph Nye developed the theory of complex interdependence in the 1970s.
9. The Democratic Peace Theory suggests that:
Correct Answer: b) Democracies rarely go to war with one another.
Explanation:
The theory posits that democratic states do not engage in armed conflict with other democratic states.
10. Which philosopher's essay 'Perpetual Peace' laid the groundwork for Democratic Peace Theory?
Correct Answer: c) Immanuel Kant
Explanation:
Kant's 1795 essay argued that a federation of free republics would lead to perpetual peace.
11. Constructivism in IR focuses primarily on:
Correct Answer: c) Ideas, identities, and norms
Explanation:
Constructivism argues that international relations are socially constructed by shared ideas and norms.
12. Who famously stated 'Anarchy is what states make of it'?
Correct Answer: a) Alexander Wendt
Explanation:
Alexander Wendt coined this phrase to explain that anarchy does not inherently necessitate a self-help system.
13. Marxist theory in IR primarily focuses on:
Correct Answer: b) Class struggle and global capitalism
Explanation:
Marxism views the international system through the lens of economic classes and capital accumulation.
14. Dependency Theory emerged primarily to explain the economic conditions in:
Correct Answer: c) Latin America
Explanation:
Dependency Theory originated in Latin America to explain why developing countries were structurally disadvantaged.
15. According to Dependency Theory, the global system is divided into:
Correct Answer: b) Core and Periphery
Explanation:
The theory posits a wealthy 'core' that exploits a poorer 'periphery'.
16. World-Systems Theory, which expands on Marxist IR views, was developed by:
Correct Answer: c) Immanuel Wallerstein
Explanation:
Immanuel Wallerstein developed World-Systems Theory, adding the 'semi-periphery' category.
17. Feminist theory in IR argues that traditional IR theories:
Correct Answer: b) Are inherently biased toward male-centric concepts of power.
Explanation:
Feminist IR scholars critique traditional theories for ignoring women and favoring patriarchal concepts of security.
18. Which concept refers to a state's supreme and absolute authority within its territorial boundaries?
Correct Answer: b) Sovereignty
Explanation:
Sovereignty is the defining characteristic of a state's independent legal and political authority.
19. The modern system of sovereign states is traditionally traced back to which treaty?
Correct Answer: c) Peace of Westphalia
Explanation:
The 1648 Peace of Westphalia is widely considered the foundation of the modern sovereign state system.
20. What is 'Hard Power'?
Correct Answer: b) Economic and military coercion
Explanation:
Hard power involves the use of military force or economic sanctions to influence behavior.
21. Who coined the term 'Soft Power'?
Correct Answer: a) Joseph Nye
Explanation:
Joseph Nye introduced 'soft power', defined as the ability to attract and co-opt rather than coerce.
22. What is 'Smart Power'?
Correct Answer: c) The strategic combination of hard and soft power.
Explanation:
Smart power integrates military/economic tools with cultural/ideological attraction.
23. The 'Security Dilemma' occurs when:
Correct Answer: a) A state's actions to increase its own security decrease the security of others.
Explanation:
This leads to an arms race, as other states respond by building up their own defenses.
24. Which term describes a system dominated by a single major power?
Correct Answer: c) Unipolarity
Explanation:
Unipolarity refers to an international system with one dominant superpower, or hegemon.
25. The Cold War international system is best described as:
Correct Answer: b) Bipolar
Explanation:
The Cold War was characterized by two dominant superpowers: the US and the USSR.
26. Balance of Power theory suggests that stability is maintained when:
Correct Answer: b) Military power is distributed so no single state can dominate.
Explanation:
The balance of power prevents any one state from achieving hegemony and threatening others.
27. What does 'Bandwagoning' mean in IR?
Correct Answer: b) Aligning with a stronger, threatening power for safety or profit.
Explanation:
Bandwagoning is the opposite of balancing; it involves siding with the dominant or rising power.
28. Deterrence theory aims to:
Correct Answer: b) Prevent an adversary from acting by threatening severe retaliation.
Explanation:
Deterrence relies on the threat of unacceptable punishment to stop an opponent from attacking.
29. MAD stands for:
Correct Answer: b) Mutually Assured Destruction
Explanation:
MAD is a doctrine of military strategy where full-scale use of nuclear weapons would cause the annihilation of both sides.
30. Which agreement established the League of Nations?
Correct Answer: b) Treaty of Versailles
Explanation:
The League of Nations was founded in 1920 following the Paris Peace Conference and the Treaty of Versailles.
31. Why did the League of Nations ultimately fail?
Correct Answer: a) It lacked an enforcement mechanism and major powers like the US did not join.
Explanation:
Without the US and an effective military force, the League could not stop aggression in the 1930s.
32. In what year was the United Nations established?
Correct Answer: b) 1945
Explanation:
The UN was founded on October 24, 1945, after the end of World War II.
33. How many principal organs does the United Nations have?
Correct Answer: c) Six
Explanation:
They are the General Assembly, Security Council, ECOSOC, Trusteeship Council, ICJ, and Secretariat.
34. Which UN organ has the power to issue binding resolutions on member states?
Correct Answer: b) Security Council
Explanation:
Under Chapter VII of the UN Charter, Security Council resolutions are legally binding.
35. How many permanent members are on the UN Security Council?
Correct Answer: a) Five
Explanation:
The P5 are the USA, UK, France, Russia, and China.
36. What special power do the permanent members of the UN Security Council possess?
Correct Answer: b) The right to veto substantive resolutions.
Explanation:
Any of the P5 can veto a substantive resolution, preventing its adoption.
37. How many non-permanent members serve on the UN Security Council?
Correct Answer: b) Ten
Explanation:
There are 10 non-permanent members, elected for two-year terms by the General Assembly.
38. The administrative head of the United Nations is the:
Correct Answer: c) Secretary-General
Explanation:
The Secretary-General is the chief administrative officer of the UN, heading the Secretariat.
39. Where is the headquarters of the International Court of Justice (ICJ)?
Correct Answer: c) The Hague, Netherlands
Explanation:
The ICJ is located at the Peace Palace in The Hague, Netherlands.
40. What is the primary function of the ICJ?
Correct Answer: b) To settle legal disputes between states.
Explanation:
The ICJ handles civil disputes between sovereign states and gives advisory opinions.
41. Which institution tries individuals for genocide, war crimes, and crimes against humanity?
Correct Answer: b) International Criminal Court (ICC)
Explanation:
The ICC, established by the Rome Statute, prosecutes individuals for international crimes.
42. The Rome Statute is the foundational treaty of which organization?
Correct Answer: b) International Criminal Court
Explanation:
Adopted in 1998, the Rome Statute created the ICC.
43. Which economic conference in 1944 established the IMF and the World Bank?
Correct Answer: c) Bretton Woods Conference
Explanation:
The Bretton Woods Conference established the post-WWII international monetary system.
44. What is the primary role of the International Monetary Fund (IMF)?
Correct Answer: b) Ensuring stability of the international monetary system and managing balance of payments difficulties.
Explanation:
The IMF provides short-term financial assistance to countries facing balance of payments crises.
45. The primary objective of the World Bank is:
Correct Answer: b) Poverty reduction and long-term economic development
Explanation:
The World Bank focuses on long-term development projects and poverty alleviation in developing nations.
46. What organization replaced the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) in 1995?
Correct Answer: b) World Trade Organization (WTO)
Explanation:
The WTO was established in 1995 to replace GATT and manage rules of international trade.
47. In international trade, what does the 'Most-Favored-Nation' (MFN) principle mean?
Correct Answer: c) Treating all WTO members equally regarding tariffs and trade barriers.
Explanation:
Under WTO rules, a concession granted to one member must be granted to all (with some exceptions).
48. Mercantilism is an economic theory that advocates:
Correct Answer: b) Maximizing exports and minimizing imports to accumulate national wealth.
Explanation:
Mercantilism views international trade as a zero-sum game aimed at building state power.
49. Who developed the theory of 'Comparative Advantage'?
Correct Answer: c) David Ricardo
Explanation:
David Ricardo formulated the theory, showing that countries benefit from trade even if one is more efficient at producing everything.
50. Globalization is best defined as:
Correct Answer: b) The increasing integration and interdependence of national economies and societies.
Explanation:
Globalization refers to the rapid global flows of goods, services, capital, and ideas.
51. Which theory argues that globalization is weakening the authority of the nation-state?
Correct Answer: a) Hyperglobalism
Explanation:
Hyperglobalists believe that economic globalization is making the nation-state obsolete.
52. A Multinational Corporation (MNC) is defined as:
Correct Answer: b) A firm that operates and controls production in more than one country.
Explanation:
MNCs have facilities and assets in at least one country other than their home country.
53. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) refers to:
Correct Answer: b) An investment made by a firm in one country into business interests in another country.
Explanation:
FDI involves establishing a lasting interest, such as building a factory in a foreign country.
54. The European Union (EU) grew out of which original organization established in 1951?
Correct Answer: b) European Coal and Steel Community
Explanation:
The ECSC integrated the coal and steel industries of six Western European countries, preventing future war.
55. Which 1992 treaty formally established the European Union?
Correct Answer: c) Maastricht Treaty
Explanation:
The Maastricht Treaty created the EU and laid the groundwork for the Euro.
56. What is the primary function of the Schengen Agreement in Europe?
Correct Answer: b) Abolishing internal border checks to allow free movement of people.
Explanation:
The Schengen Area operates largely as a single jurisdiction for travel purposes, without internal borders.
57. Brexit refers to the departure of which country from the European Union?
Correct Answer: b) United Kingdom
Explanation:
The UK officially left the EU following a 2016 referendum.
58. ASEAN stands for:
Correct Answer: a) Association of Southeast Asian Nations
Explanation:
ASEAN is a regional intergovernmental organization fostering cooperation in Southeast Asia.
59. Which principle is a cornerstone of the 'ASEAN Way'?
Correct Answer: b) Non-interference in the internal affairs of member states
Explanation:
The ASEAN Way emphasizes consensus and strict non-interference in domestic matters.
60. The African Union (AU) was launched in 2002 as the successor to which organization?
Correct Answer: b) Organization of African Unity (OAU)
Explanation:
The OAU was disbanded and replaced by the AU to accelerate integration and cooperation.
61. SAARC is a regional intergovernmental organization primarily focused on:
Correct Answer: b) South Asia
Explanation:
SAARC stands for the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation.
62. The military alliance formed in 1949 by Western nations to counter the Soviet threat is:
Correct Answer: c) NATO
Explanation:
The North Atlantic Treaty Organization is a collective defense alliance between North American and European countries.
63. Article 5 of the NATO treaty states that:
Correct Answer: b) An armed attack against one member is considered an attack against them all.
Explanation:
Article 5 is the principle of collective defense.
64. The Soviet-led counter-alliance to NATO during the Cold War was the:
Correct Answer: b) Warsaw Pact
Explanation:
The Warsaw Pact was a collective defense treaty signed in 1955 among the Soviet Union and its satellite states.
65. Which conflict is generally considered the immediate cause of World War I?
Correct Answer: b) The assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand
Explanation:
The assassination in Sarajevo in 1914 triggered a chain of alliances leading to WWI.
66. The policy of 'Appeasement' is most closely associated with which pre-WWII event?
Correct Answer: a) The Munich Agreement of 1938
Explanation:
Britain and France appeased Hitler by allowing Germany to annex the Sudetenland in Czechoslovakia.
67. The geopolitical doctrine stating the US would provide assistance to democratic nations under threat from authoritarian forces was the:
Correct Answer: b) Truman Doctrine
Explanation:
Announced in 1947, it effectively established the US policy of containment toward the Soviet Union.
68. What was the Marshall Plan?
Correct Answer: b) A US economic program to rebuild Western European economies after WWII.
Explanation:
The 1948 Marshall Plan aimed to reconstruct Europe and prevent the spread of communism.
69. The strategy of 'Containment' was articulated by which American diplomat?
Correct Answer: b) George F. Kennan
Explanation:
Kennan articulated containment in his famous 'Long Telegram' and the 'X Article' in 1947.
70. The 1962 crisis that brought the US and USSR closest to nuclear war was the:
Correct Answer: c) Cuban Missile Crisis
Explanation:
The 13-day confrontation over Soviet ballistic missiles deployed in Cuba almost led to nuclear war.
71. The physical boundary dividing Europe into two separate areas from the end of WWII until the end of the Cold War was known as:
Correct Answer: b) The Iron Curtain
Explanation:
Winston Churchill popularized the term 'Iron Curtain' to describe the ideological and physical divide in Europe.
72. Détente during the Cold War refers to:
Correct Answer: b) A period of improved and relaxed relations between the US and the USSR.
Explanation:
Détente occurred in the 1970s, characterized by arms control treaties and diplomatic talks.
73. Mikhail Gorbachev's policy of 'Glasnost' meant:
Correct Answer: b) Openness and increased transparency
Explanation:
Glasnost was a policy allowing for greater freedom of speech and transparency in the Soviet government.
74. Mikhail Gorbachev's policy of 'Perestroika' meant:
Correct Answer: b) Economic restructuring
Explanation:
Perestroika aimed to reform the stagnating Soviet economy by introducing limited market-like reforms.
75. In what year did the Soviet Union officially dissolve?
Correct Answer: b) 1991
Explanation:
The USSR was officially dissolved on December 26, 1991, ending the Cold War.
76. Francis Fukuyama's essay 'The End of History?' argued that:
Correct Answer: b) Liberal democracy and free-market capitalism had triumphed as the final form of human government.
Explanation:
Fukuyama posited this following the collapse of the Soviet Union.
77. Samuel Huntington's 'Clash of Civilizations' theory suggests that in the post-Cold War world, conflicts would be driven primarily by:
Correct Answer: c) Cultural and religious identities
Explanation:
Huntington argued that future wars would not be fought between countries, but between cultures/civilizations.
78. The concept of 'R2P' in international relations stands for:
Correct Answer: b) Responsibility to Protect
Explanation:
R2P is a global political commitment to prevent genocide, war crimes, ethnic cleansing, and crimes against humanity.
79. Under R2P, if a state fails to protect its populations, the responsibility falls to:
Correct Answer: b) The international community
Explanation:
The international community must take appropriate collective action, usually through the UN, when a state fails.
80. The universal document adopted by the UN in 1948 outlining fundamental human rights is the:
Correct Answer: c) Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR)
Explanation:
The UDHR is a milestone document in the history of human rights.
81. The Geneva Conventions primarily establish international legal standards for:
Correct Answer: b) Humanitarian treatment in war
Explanation:
The Conventions protect people who are not taking part in hostilities (civilians, medics) and POWs.
82. Which UN treaty aims to prevent the spread of nuclear weapons and weapons technology?
Correct Answer: b) Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)
Explanation:
The NPT aims to prevent the spread of nuclear weapons while promoting peaceful nuclear energy.
83. Which international organization is responsible for verifying that states comply with their NPT commitments?
Correct Answer: c) International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)
Explanation:
The IAEA inspects nuclear facilities to ensure materials are not diverted to weapons programs.
84. Under the NPT, which countries are officially recognized as Nuclear-Weapon States?
Correct Answer: a) US, Russia, China, France, UK
Explanation:
These five states manufactured and exploded a nuclear weapon prior to January 1, 1967.
85. Which country withdrew from the NPT in 2003 and subsequently tested nuclear weapons?
Correct Answer: c) North Korea
Explanation:
North Korea is the only country to have ever withdrawn from the NPT.
86. The Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT) aims to:
Correct Answer: a) Ban all nuclear explosions, for both civilian and military purposes.
Explanation:
The CTBT prohibits any nuclear weapon test explosion in any environment.
87. Terrorism is generally defined in IR as:
Correct Answer: b) The use of violence by non-state actors against civilians to achieve political goals.
Explanation:
While definitions vary, the core element is politically motivated violence against non-combatants.
88. Asymmetric warfare refers to a conflict where:
Correct Answer: b) Opposing forces have vastly unequal military power or capabilities.
Explanation:
Insurgencies and terrorism are classic examples of asymmetric warfare against stronger state militaries.
89. Cyber warfare in international relations is characterized by:
Correct Answer: b) State or non-state actions targeting computer systems to cause disruption or damage.
Explanation:
Cyber warfare involves digital attacks to sabotage infrastructure, steal data, or disrupt communications.
90. The Stuxnet computer worm, discovered in 2010, is famous for targeting:
Correct Answer: c) Iran's nuclear facilities
Explanation:
Stuxnet was a highly sophisticated cyber weapon designed to sabotage Iran's uranium enrichment centrifuges.
91. What is the primary goal of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)?
Correct Answer: b) To stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations to prevent dangerous anthropogenic interference with the climate.
Explanation:
The UNFCCC was signed in 1992 to coordinate a global response to climate change.
92. The 1997 Kyoto Protocol was significant because it:
Correct Answer: a) Placed legally binding emissions reduction targets on developed nations.
Explanation:
Kyoto differentiated between developed and developing countries, placing binding targets only on the former.
93. The 2015 Paris Agreement fundamentally differs from the Kyoto Protocol by:
Correct Answer: b) Requiring all countries to submit voluntary national climate action plans.
Explanation:
Under Paris, all nations submit Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) rather than top-down binding targets.
94. The 'Tragedy of the Commons' is a concept used in IR to explain:
Correct Answer: b) Overexploitation of shared resources like oceans and the atmosphere.
Explanation:
Individuals acting in self-interest deplete a shared resource, harming the collective.
95. What is 'Soft Balancing'?
Correct Answer: b) Using diplomacy, international institutions, and economic ties to constrain a hegemon.
Explanation:
Instead of military force, soft balancing uses non-military means to frustrate a dominant power's goals.
96. BRICS is an association of five major emerging economies. Which countries are the original five?
Correct Answer: b) Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa
Explanation:
BRICS represents leading developing or newly industrialized countries shifting the global economic balance.
97. The 'Thucydides Trap' refers to:
Correct Answer: b) The high probability of war when a rising power threatens to displace a ruling power.
Explanation:
Coined by Graham Allison, it describes the structural stress between a rising China and a ruling US.
98. Which theory asserts that the international system is shaped by the unequal exchange between the 'Core' and the 'Periphery'?
Correct Answer: c) World-Systems Theory
Explanation:
Immanuel Wallerstein's theory focuses on the global economic division of labor.
99. Public Diplomacy is best described as:
Correct Answer: b) A government's efforts to influence the public in other countries.
Explanation:
Public diplomacy aims to build goodwill and influence foreign publics directly, using soft power.
100. What is 'Track II Diplomacy'?
Correct Answer: c) Unofficial, non-governmental dialogues aimed at resolving conflicts.
Explanation:
Track II involves academics, retired officials, and NGOs facilitating dialogue outside formal government channels.
101. Economic Sanctions are used in IR to:
Correct Answer: b) Coerce a target country into changing its policies by restricting trade and financial flows.
Explanation:
Sanctions are a tool of hard power aimed at inflicting economic pain to compel political change.
102. The concept of 'Geopolitics' primarily analyzes:
Correct Answer: a) The impact of geography on international politics and state power.
Explanation:
Geopolitics looks at how location, resources, and terrain influence a state's strategic choices.
103. Halford Mackinder's 'Heartland Theory' proposed that:
Correct Answer: b) Who rules Eastern Europe commands the Heartland, and ultimately the world.
Explanation:
Mackinder argued that the vast Eurasian landmass (the Heartland) was the pivot of global geopolitical power.
104. Alfred Thayer Mahan emphasized the critical importance of which domain in achieving global power?
Correct Answer: b) Sea power
Explanation:
Mahan argued that naval dominance was essential for a state to achieve commercial and military greatness.
105. The 'Monroe Doctrine' of 1823 asserted that:
Correct Answer: b) The Americas were closed to further European colonization.
Explanation:
President Monroe warned European powers against interfering in the affairs of the Western Hemisphere.
106. Which agreement ended the Thirty Years' War and established the concept of state sovereignty?
Correct Answer: b) Peace of Westphalia
Explanation:
The 1648 Peace of Westphalia is recognized as the origin of the modern system of sovereign states.
107. The Congress of Vienna (1814-1815) aimed to:
Correct Answer: b) Restore the balance of power in Europe after the Napoleonic Wars.
Explanation:
The Congress sought to prevent future major wars by creating a stable balance among European powers.
108. The 'Concert of Europe' was:
Correct Answer: b) An early system of collective security among major European powers to maintain stability.
Explanation:
It was a mechanism for the Great Powers to consult and prevent conflicts after the Napoleonic Wars.
109. In IR theory, the 'Agent-Structure problem' refers to:
Correct Answer: b) The debate over whether state behavior is driven by the state's own choices or by the international system.
Explanation:
It examines how individuals/states (agents) and the overarching system (structure) mutually influence each other.
110. Which of the following is NOT considered a Non-Governmental Organization (NGO)?
Correct Answer: c) The World Bank
Explanation:
The World Bank is an Intergovernmental Organization (IGO), not an NGO.
111. An Intergovernmental Organization (IGO) is primarily composed of:
Correct Answer: c) Sovereign states
Explanation:
IGOs, like the UN or NATO, are established by treaties between sovereign states.
112. The term 'Global South' generally refers to:
Correct Answer: b) Developing or less developed nations, primarily in Africa, Asia, and Latin America.
Explanation:
The Global South is a socio-economic and political designation for developing nations.
113. The Group of 77 (G77) at the United Nations is a coalition of:
Correct Answer: b) Developing nations aiming to promote their collective economic interests.
Explanation:
Founded in 1964, the G77 helps developing countries leverage their joint negotiating capacity.
114. What does the term 'Bilateralism' mean?
Correct Answer: b) Diplomatic, political, or economic relations involving two states.
Explanation:
Bilateral relations are interactions conducted specifically between two sovereign entities.
115. Multilateralism involves:
Correct Answer: a) Three or more countries coordinating policies and actions.
Explanation:
Institutions like the UN and WTO are prime examples of multilateralism.
116. Unilateralism in foreign policy occurs when a state:
Correct Answer: b) Acts alone, without the support or agreement of other states.
Explanation:
Unilateral action prioritizes national interest without waiting for international consensus.
117. The 'English School' of International Relations theory is best known for its concept of:
Correct Answer: b) International Society
Explanation:
The English School argues that despite anarchy, states form a society bound by shared norms and rules.
118. Hedley Bull, a prominent figure in the English School, wrote which foundational book?
Correct Answer: a) The Anarchical Society
Explanation:
Bull's 1977 book argued that order exists in world politics despite the lack of a supreme government.
119. In international law, 'Jus ad bellum' refers to:
Correct Answer: b) The right or justification for going to war.
Explanation:
Jus ad bellum outlines the conditions under which states may legally resort to armed force.
120. In international law, 'Jus in bello' refers to:
Correct Answer: b) The laws governing conduct during a war.
Explanation:
Jus in bello regulates the behavior of parties in an armed conflict, aiming to minimize suffering.
121. Which of the following is considered a legitimate exception to the UN Charter's prohibition on the use of force?
Correct Answer: b) Self-defense against an armed attack.
Explanation:
Article 51 of the UN Charter explicitly recognizes the inherent right of individual or collective self-defense.
122. The term 'Proliferation' in IR almost always refers to:
Correct Answer: b) The spread of nuclear, chemical, or biological weapons.
Explanation:
Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD) proliferation is a central concern of international security.
123. What is the primary difference between arms control and disarmament?
Correct Answer: b) Arms control regulates and limits weapons; disarmament seeks their complete elimination.
Explanation:
Arms control manages the arms race, while disarmament aims to destroy existing stockpiles.
124. The Strategic Arms Limitation Talks (SALT) were bilateral agreements between:
Correct Answer: b) US and Soviet Union
Explanation:
SALT I and II aimed to restrain the nuclear arms race during the Cold War.
125. The Anti-Ballistic Missile (ABM) Treaty of 1972 aimed to limit defensive missile systems because:
Correct Answer: b) Limiting defenses preserved the stabilizing effect of Mutually Assured Destruction.
Explanation:
If one side built perfect defenses, they might feel safe initiating a first strike, destabilizing MAD.
126. The US withdrew from the ABM Treaty in 2002 to:
Correct Answer: b) Develop a national missile defense system.
Explanation:
President George W. Bush argued the treaty hindered the US from protecting itself against rogue states.
127. The concept of a 'Zero-Sum Game' implies that:
Correct Answer: b) One actor's gain is exactly equal to another actor's loss.
Explanation:
Realists often view international security as a zero-sum game, where power gained by one is lost by another.
128. In a 'Positive-Sum Game':
Correct Answer: a) Both parties can benefit and increase their total wealth or security.
Explanation:
Liberals view trade and cooperation as positive-sum games where all participants can experience absolute gains.
129. Absolute gains refer to:
Correct Answer: b) How much a state benefits intrinsically, regardless of whether others also benefit.
Explanation:
Liberalism focuses on absolute gains, arguing states will cooperate if they end up better off than before.
130. Relative gains refer to:
Correct Answer: b) How much one state gains in comparison to the gains of another state.
Explanation:
Realism emphasizes relative gains, as states worry that partners might gain more and become a threat.
131. Which agreement created the framework for the modern international monetary system based on pegged exchange rates to the US dollar?
Correct Answer: b) Bretton Woods Agreement
Explanation:
The 1944 Bretton Woods system tied global currencies to the dollar, which was pegged to gold.
132. The 'Nixon Shock' of 1971 refers to:
Correct Answer: b) The unilateral cancellation of the direct international convertibility of the US dollar to gold.
Explanation:
This effectively ended the Bretton Woods system of fixed exchange rates.
133. The 'Washington Consensus' refers to:
Correct Answer: a) A set of free-market economic policies promoted by the IMF and World Bank for developing nations.
Explanation:
Coined in 1989, it advocates privatization, deregulation, and trade liberalization.
134. Import Substitution Industrialization (ISI) is an economic policy that advocates:
Correct Answer: b) Replacing foreign imports with domestic production to reduce foreign dependency.
Explanation:
ISI was popular in Latin America in the mid-20th century to build local industrial capacity.
135. Export-Oriented Industrialization (EOI) was successfully utilized by:
Correct Answer: a) The 'Asian Tigers' (South Korea, Taiwan, Hong Kong, Singapore)
Explanation:
EOI focuses on speeding up industrialization by exporting goods for which the nation has a comparative advantage.
136. OPEC stands for:
Correct Answer: a) Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries
Explanation:
OPEC is a cartel that coordinates the petroleum policies of its member countries.
137. The 1973 Oil Crisis was triggered by:
Correct Answer: b) An OPEC oil embargo against nations that supported Israel during the Yom Kippur War.
Explanation:
The embargo caused massive oil price shocks and fundamentally changed global energy politics.
138. Which of the following is considered a 'Rogue State' in modern geopolitical discourse?
Correct Answer: c) North Korea
Explanation:
The term is used by the US to describe authoritarian states that threaten world peace and seek WMDs.
139. A 'Failed State' is characterized by:
Correct Answer: b) The inability to provide basic public services, maintain order, or control its territory.
Explanation:
Somalia in the 1990s is a classic example of a collapsed or failed state.
140. Nation-building refers to:
Correct Answer: b) Efforts, often foreign-led, to construct or strengthen a state's institutions and national identity.
Explanation:
It often follows interventions or conflicts, aiming to create a stable, functioning state.
141. The concept of 'National Interest' is central to which IR theory?
Correct Answer: a) Realism
Explanation:
Realists argue that states act primarily to protect and advance their national interests, defined usually in terms of power.
142. Hegemonic Stability Theory argues that:
Correct Answer: b) The international system is most stable when a single nation-state is the dominant global power.
Explanation:
A hegemon can enforce rules, provide public goods, and deter aggression, stabilizing the system.
143. Which war is often cited as a failure of multipolarity and complex alliance systems?
Correct Answer: a) World War I
Explanation:
The rigid, multipolar alliance networks of early 20th-century Europe dragged major powers into WWI.
144. The 'Prisoner's Dilemma' is a game theory model used in IR to explain:
Correct Answer: b) Why two rational states might not cooperate even if it appears in their best interest to do so.
Explanation:
Fear of defection leads both sides to arm or defect, resulting in a suboptimal outcome for both.
145. Which UN body is responsible for coordinating the economic and social fields of the organization?
Correct Answer: c) ECOSOC
Explanation:
The Economic and Social Council coordinates the economic, social, and related work of the UN.
146. The G20 primarily focuses on:
Correct Answer: b) Global economic governance and financial stability
Explanation:
The Group of 20 comprises major advanced and emerging economies to address global economic issues.
147. Who was the primary architect of the 'New World Order' concept following the Cold War?
Correct Answer: b) George H.W. Bush
Explanation:
Bush popularized the term during the Gulf War, envisioning an era of unprecedented cooperation led by the UN.
148. The 1990-1991 Gulf War was triggered by:
Correct Answer: b) Iraq's invasion of Kuwait.
Explanation:
Saddam Hussein's invasion of Kuwait led to a massive UN-authorized, US-led coalition response.
149. Which of the following is NOT a permanent member of the UN Security Council?
Correct Answer: a) Germany
Explanation:
Germany is a major power but not one of the P5 members holding veto power.
150. The term 'Balkanization' refers to:
Correct Answer: b) The fragmentation of a larger region or state into smaller, often mutually hostile regions or states.
Explanation:
Named after the geopolitical history of the Balkan Peninsula, especially the violent breakup of Yugoslavia.
151. Which agreement formally ended the war in Bosnia and Herzegovina in 1995?
Correct Answer: b) Dayton Agreement
Explanation:
The Dayton Agreement partitioned Bosnia into two main entities while preserving its international borders.
152. The Oslo Accords (1993) were an attempt to resolve which conflict?
Correct Answer: c) The Israeli-Palestinian Conflict
Explanation:
The Accords created the Palestinian Authority and were a major step in the peace process.
153. Who brokered the 1978 Camp David Accords between Egypt and Israel?
Correct Answer: b) Jimmy Carter
Explanation:
President Carter facilitated the peace treaty between Anwar Sadat and Menachem Begin.
154. The concept of 'Mutually Assured Destruction' (MAD) relies on the ability to survive a first strike. This is known as:
Correct Answer: b) Second-strike capability
Explanation:
A state must have enough surviving nuclear weapons to retaliate and destroy the attacker, ensuring deterrence.
155. Which policy involved pushing a dangerous situation to the verge of disaster to achieve the most advantageous outcome?
Correct Answer: c) Brinkmanship
Explanation:
Famously associated with John Foster Dulles and the Cuban Missile Crisis.
156. The 'Domino Theory' posited that:
Correct Answer: b) If one country in a region fell to communism, surrounding countries would follow.
Explanation:
This theory justified US intervention in Vietnam to prevent the spread of communism in Southeast Asia.
157. Which event is generally recognized as marking the end of the Cold War?
Correct Answer: b) The fall of the Berlin Wall and dissolution of the USSR
Explanation:
The fall of the Wall in 1989 and the USSR's collapse in 1991 ended the bipolar superpower standoff.
158. The Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) was established primarily to:
Correct Answer: b) Ensure the independence of developing countries avoiding alignment with the US or USSR.
Explanation:
NAM provided a path for states to remain neutral during the Cold War.
159. Which conference in 1955 laid the foundation for the Non-Aligned Movement?
Correct Answer: b) Bandung Conference
Explanation:
The Asian-African Conference in Bandung, Indonesia, promoted economic and cultural cooperation.
160. Which scholar is famous for the concept of 'Structural Violence'?
Correct Answer: a) Johan Galtung
Explanation:
Galtung defined structural violence as harm caused by social structures or institutions preventing people from meeting basic needs.
161. Peacebuilding differs from peacekeeping by focusing on:
Correct Answer: b) Addressing the root causes of conflict to create lasting peace and development.
Explanation:
Peacebuilding is a long-term process of rebuilding institutions and civil society.
162. UN Peacekeepers are often colloquially known by what name due to their uniform?
Correct Answer: b) Blue Helmets
Explanation:
UN military personnel wear distinct blue helmets or berets for easy identification.
163. Can UN Peacekeepers generally use offensive force?
Correct Answer: b) No, they are typically restricted to using force only in self-defense or defense of the mandate.
Explanation:
Traditional peacekeeping principles include the non-use of force except in self-defense.
164. The 'Responsibility to Protect' (R2P) was invoked prominently by the UN to justify military intervention in which country in 2011?
Correct Answer: b) Libya
Explanation:
UNSC Resolution 1973 authorized military action in Libya to protect civilians under the R2P doctrine.
165. What is meant by the 'Militarization of Space'?
Correct Answer: b) The placement and development of weaponry and military technology in outer space.
Explanation:
It involves using space as a domain for warfare, including anti-satellite weapons.
166. The Outer Space Treaty of 1967 bans which of the following?
Correct Answer: a) Placing nuclear weapons or WMDs in Earth orbit.
Explanation:
The treaty ensures space is used for peaceful purposes and prohibits orbital WMDs.
167. Which body of water is currently a major flashpoint involving territorial disputes between China and several Southeast Asian nations?
Correct Answer: b) South China Sea
Explanation:
The South China Sea is heavily disputed due to strategic shipping lanes and resource deposits.
168. The 'Nine-Dash Line' is used by which country to claim historical rights over most of the South China Sea?
Correct Answer: c) China
Explanation:
China uses the nine-dash line to delineate its expansive maritime claims.
169. UNCLOS stands for:
Correct Answer: b) United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea
Explanation:
UNCLOS establishes a comprehensive legal framework for the use of the world's oceans.
170. Under UNCLOS, how far does a country's Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) typically extend from its coast?
Correct Answer: c) 200 nautical miles
Explanation:
An EEZ grants a state special rights regarding the exploration and use of marine resources up to 200 nm.
171. Under UNCLOS, how far does a country's territorial sea extend?
Correct Answer: a) 12 nautical miles
Explanation:
A state has full sovereignty over its territorial sea, up to 12 nautical miles from its baseline.
172. Which global financial crisis in 2007-2008 severely impacted international economic stability and demonstrated the risks of complex interdependence?
Correct Answer: c) The Subprime Mortgage Crisis
Explanation:
Triggered by a housing market collapse in the US, it spread globally due to interconnected financial markets.
173. A 'Proxy War' is a conflict where:
Correct Answer: b) Major powers instigate or support opposing sides in a third country's conflict without fighting directly.
Explanation:
The Cold War was characterized by numerous proxy wars, such as in Vietnam and Angola.
174. Which term describes a non-state actor that exerts influence transnationally, such as Al-Qaeda or the Red Cross?
Correct Answer: a) Transnational Actor
Explanation:
Transnational actors operate across state borders, significantly impacting international relations.
175. In IR, 'Soft Law' refers to:
Correct Answer: b) Non-binding instruments and declarations that establish norms but lack strict legal enforceability.
Explanation:
Examples include UN General Assembly resolutions and environmental guidelines.
176. The principle of 'Pacta sunt servanda' means:
Correct Answer: b) Agreements must be kept.
Explanation:
It is a foundational principle of international law, meaning treaties are binding upon the parties.
177. Diplomatic Immunity ensures that:
Correct Answer: b) Diplomats are exempt from the jurisdiction of local courts and other authorities in the host country.
Explanation:
This allows diplomats to perform their duties without fear of coercion or harassment by the host state.
178. Which treaty codified the rules of diplomatic immunity?
Correct Answer: a) The Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations (1961)
Explanation:
This convention forms the legal basis for diplomatic privileges and immunities worldwide.
179. An 'Embargo' is:
Correct Answer: b) An official ban on trade or other commercial activity with a particular country.
Explanation:
An embargo is a strong economic sanction used to isolate a state.
180. A 'Tariff' is defined as:
Correct Answer: b) A tax or duty to be paid on a particular class of imports or exports.
Explanation:
Tariffs are used to restrict trade and protect domestic industries.
181. A 'Quota' in international trade refers to:
Correct Answer: b) A government-imposed limit on the quantity or value of goods that can be imported over a period.
Explanation:
Quotas physically restrict the amount of a foreign product entering a country.
182. Protectionism is an economic policy designed to:
Correct Answer: b) Shield domestic industries from foreign competition through tariffs and quotas.
Explanation:
Protectionist policies aim to safeguard a country's own businesses and jobs.
183. The 'Race to the Bottom' in globalization refers to:
Correct Answer: b) States competitively lowering labor and environmental standards to attract foreign investment.
Explanation:
As capital becomes highly mobile, states may deregulate to remain competitive, often at social costs.
184. The 'Washington Consensus' is heavily criticized by some scholars because it:
Correct Answer: b) Often leads to severe austerity measures and worsens inequality in developing countries.
Explanation:
Critics argue that structural adjustment programs can harm the poorest citizens in target countries.
185. Which theory of IR suggests that human nature is fundamentally flawed and driven by a lust for power?
Correct Answer: c) Classical Realism
Explanation:
Thinkers like Morgenthau rooted realism in the inherent power-seeking nature of humans.
186. Unlike Classical Realism, Neorealism (Structural Realism) attributes state behavior primarily to:
Correct Answer: b) The anarchic structure of the international system
Explanation:
Waltz argued that the structure (anarchy) forces states to act defensively, regardless of human nature.
187. Which concept suggests that a rising power is likely to engage in conflict with an established power, as seen with Athens and Sparta?
Correct Answer: b) Thucydides Trap
Explanation:
Graham Allison popularized this term based on Thucydides' observation of the Peloponnesian War.
188. The 'Shanghai Cooperation Organisation' (SCO) is a Eurasian political, economic, and security alliance primarily led by:
Correct Answer: b) China and Russia
Explanation:
The SCO focuses on regional security, counter-terrorism, and economic cooperation in Eurasia.
189. The principle of 'Non-Refoulement' in international refugee law mandates that:
Correct Answer: b) Refugees cannot be returned to a country where they face serious threats to their life or freedom.
Explanation:
This is a core principle of the 1951 Refugee Convention.
190. The UNHCR is the United Nations agency responsible for:
Correct Answer: b) Refugees
Explanation:
The United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees is mandated to protect and support refugees.
191. Internally Displaced Persons (IDPs) are different from refugees because they:
Correct Answer: b) Have not crossed an international border to find safety.
Explanation:
IDPs remain within their home country, unlike refugees who flee across international borders.
192. Which IR theory focuses on how language, discourse, and framing shape international politics?
Correct Answer: a) Post-structuralism
Explanation:
Post-structuralism emphasizes that 'reality' is discursively constructed and questions established narratives.
193. The 'Melian Dialogue' in Thucydides' work is famous for the assertion that:
Correct Answer: b) The strong do what they can and the weak suffer what they must.
Explanation:
This is a classic expression of realist power politics.
194. What is meant by the 'Democratic Deficit' in the context of international organizations like the EU?
Correct Answer: b) The perception that institutions suffer from a lack of democracy and seem inaccessible to the ordinary citizen.
Explanation:
Critics argue that bodies like the EU Commission are not directly accountable to voters.
195. The policy of 'Constructive Ambiguity' in diplomacy refers to:
Correct Answer: b) Deliberately using vague language in an agreement to allow both sides to claim victory and move forward.
Explanation:
It helps bypass intractable disputes in negotiations, though it can cause problems later.
196. The term 'Gunboat Diplomacy' refers to:
Correct Answer: b) The pursuit of foreign policy objectives with the aid of conspicuous displays of naval power.
Explanation:
It relies on the implied threat of warfare to force a state to concede.
197. A 'Buffer State' is:
Correct Answer: b) A neutral state lying between two rival or potentially hostile greater powers.
Explanation:
Buffer states help prevent conflict between major powers (e.g., Afghanistan between British and Russian empires).
198. The 'Resource Curse' (or Paradox of Plenty) suggests that:
Correct Answer: a) Countries with abundant natural resources tend to have less economic growth, less democracy, and worse development outcomes.
Explanation:
Dependence on a single resource like oil often leads to corruption, conflict, and economic mismanagement.
199. What is an 'Epistemic Community' in international relations?
Correct Answer: b) A network of professionals with recognized expertise and competence in a particular domain.
Explanation:
They influence policy by providing authoritative knowledge, especially in complex areas like climate change.
200. The primary focus of the 'Copenhagen School' in security studies is:
Correct Answer: b) Securitization theory.
Explanation:
It examines how certain issues are transformed into 'security' threats through political speech.
201. Securitization occurs when:
Correct Answer: b) An issue is presented as an existential threat, justifying extraordinary measures outside normal politics.
Explanation:
By labeling an issue (e.g., migration) a security threat, governments can bypass democratic debate.
202. The theory of 'Neocolonialism' argues that:
Correct Answer: b) Former colonial powers continue to dominate developing nations through economic, cultural, and institutional pressures.
Explanation:
It suggests imperialism continues informally despite the end of direct political control.
203. Which organization was created in 1949 to facilitate European integration and promote human rights and the rule of law?
Correct Answer: b) The Council of Europe
Explanation:
Distinct from the EU, it focuses on human rights and established the European Court of Human Rights.
204. The 'G7' (Group of Seven) consists of the world's most advanced economies. Who was suspended from this group in 2014, making it the G7 again?
Correct Answer: c) Russia
Explanation:
Russia was suspended from what was the G8 following its annexation of Crimea.
205. The principle of 'Self-Determination' in international law holds that:
Correct Answer: b) A people have the right to freely choose their sovereignty and international political status with no interference.
Explanation:
It was a key principle in the decolonization process.
206. Which US President heavily promoted the concept of national self-determination after WWI?
Correct Answer: c) Woodrow Wilson
Explanation:
Wilson's 'Fourteen Points' heavily featured the right of self-determination.
207. The term 'Revisionist State' refers to a state that:
Correct Answer: c) Seeks to alter the existing balance of power or the rules of the international system.
Explanation:
Revisionist states are dissatisfied with the status quo and seek to change it.
208. A 'Status Quo State' is a state that:
Correct Answer: a) Is satisfied with the existing international order and seeks to preserve it.
Explanation:
Status quo states benefit from the current system and act defensively to protect it.
209. Which theoretical approach highlights the impact of gender structures and inequalities in global politics?
Correct Answer: c) Feminist IR Theory
Explanation:
Feminist IR theory examines how gender influences concepts like security, power, and the state.
210. The 'Boomerang Pattern' in transnational advocacy networks describes how:
Correct Answer: b) Domestic NGOs bypass their unresponsive government to seek international allies to pressure their state from the outside.
Explanation:
Coined by Keck and Sikkink, this explains how local groups leverage international networks.
211. According to World-Systems Theory, what characterizes 'Semi-Peripheral' states?
Correct Answer: b) They exhibit features of both core and peripheral states, acting as a buffer.
Explanation:
They are industrializing nations that are exploited by the core but exploit the periphery.
212. What is 'Nuclear Latency'?
Correct Answer: b) The condition of a country possessing the technology, materials, and capabilities to build a nuclear weapon without actually doing so.
Explanation:
States like Japan are often described as having nuclear latency (or being 'turn-key' nuclear states).
213. The acronym 'BRICS' was originally coined by an economist at which investment bank?
Correct Answer: b) Goldman Sachs
Explanation:
Jim O'Neill of Goldman Sachs coined the term 'BRIC' in 2001 to describe the fast-growing economies.
214. Which of the following describes 'Two-Level Game Theory' in diplomacy?
Correct Answer: b) The idea that state leaders must simultaneously negotiate at the international level and the domestic level.
Explanation:
Developed by Robert Putnam, it highlights how domestic politics constrain international bargaining.
215. The idea that an increase in global economic integration makes war too costly to pursue is central to:
Correct Answer: b) Commercial Liberalism
Explanation:
Commercial liberalism argues that free trade and interdependence disincentivize armed conflict.
216. What is a 'Security Regime'?
Correct Answer: b) Principles, rules, and norms that regulate state behavior in the realm of security to prevent conflict.
Explanation:
It helps states manage the security dilemma without necessarily forming an alliance.
217. Which war is often considered the first major conflict driven heavily by a 'Cyber' component in conjunction with conventional forces?
Correct Answer: c) The 2008 Russo-Georgian War
Explanation:
The 2008 conflict saw coordinated cyber attacks on Georgian infrastructure coinciding with military action.
218. The concept of 'Strategic Culture' suggests that:
Correct Answer: b) A state's historical, cultural, and political experiences shape its approach to security and use of force.
Explanation:
It explains why different states might respond differently to the same objective strategic environment.
219. What does 'Polyrhea' refer to in global politics?
Correct Answer: d) A completely decentralized, fragmented global system lacking any poles of power.
Explanation:
Sometimes called 'apolarity' or 'non-polarity', where power is diffused among many state and non-state actors.
220. The 'Ostrom's Principles' related to the Tragedy of the Commons deal with:
Correct Answer: b) How local communities can successfully manage common-pool resources without top-down regulation.
Explanation:
Elinor Ostrom won a Nobel Prize for showing how commons can be governed effectively by users.
221. The 'Belt and Road Initiative' (BRI) is a massive global infrastructure development strategy launched by which country?
Correct Answer: c) China
Explanation:
Launched in 2013, the BRI aims to enhance regional connectivity and embrace a brighter economic future.
222. Which concept describes a situation where an established power's currency is the primary reserve currency of the global economy?
Correct Answer: a) Exorbitant Privilege
Explanation:
Coined in the 1960s regarding the US dollar, meaning the US doesn't face balance of payments crises like others.
223. The 'Five Eyes' is an intelligence alliance comprising which nations?
Correct Answer: b) US, UK, Canada, Australia, New Zealand
Explanation:
This is a post-WWII multilateral agreement for cooperation in signals intelligence.
224. What is a 'False Flag' operation?
Correct Answer: b) A covert operation designed to deceive; the deception creates the appearance of a particular party being responsible.
Explanation:
Used historically to justify declarations of war by blaming an attack on the enemy.
225. The concept of 'Ontological Security' in IR relates to a state's need for:
Correct Answer: b) A stable sense of self-identity and narrative.
Explanation:
States seek not just physical security but psychological security and continuity in their identity.
226. The 'Global Commons' refers to:
Correct Answer: b) Resource domains that fall outside the political reach of any one nation state.
Explanation:
Examples include the high seas, the atmosphere, Antarctica, and outer space.
227. The 'Antarctic Treaty System' ensures that Antarctica is:
Correct Answer: b) Used exclusively for peaceful purposes and scientific research.
Explanation:
The treaty demilitarizes the continent and suspends territorial claims.
228. The 'Nuclear Posture Review' (NPR) is a process primarily associated with which country's strategic planning?
Correct Answer: b) United States
Explanation:
The NPR is a US Department of Defense review that determines the role of nuclear weapons in its security strategy.
229. What does 'Decoupling' mean in contemporary international political economy?
Correct Answer: b) The deliberate unravelling of economic and trade interdependence between major economies, such as the US and China.
Explanation:
Decoupling aims to reduce strategic vulnerability in supply chains and technology.
230. The term 'Weaponized Interdependence' refers to:
Correct Answer: b) How states leverage their central position in global networks (like finance or tech) to coerce others.
Explanation:
For example, using dominance in the SWIFT financial system to apply crippling sanctions.
