Indian Polity forms a core scoring component of State Public Service Commission (PSC) and civil services examinations, evaluating a candidate’s understanding of constitutional design, institutional mechanisms, and administrative law. This domain covers the structural dynamics of the legislature, executive, and judiciary, alongside fundamental rights, directive principles, and centre-state relations. Practicing structured multiple-choice questions helps aspirants master article numbers, landmark amendments, and constitutional precedents required for preliminary screening tests.
1. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Supreme Court of India?
Correct Answer: b) Article 124
Explanation:
Article 124 of the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment and constitution of the Supreme Court of India, comprising a Chief Justice and other judges.
2. Which constitutional amendment is known as the 'Mini-Constitution' of India?
Correct Answer: a) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
Explanation:
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 introduced sweeping changes to the Constitution, earning it the moniker 'Mini-Constitution'.
3. Who holds the power to promulgate ordinances when the Parliament is not in session under Article 123?
Correct Answer: b) The President of India
Explanation:
Under Article 123, the President is empowered to promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament, which have the same force as an Act of Parliament.
4. Which part of the Indian Constitution contains the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)?
Correct Answer: c) Part IV
Explanation:
Part IV of the Indian Constitution (Articles 36 to 51) contains the Directive Principles of State Policy, borrowed from the Irish Constitution.
5. Under which Article can the President of India declare a National Emergency?
Correct Answer: a) Article 352
Explanation:
Article 352 empowers the President to proclaim a National Emergency in case of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
6. What is the maximum strength of the Lok Sabha as fixed by the Constitution?
Correct Answer: c) 552 members
Explanation:
The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is provisioned at 552 members (up to 530 from states, 20 from UTs, and 2 previously nominated Anglo-Indians).
7. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
Correct Answer: c) The Vice-President of India
Explanation:
Article 64 states that the Vice-President of India shall be the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
8. Which Fundamental Right cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency under Articles 359/352?
Correct Answer: c) Article 20 and Article 21
Explanation:
By virtue of the 44th Amendment Act, the rights guaranteed under Article 20 (protection in respect of conviction) and Article 21 (protection of life and personal liberty) cannot be suspended.
9. Which Constitutional Amendment introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India?
Correct Answer: c) 101st Amendment Act
Explanation:
The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016, introduced the comprehensive indirect tax regime known as GST.
10. Who appoints the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India?
Correct Answer: b) The President of India
Explanation:
Under Article 148, the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
11. Which schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the provisions relating to anti-defection law?
Correct Answer: c) Tenth Schedule
Explanation:
The Tenth Schedule, added by the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985, contains provisions regarding disqualification on grounds of defection.
12. What is the minimum age required to become a member of the Lok Sabha?
Correct Answer: b) 25 years
Explanation:
Article 84(b) prescribes a minimum age of 25 years for contesting elections to the Lok Sabha.
13. What is the minimum age required to become a member of the Rajya Sabha?
Correct Answer: c) 30 years
Explanation:
Article 84(b) prescribes a minimum age of 30 years for contesting elections to the Rajya Sabha.
14. Which writ is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to prevent it from exceeding its jurisdiction?
Correct Answer: c) Prohibition
Explanation:
The writ of Prohibition literally means 'to forbid' and is issued by a higher court to a lower court to prevent usurpation or excess of jurisdiction.
15. Which writ is issued to secure the release of a person who has been detained unlawfully?
Correct Answer: a) Habeas Corpus
Explanation:
Habeas Corpus means 'to have the body of', serving as a powerful remedy against illegal detention.
16. Under which Article is the Finance Commission of India constituted every five years by the President?
Correct Answer: c) Article 280
Explanation:
Article 280 mandates the President to constitute a Finance Commission every five years or earlier to recommend tax devolution between the Centre and States.
17. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
Correct Answer: c) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
Explanation:
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar served as the Chairman of the Drafting Committee, which was tasked with preparing the draft of the new Constitution.
18. When was the Constitution of India finally adopted and enacted by the Constituent Assembly?
Correct Answer: b) November 26, 1949
Explanation:
The Constituent Assembly adopted and enacted the Constitution on November 26, 1949, which is celebrated as Constitution Day.
19. When did the Constitution of India fully come into force?
Correct Answer: c) January 26, 1950
Explanation:
The Constitution of India came into full force on January 26, 1950, a date chosen to commemorate the Purna Swaraj declaration of 1930.
20. Which Article of the Constitution empowers the Parliament to form a new State by separation of territory?
Correct Answer: c) Article 3
Explanation:
Article 3 authorizes Parliament to form new States, alter boundaries, or change names of existing States by ordinary legislative procedure.
21. Which part of the Indian Constitution is referred to as the 'Magna Carta' of India?
Correct Answer: c) Part III
Explanation:
Part III, which contains the Fundamental Rights (Articles 12 to 35), is described as the Magna Carta of India.
22. Which Article was described by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar as the 'heart and soul' of the Indian Constitution?
Correct Answer: d) Article 32
Explanation:
Dr. Ambedkar famously called Article 32 (Right to Constitutional Remedies) the heart and soul of the Constitution due to its provision for Supreme Court writs.
23. Which Constitutional Amendment added the Fundamental Duties to Part IV-A of the Constitution?
Correct Answer: a) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
Explanation:
The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, added Article 51A in Part IV-A, incorporating 10 Fundamental Duties upon the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee.
24. On whose recommendation were the Fundamental Duties incorporated into the Constitution?
Correct Answer: b) Swaran Singh Committee
Explanation:
The Sardar Swaran Singh Committee advised the inclusion of Fundamental Duties during the internal emergency.
25. What is the tenure of office for the President of India under Article 56?
Correct Answer: b) 5 years
Explanation:
The President holds office for a term of five years from the date on which they enter upon their office.
26. Under which Article can the President of India be impeached for violation of the Constitution?
Correct Answer: c) Article 61
Explanation:
Article 61 details the quasi-judicial procedure for the impeachment of the President in either House of Parliament.
27. Who administers the oath of office to the President of India?
Correct Answer: c) The Chief Justice of India
Explanation:
Under Article 60, the oath or affirmation to the President is administered by the Chief Justice of India, or in their absence, the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court.
28. To whom does the President of India submit their resignation letter?
Correct Answer: b) The Vice-President of India
Explanation:
The President can resign from office by writing under their hand addressed to the Vice-President of India.
29. Which Article states that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President?
Correct Answer: a) Article 74
Explanation:
Article 74(1) establishes that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President.
30. Who is the highest law officer of the Government of India under Article 76?
Correct Answer: b) Attorney General for India
Explanation:
Article 76 provides for the Attorney General for India, who is the highest law officer appointed by the President.
31. Can the Attorney General for India participate in the proceedings of either House of Parliament without voting rights?
Correct Answer: b) Yes
Explanation:
Article 88 grants the Attorney General the right to speak and take part in proceedings of both Houses of Parliament or any joint committee, without the right to vote.
32. What is the maximum permissible gap between two sessions of Parliament under Article 85?
Correct Answer: b) 6 months
Explanation:
Article 85 mandates that six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next session.
33. Which bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha?
Correct Answer: c) Money Bill
Explanation:
Under Article 109, a Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha on the recommendation of the President.
34. Who certifies whether a bill is a Money Bill under Article 110?
Correct Answer: c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Explanation:
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the final and unquestionable authority to certify if a bill is a Money Bill.
35. Under which Article can a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament be summoned by the President?
Correct Answer: b) Article 108
Explanation:
Article 108 provides for a joint sitting of both Houses in deadlock situations over ordinary bills, presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
36. Who presides over a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament?
Correct Answer: c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Explanation:
Under Article 118(4), the Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over the joint sitting of Parliament.
37. What is the term 'Annual Financial Statement' in Article 112 commonly known as?
Correct Answer: c) The Budget
Explanation:
The Constitution refers to the budget of the central government as the 'Annual Financial Statement' under Article 112.
38. Which type of majority is required in Parliament to pass a Constitution Amendment Bill under Article 368?
Correct Answer: d) Both b and c depending on the provision
Explanation:
Article 368 requires a special majority (2/3rd present and voting plus absolute majority of total strength) and for federal matters, ratification by at least half the state legislatures.
39. Which Article gives the Supreme Court advisory jurisdiction to give its opinion on questions of law referred by the President?
Correct Answer: c) Article 143
Explanation:
Article 143 authorizes the President to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on questions of public importance or law.
40. At what age do Supreme Court judges retire?
Correct Answer: c) 65 years
Explanation:
Judges of the Supreme Court hold office until they attain the age of 65 years.
41. At what age do High Court judges retire?
Correct Answer: b) 62 years
Explanation:
Judges of the High Courts hold office until they attain the age of 62 years (increased from 60 by the 15th Amendment Act, 1963).
42. Who appoints the Governor of a State in India?
Correct Answer: c) The President of India
Explanation:
Under Article 155, the Governor of a State is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
43. During whose pleasure does a Governor hold office?
Correct Answer: c) The President of India
Explanation:
Article 156 states that the Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President.
44. What is the minimum age required to be appointed as the Governor of a State?
Correct Answer: c) 35 years
Explanation:
Article 157 prescribes a minimum age of 35 years for appointment as a Governor.
45. Which Article empowers the Governor to promulgate ordinances when the state legislature is not in session?
Correct Answer: b) Article 213
Explanation:
Under Article 213, the Governor of a State has the power to promulgate ordinances during the recess of the state legislature.
46. Which Article gives High Courts the power to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights and other purposes?
Correct Answer: b) Article 226
Explanation:
Article 226 grants High Courts a wider writ jurisdiction than Article 32, as High Courts can issue writs not only for Fundamental Rights but also for 'other purposes'.
47. Which constitutional amendment added Panchayati Raj Institutions to Part IX of the Constitution?
Correct Answer: c) 73rd Amendment Act, 1992
Explanation:
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, added Part IX and the Eleventh Schedule to establish rural local self-governments (Panchayats).
48. Which constitutional amendment added Municipalities to Part IX-A of the Constitution?
Correct Answer: b) 74th Amendment Act, 1992
Explanation:
The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, added Part IX-A and the Twelfth Schedule to constitutionalize urban local bodies (Municipalities).
49. How many items are listed in the Eleventh Schedule for Panchayati Raj Institutions?
Correct Answer: b) 29 items
Explanation:
The Eleventh Schedule (Article 243-G) specifies 29 functional items within the purview of Panchayats.
50. How many items are listed in the Twelfth Schedule for Municipalities?
Correct Answer: a) 18 items
Explanation:
The Twelfth Schedule (Article 243-W) specifies 18 functional items within the purview of Municipalities.
51. Which committee recommended the three-tier Panchayati Raj system in India in 1957?
Correct Answer: b) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
Explanation:
The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957) recommended the establishment of a three-tier Panchayati Raj system (Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, Zilla Parishad).
52. Which state was the first in India to establish Panchayati Raj on October 2, 1959?
Correct Answer: b) Rajasthan
Explanation:
Nagaur district in Rajasthan was the first in India to inaugurate the Panchayati Raj system on October 2, 1959, followed by Andhra Pradesh.
53. What is the maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha as fixed by the Constitution?
Correct Answer: c) 250 members
Explanation:
Article 80 sets the maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha at 250 (238 representing states/UTs and 12 nominated by the President).
54. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners of India?
Correct Answer: b) The President of India
Explanation:
Under Article 324, the Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners are appointed by the President of India.
55. Under which Article is the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) established?
Correct Answer: b) Article 315
Explanation:
Article 315 provides for the establishment of a Public Service Commission for the Union (UPSC) and for each State (SPSC).
56. Which Article empowers Parliament to create one or more All-India Services common to the Union and the States?
Correct Answer: b) Article 312
Explanation:
Article 312 empowers Parliament to create All-India Services if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution supported by a 2/3rd majority.
57. Which body is responsible for adjudicating interstate water disputes under Article 262?
Correct Answer: c) Ad-hoc Tribunals established by Parliament
Explanation:
Under Article 262, Parliament can by law provide for the adjudication of water disputes through specially constituted tribunals, excluding Supreme Court jurisdiction.
58. Under which Article can the President establish an Inter-State Council to promote coordination between states?
Correct Answer: b) Article 263
Explanation:
Article 263 empowers the President to establish an Inter-State Council to investigate and discuss subjects of common interest between states.
59. Which Constitutional Amendment reduced the voting age from 21 to 18 years?
Correct Answer: c) 61st Amendment Act, 1988
Explanation:
The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988, lowered the voting age for Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly elections from 21 to 18 years.
60. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with Official Languages?
Correct Answer: b) Part XVII
Explanation:
Part XVII of the Constitution (Articles 343 to 351) contains comprehensive provisions regarding the Official Languages of India.
61. Which schedule of the Indian Constitution lists the 22 recognized regional languages?
Correct Answer: b) Eighth Schedule
Explanation:
The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution specifies the recognized official languages of India, currently numbering 22.
62. Which body replaced the Planning Commission of India in January 2015?
Correct Answer: b) NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India)
Explanation:
NITI Aayog was established on January 1, 2015, replacing the erstwhile Planning Commission to foster cooperative federalism.
63. Who is the Chairperson of the NITI Aayog?
Correct Answer: b) The Prime Minister of India
Explanation:
The Prime Minister of India serves as the ex-officio Chairperson of NITI Aayog.
64. Which Article provides protection against double jeopardy and self-incrimination?
Correct Answer: b) Article 20
Explanation:
Article 20 provides protection in respect of conviction for offenses, including safeguards against ex-post-facto laws, double jeopardy, and self-incrimination.
65. Which Article of the Constitution abolishes 'Untouchability' and forbids its practice in any form?
Correct Answer: c) Article 17
Explanation:
Article 17 abolishes untouchability and makes its practice in any form a punishable offense under law.
66. Which Article abolishes all titles except military and academic distinctions?
Correct Answer: c) Article 18
Explanation:
Article 18 abolishes titles, prohibiting the state from conferring any titles other than military or academic distinctions.
67. Under which Article are the cultural and educational rights of minorities protected?
Correct Answer: b) Articles 29-30
Explanation:
Articles 29 and 30 protect cultural and educational rights, granting minorities the right to conserve their language and establish educational institutions.
68. Which Constitutional Amendment made the Right to Education a fundamental right under Article 21A?
Correct Answer: c) 86th Amendment Act, 2002
Explanation:
The 86th Amendment Act, 2002, inserted Article 21A, making free and compulsory education for children aged 6 to 14 a fundamental right.
69. Who has the power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India?
Correct Answer: b) The Parliament
Explanation:
Under Article 124, Parliament is empowered by law to regulate the constitution, organization, and strength of the Supreme Court judges.
70. What is the quorum required to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament?
Correct Answer: a) One-tenth of the total members of each House
Explanation:
Article 100(3) specifies that the quorum to meet and conduct business in either House of Parliament shall be one-tenth of the total members.
71. Which writ is issued by a higher court to a lower court or quasi-judicial body to quash its order?
Correct Answer: c) Certiorari
Explanation:
Certiorari means 'to be certified' and is issued to quash an order already passed by an inferior court or tribunal exceeding jurisdiction.
72. Which writ inquires into the legality of a person's claim to a public office?
Correct Answer: c) Quo-Warranto
Explanation:
Quo-Warranto translates to 'by what authority' and is used to prevent illegal usurpation of a public office by a person.
73. Which commission was appointed in 1983 to examine Centre-State relations?
Correct Answer: b) Sarkaria Commission
Explanation:
The Sarkaria Commission was set up in 1983 under the chairmanship of Justice R.S. Sarkaria to review arrangements between the Centre and States.
74. Which commission was set up in 2007 under the chairmanship of Justice Madan Mohan Punchhi for Centre-State relations?
Correct Answer: b) Punchhi Commission
Explanation:
The Punchhi Commission was constituted by the Government of India in 2007 to take a fresh look at Centre-State relations.
75. Which article of the Constitution establishes the office of the Governor in each State?
Correct Answer: b) Article 153
Explanation:
Article 153 states that there shall be a Governor for each State (with provisions permitting the same person to act as Governor for two or more states).
76. What is the maximum duration for which a President's Rule under Article 356 can be extended with parliamentary approval?
Correct Answer: c) 3 years
Explanation:
President's Rule can be extended by Parliament every six months up to a maximum period of three years under specific constitutional conditions.
77. Under which Article can a Financial Emergency be proclaimed by the President?
Correct Answer: c) Article 360
Explanation:
Article 360 empowers the President to proclaim a Financial Emergency if financial stability or credit of India is threatened.
78. Has a Financial Emergency under Article 360 ever been declared in India?
Correct Answer: c) Never
Explanation:
Fortunately, a Financial Emergency under Article 360 has never been proclaimed in the history of independent India.
79. Which Constitutional Amendment restricted the size of the Council of Ministers to 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha?
Correct Answer: b) 91st Amendment Act, 2003
Explanation:
The 91st Amendment Act, 2003, capped the size of the Council of Ministers at the central and state levels to 15% of the total strength of the lower house.
80. Which part of the Constitution deals with Elections and the Election Commission?
Correct Answer: b) Part XV
Explanation:
Part XV of the Constitution (Articles 324 to 329) deals with elections and establishes the Election Commission of India.
81. Who has the final authority to interpret the Constitution of India?
Correct Answer: c) The Supreme Court
Explanation:
The Supreme Court of India acts as the ultimate guardian and interpreter of the Constitution.
82. Which fundamental right guarantees freedom of speech and expression?
Correct Answer: b) Article 19
Explanation:
Article 19(1)(a) guarantees to all citizens the right to freedom of speech and expression, subject to reasonable restrictions.
83. Which schedule of the Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to states and union territories?
Correct Answer: d) Fourth Schedule
Explanation:
The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution provides for the allocation of seats in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) to states and union territories.
84. Which schedule contains the forms of oaths and affirmations for constitutional officeholders?
Correct Answer: c) Third Schedule
Explanation:
The Third Schedule contains the prescribed forms of oaths or affirmations for ministers, judges, legislators, and other high officials.
85. Which schedule deals with provisions relating to the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes?
Correct Answer: b) Fifth Schedule
Explanation:
The Fifth Schedule contains provisions regarding the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
86. Which schedule deals with the administration of tribal areas in the northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram?
Correct Answer: b) Sixth Schedule
Explanation:
The Sixth Schedule specifically provides for the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram through Autonomous District Councils (ADCs).
87. Which schedule outlines the division of powers between the Union and the States through the Union, State, and Concurrent Lists?
Correct Answer: c) Seventh Schedule
Explanation:
The Seventh Schedule divides legislative powers between the Union and States through three lists: Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.
88. Which schedule was added by the First Constitutional Amendment Act of 1951 to protect land reform laws from judicial review?
Correct Answer: b) Ninth Schedule
Explanation:
The Ninth Schedule was introduced by the First Amendment in 1951 to shield land reform and other legislation from judicial scrutiny under Part III.
89. Who can establish a common High Court for two or more states under Article 231?
Correct Answer: b) The Parliament by law
Explanation:
Article 231 empowers Parliament to establish a common High Court for two or more states or union territories.
90. Which Article allows Parliament to regulate the right of citizenship by law?
Correct Answer: d) Article 11
Explanation:
Article 11 explicitly grants Parliament the power to make provisions regarding the acquisition and termination of citizenship and all other matters relating to it.
91. What is the maximum gap allowed between two consecutive sittings of a State Legislative Assembly?
Correct Answer: b) 6 months
Explanation:
Similar to Parliament, the gap between two sessions of a State Legislature cannot exceed six months.
92. Which constitutional body is tasked with safeguarding the interests of socially and educationally backward classes?
Correct Answer: b) National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC)
Explanation:
The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) was given constitutional status by the 102nd Amendment Act, 2018.
93. Which Constitutional Amendment granted constitutional status to the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST)?
Correct Answer: b) 89th Amendment Act, 2003
Explanation:
The 89th Amendment Act, 2003, bifurcated the erstwhile combined National Commission for SCs and STs into two separate bodies under Articles 338 and 338A.
94. Under which Article can the President declare a National Emergency on grounds of internal armed rebellion?
Correct Answer: a) Article 352
Explanation:
Article 352 covers proclamations of National Emergency due to war, external aggression, or armed rebellion (the term 'internal disturbance' was replaced by 'armed rebellion' via the 44th Amendment).
