The Staff Selection Commission Combined Graduate Level (SSC CGL) examination is structured into multiple computer-based tiers designed to rigorously evaluate candidates for prestigious Group B and C civil posts in India. Understanding the precise tier-wise blueprint, sectional timings, and negative marking guidelines is critical for effective exam strategy. Tier 1 serves as an online qualifying screening stage consisting of four core sections, whereas Tier 2 evaluates candidates through comprehensive objective papers, including mathematical abilities, reasoning, English, general awareness, and specialized modules. Mastery of this structural framework enables aspirants to optimize time management and align their preparation with official commission norms.
1. What does SSC CGL stand for?
Correct Answer: a) Staff Selection Commission Combined Graduate Level
Explanation:
SSC CGL stands for Staff Selection Commission Combined Graduate Level, which is an examination conducted to recruit staff for various posts in ministries, departments, and organizations of the Government of India.
2. How many tiers does the current SSC CGL examination consist of?
Correct Answer: b) 2
Explanation:
Under the revised pattern implemented from 2022 onwards, the SSC CGL examination consists of two tiers: Tier-I and Tier-II.
3. What is the nature of the Tier-I examination in the current SSC CGL pattern?
Correct Answer: c) Qualifying in nature
Explanation:
In the new pattern, Tier-I is strictly qualifying in nature. Its marks are used to shortlist candidates for Tier-II, but they are not added to the final merit list.
4. How many total questions are asked in the SSC CGL Tier-I exam?
Correct Answer: b) 100
Explanation:
The Tier-I exam consists of 100 multiple-choice questions spread across four sections.
5. What is the total maximum marks for the SSC CGL Tier-I exam?
Correct Answer: c) 200
Explanation:
Since there are 100 questions and each correct answer carries 2 marks, the maximum possible score for Tier-I is 200 marks.
6. How much time is allotted to normal candidates to complete the Tier-I exam?
Correct Answer: b) 60 minutes
Explanation:
Normal candidates are given exactly 1 hour (60 minutes) to complete the 100 questions in the Tier-I exam.
7. What is the time duration of the Tier-I exam for candidates eligible for a scribe?
Correct Answer: b) 80 minutes
Explanation:
Visually handicapped candidates and those eligible to use a scribe are given a compensatory time of 20 minutes, making their total time 80 minutes.
8. Which of the following is NOT a section in the SSC CGL Tier-I exam?
Correct Answer: d) Computer Knowledge
Explanation:
Tier-I consists of General Intelligence & Reasoning, General Awareness, Quantitative Aptitude, and English Comprehension. Computer Knowledge is part of Tier-II.
9. How many questions are asked in the General Intelligence and Reasoning section of Tier-I?
Correct Answer: b) 25
Explanation:
The General Intelligence and Reasoning section in Tier-I comprises 25 questions.
10. How many questions are asked in the General Awareness section of Tier-I?
Correct Answer: a) 25
Explanation:
The General Awareness section has 25 questions.
11. How many questions are in the Quantitative Aptitude section of Tier-I?
Correct Answer: b) 25
Explanation:
The Quantitative Aptitude section consists of 25 questions.
12. How many questions are in the English Comprehension section of Tier-I?
Correct Answer: a) 25
Explanation:
The English Comprehension section consists of 25 questions.
13. How many marks are awarded for every correct answer in Tier-I?
Correct Answer: c) 2 marks
Explanation:
In Tier-I, each of the 100 questions carries 2 marks for a correct response.
14. What is the negative marking for every incorrect answer in the Tier-I exam?
Correct Answer: c) 0.50 marks
Explanation:
For every incorrect answer in Tier-I, 0.50 marks are deducted as a penalty.
15. In what mode is the SSC CGL Tier-I examination conducted?
Correct Answer: b) Computer Based Test (CBT)
Explanation:
The SSC CGL exams (both Tier-I and Tier-II) are conducted entirely as online Computer Based Tests (CBT).
16. Which section in the Tier-I exam is strictly NOT bilingual?
Correct Answer: d) English Comprehension
Explanation:
The English Comprehension section is provided only in English to test language proficiency, whereas all other sections are available in both English and Hindi.
17. What is the primary purpose of the Tier-I exam in the revised pattern?
Correct Answer: c) To shortlist candidates for Tier-II
Explanation:
Since Tier-I is qualifying, its only purpose is to filter and shortlist capable candidates for the main Tier-II exam.
18. Are the marks scored in Tier-I added to the final merit list under the new pattern?
Correct Answer: c) No, it is only qualifying
Explanation:
The revised exam pattern specifies that Tier-I marks are not considered when preparing the final merit list.
19. Which tier exclusively determines the final merit for the majority of the posts in SSC CGL?
Correct Answer: b) Tier-II
Explanation:
Final merit is decided based solely on a candidate's performance in Tier-II.
20. Which paper in Tier-II is compulsory for all candidates?
Correct Answer: a) Paper-I
Explanation:
Paper-I of Tier-II is mandatory for all posts. Paper-II and Paper-III are only for specific specialized posts (JSO and AAO).
21. How many sessions are there in Paper-I of Tier-II?
Correct Answer: b) 2
Explanation:
Paper-I of Tier-II is divided into Session-I (theory/objective modules) and Session-II (DEST).
22. What is the total duration of Session-I in Tier-II Paper-I?
Correct Answer: b) 2 hours 15 minutes
Explanation:
Session-I consists of Section I (1 hour), Section II (1 hour), and Module-I of Section III (15 minutes), totaling 2 hours 15 minutes.
23. How many sections are present in Session-I of Tier-II Paper-I?
Correct Answer: b) 3
Explanation:
Session-I comprises Section-I (Math/Reasoning), Section-II (English/GA), and Section-III (Computer Knowledge Test).
24. Which subjects are included in Section-I of Tier-II Paper-I?
Correct Answer: b) Mathematical Abilities and Reasoning
Explanation:
Section-I is composed of Module-I (Mathematical Abilities) and Module-II (Reasoning and General Intelligence).
25. How many total questions are asked in Section-I of Tier-II Paper-I?
Correct Answer: b) 60
Explanation:
Section-I has 30 questions from Mathematics and 30 from Reasoning, making a total of 60 questions.
26. How many questions are from Mathematical Abilities in Tier-II Paper-I?
Correct Answer: b) 30
Explanation:
Module-I of Section-I tests Mathematical Abilities with exactly 30 questions.
27. How many questions are from Reasoning and General Intelligence in Tier-II Paper-I?
Correct Answer: b) 30
Explanation:
Module-II of Section-I tests Reasoning and General Intelligence with exactly 30 questions.
28. What are the marks awarded for a correct answer in Section-I and Section-II of Tier-II Paper-I?
Correct Answer: c) 3 marks
Explanation:
Every correct answer in Section-I, Section-II, and Section-III (Module-I) of Tier-II Paper-I fetches 3 marks.
29. What is the negative marking for an incorrect answer in Section-I of Tier-II Paper-I?
Correct Answer: c) 1 mark
Explanation:
For each wrong answer in Sections I and II (and Computer Test) of Paper-I, 1 mark is deducted.
30. What is the total maximum marks for Section-I of Tier-II Paper-I?
Correct Answer: c) 180
Explanation:
60 questions multiplied by 3 marks each results in a maximum of 180 marks for Section-I.
31. How much time is allotted for Section-I of Tier-II Paper-I for normal candidates?
Correct Answer: c) 60 minutes
Explanation:
Candidates get exactly 1 hour (60 minutes) to complete the 60 questions of Section-I.
32. Which subjects are included in Section-II of Tier-II Paper-I?
Correct Answer: b) English Language and Comprehension & General Awareness
Explanation:
Section-II is made up of Module-I (English Language) and Module-II (General Awareness).
33. How many questions are asked in the English Language and Comprehension module of Tier-II Paper-I?
Correct Answer: c) 45
Explanation:
English has the highest weightage in Paper-I, featuring 45 questions.
34. How many questions are asked in the General Awareness module of Tier-II Paper-I?
Correct Answer: b) 25
Explanation:
The General Awareness module in Section-II consists of 25 questions.
35. What is the total number of questions in Section-II of Tier-II Paper-I?
Correct Answer: b) 70
Explanation:
With 45 questions in English and 25 in General Awareness, the total is 70 questions.
36. What is the total maximum marks for Section-II of Tier-II Paper-I?
Correct Answer: d) 210
Explanation:
70 questions multiplied by 3 marks each gives a maximum total of 210 marks for Section-II.
37. How much time is allotted for Section-II of Tier-II Paper-I for normal candidates?
Correct Answer: c) 60 minutes
Explanation:
Similar to Section-I, candidates are allotted 1 hour (60 minutes) to complete Section-II.
38. What is the penalty for a wrong answer in Section-II of Tier-II Paper-I?
Correct Answer: c) 1 mark
Explanation:
Like Section-I, every incorrect answer in Section-II attracts a penalty of 1 mark.
39. What is Section-III of Session-I in Tier-II Paper-I?
Correct Answer: c) Computer Knowledge Test
Explanation:
Section-III (Module-I) conducted at the end of Session-I is the Computer Knowledge Test.
40. How many questions are asked in the Computer Knowledge Test (Module-I of Section-III)?
Correct Answer: c) 20
Explanation:
The Computer Knowledge Test contains 20 multiple-choice questions.
41. What is the maximum marks for the Computer Knowledge Test?
Correct Answer: d) 60
Explanation:
20 questions multiplied by 3 marks each equals 60 marks.
42. How much time is given to normal candidates to complete the Computer Knowledge Test?
Correct Answer: b) 15 minutes
Explanation:
Candidates are given 15 minutes to attempt the 20 questions in the Computer Knowledge Test.
43. What is the nature of the Computer Knowledge Test in Tier-II?
Correct Answer: a) Qualifying
Explanation:
The Computer Knowledge Test is mandatory but qualifying in nature; its marks do not contribute to the final merit ranking.
44. Are the marks of the Computer Knowledge Test added to the final 390-mark merit list?
Correct Answer: b) No
Explanation:
The 390-mark merit list is formed solely from Section-I (180) and Section-II (210). The Computer test marks are excluded as it is qualifying.
45. What is the negative marking in the Computer Knowledge Test (Section-III, Module-I)?
Correct Answer: b) 1 mark
Explanation:
Even though it is qualifying, a penalty of 1 mark applies for each incorrect answer.
46. What constitutes Session-II of Tier-II Paper-I?
Correct Answer: c) Data Entry Speed Test (DEST)
Explanation:
Session-II is dedicated to Section-III (Module-II), which is the Data Entry Speed Test (DEST).
47. How much time is allotted for the Data Entry Speed Test (DEST) module?
Correct Answer: b) 15 minutes
Explanation:
Candidates have 15 minutes to type the given passage and complete the DEST module.
48. What is the required number of key depressions in the DEST module in 15 minutes?
Correct Answer: b) 2000
Explanation:
Candidates must achieve approximately 2000 key depressions in the 15-minute test.
49. Is the Data Entry Speed Test (DEST) mandatory for all posts in SSC CGL?
Correct Answer: a) Yes
Explanation:
Unlike the older pattern, DEST is now mandatory for all posts, though the qualifying standards differ based on the post.
50. What happens if a candidate scores high in Section-I and II but fails the Computer Knowledge Test?
Correct Answer: c) Disqualified from the entire examination
Explanation:
Since qualifying the Computer Knowledge Test is mandatory, failing it leads to disqualification regardless of scores in other sections.
51. What happens if a candidate fails the Data Entry Speed Test (DEST)?
Correct Answer: b) Disqualified from all posts
Explanation:
Since DEST is a mandatory qualifying module, failing it results in disqualification from the exam.
52. Which candidates are required to appear for Paper-II in Tier-II?
Correct Answer: b) Candidates applying for Junior Statistical Officer (JSO)
Explanation:
Paper-II is a specialized subject paper only for candidates shortlisted for the post of Junior Statistical Officer (JSO).
53. What is the subject of Paper-II in Tier-II?
Correct Answer: b) Statistics
Explanation:
Paper-II exclusively tests Statistics to ensure subject competence for the JSO post.
54. How many questions are asked in Paper-II (Statistics) of Tier-II?
Correct Answer: b) 100
Explanation:
Paper-II features 100 multiple-choice questions on Statistics.
55. What is the maximum marks for Paper-II (Statistics) of Tier-II?
Correct Answer: c) 200
Explanation:
100 questions multiplied by 2 marks each yields a maximum of 200 marks.
56. How much time is allotted for Paper-II of Tier-II for normal candidates?
Correct Answer: c) 2 hours
Explanation:
Candidates are given 2 hours (120 minutes) to solve the 100 questions in Paper-II.
57. What is the marks awarded for a correct answer in Paper-II (Statistics)?
Correct Answer: b) 2 marks
Explanation:
Unlike Paper-I which gives 3 marks per answer, Paper-II and Paper-III grant 2 marks for every correct answer.
58. What is the negative marking for an incorrect answer in Paper-II?
Correct Answer: b) 0.50 marks
Explanation:
In Paper-II, 0.50 marks are deducted for every wrong attempt.
59. Which candidates are required to appear for Paper-III in Tier-II?
Correct Answer: a) Assistant Audit Officer and Assistant Accounts Officer (AAO)
Explanation:
Paper-III is mandatory only for candidates competing for the posts of Assistant Audit Officer and Assistant Accounts Officer.
60. What is the subject of Paper-III in Tier-II?
Correct Answer: c) General Studies (Finance and Economics)
Explanation:
Paper-III tests General Studies, focusing specifically on Finance and Economics topics required for audit/accounts roles.
61. How many questions are asked in Paper-III of Tier-II?
Correct Answer: b) 100
Explanation:
Paper-III comprises 100 multiple-choice questions.
62. What is the maximum marks for Paper-III of Tier-II?
Correct Answer: c) 200
Explanation:
Each question carries 2 marks, making the maximum total 200 marks for Paper-III.
63. How much time is allotted for Paper-III of Tier-II?
Correct Answer: b) 2 hours
Explanation:
Normal candidates receive 2 hours (120 minutes) for Paper-III.
64. What is the negative marking for an incorrect answer in Paper-III?
Correct Answer: b) 0.50 marks
Explanation:
Similar to Paper-II, the negative marking in Paper-III is 0.50 marks per incorrect response.
65. What is the maximum possible score considered for the final merit list for a general post (like Inspector)?
Correct Answer: b) 390
Explanation:
For most posts, final merit is prepared on the basis of Section-I (180 marks) and Section-II (210 marks) of Tier-II Paper-I, making the total 390.
66. What is the maximum possible score considered for final merit for the JSO post?
Correct Answer: c) 590
Explanation:
Merit for JSO includes Paper-I (390 marks) + Paper-II Statistics (200 marks) = 590 marks.
67. What is the maximum possible score considered for final merit for the AAO post?
Correct Answer: c) 590
Explanation:
Merit for AAO is based on Paper-I (390 marks) + Paper-III Finance & Economics (200 marks) = 590 marks.
68. Which condition must a candidate fulfill to have their Section-II of Tier-II evaluated?
Correct Answer: c) Must qualify in Section-I of Tier-II
Explanation:
The evaluation process happens in stages. Candidates must clear the minimum qualifying marks in Section-I; otherwise, subsequent sections may not be evaluated for merit.
69. What was the Tier-III exam in the old SSC CGL pattern (before 2022)?
Correct Answer: c) Descriptive Paper (Pen and Paper mode)
Explanation:
Historically, Tier-III was a descriptive paper in English or Hindi (essay, précis, letter writing) conducted offline.
70. Does the current SSC CGL pattern include a descriptive paper?
Correct Answer: d) No
Explanation:
The descriptive paper was completely abolished from the SSC CGL examination starting with the 2022 cycle.
71. What was the Tier-IV exam in the old SSC CGL pattern?
Correct Answer: c) Skill Test (CPT/DEST)
Explanation:
Tier-IV previously comprised the Computer Proficiency Test (CPT) and Data Entry Speed Test (DEST).
72. How has the Computer Proficiency Test (CPT) been adapted in the new pattern?
Correct Answer: b) It has been integrated into Tier-II as the Computer Knowledge Test
Explanation:
Instead of a separate Tier-IV CPT, a Computer Knowledge Module has been introduced as part of Paper-I in Tier-II.
73. Is there a personal interview in the SSC CGL selection process for Group B Officer posts?
Correct Answer: c) No, interviews were abolished
Explanation:
Personal interviews were abolished for all lower gazetted and non-gazetted posts (including SSC CGL Group B and C posts) by the Government of India in 2016.
74. How does SSC calculate fair scores when exams are conducted in multiple shifts?
Correct Answer: b) By applying Normalization
Explanation:
SSC uses a statistical normalization formula to equate difficulty levels across multiple shifts and uses the normalized score to determine merit.
75. What is the minimum qualifying mark percentage in Tier-I & Tier-II for UR category candidates?
Correct Answer: c) 30%
Explanation:
The official notification sets the minimum qualifying marks for Unreserved (UR) candidates at 30% across all sections.
76. What is the minimum qualifying mark percentage in Tier-I & Tier-II for OBC/EWS category candidates?
Correct Answer: b) 25%
Explanation:
For candidates belonging to the OBC and EWS categories, the minimum qualifying cutoff is 25%.
77. What is the minimum qualifying mark percentage in Tier-I & Tier-II for SC/ST category candidates?
Correct Answer: a) 20%
Explanation:
SC, ST, and all other remaining categories require a minimum of 20% to qualify in the respective sections/tiers.
78. What is the maximum allowable error percentage in DEST for UR candidates (general standard)?
Correct Answer: c) 20%
Explanation:
The maximum percentage of errors allowed (i.e., minimum qualifying standard) in DEST for UR candidates is 20%.
79. What is the maximum allowable error percentage in DEST for OBC/EWS candidates (general standard)?
Correct Answer: d) 25%
Explanation:
For OBC and EWS candidates, up to 25% errors are tolerated in the typing test (DEST).
80. What is the maximum allowable error percentage in DEST for SC/ST candidates (general standard)?
Correct Answer: d) 30%
Explanation:
Candidates from SC/ST and other reserved categories are permitted up to 30% errors in the DEST module.
81. For posts requiring higher computer proficiency (e.g., CSS, MEA), what standard applies to the Computer Knowledge Test?
Correct Answer: a) Minimum qualifying marks are higher than standard cutoff
Explanation:
For posts that mandate computer proficiency, SSC fixes a higher minimum qualifying cutoff for the Computer Knowledge Test compared to other posts.
82. Which of the following posts requires higher qualifying standards (lower error tolerance) in DEST?
Correct Answer: b) Tax Assistant in CBDT and CBIC
Explanation:
Posts like Tax Assistant heavily rely on data entry, so SSC mandates stricter DEST qualifying standards (e.g., 5% error for UR) for them.
83. Which module of Tier-II Paper-I practically evaluates typing speed?
Correct Answer: d) Module-II of Section-III
Explanation:
Module-II of Section-III refers to the Data Entry Speed Test (DEST), which evaluates a candidate's typing speed and accuracy.
84. Section-I of Tier-II Paper-I evaluates which two modules?
Correct Answer: c) Mathematics and Reasoning
Explanation:
Section-I is composed of Mathematical Abilities and Reasoning & General Intelligence.
85. Section-II of Tier-II Paper-I evaluates which two modules?
Correct Answer: a) English and General Awareness
Explanation:
Section-II evaluates English Language & Comprehension and General Awareness.
86. What is the weightage of the General Awareness section in Tier-II Paper-I?
Correct Answer: b) 75 marks
Explanation:
There are 25 questions in General Awareness; multiplied by 3 marks per question, the total weightage is 75 marks.
87. What is the weightage of the English Language and Comprehension section in Tier-II Paper-I?
Correct Answer: d) 135 marks
Explanation:
There are 45 questions in English; multiplied by 3 marks per question, the total weightage is 135 marks.
88. What is the weightage of the Mathematical Abilities section in Tier-II Paper-I?
Correct Answer: c) 90 marks
Explanation:
There are 30 Math questions; multiplied by 3 marks each, it gives 90 marks.
89. What is the weightage of the Reasoning and General Intelligence section in Tier-II Paper-I?
Correct Answer: c) 90 marks
Explanation:
There are 30 Reasoning questions; multiplied by 3 marks each, the total is 90 marks.
90. Which section carries the highest weightage (maximum marks) in Tier-II Paper-I?
Correct Answer: c) English Language and Comprehension
Explanation:
With 45 questions carrying a total of 135 marks, English holds the highest weightage in the main Paper-I.
91. Prior to the 2022 major syllabus and structural changes, how many tiers were part of the SSC CGL exam process?
Correct Answer: c) 4
Explanation:
Previously, the SSC CGL process involved 4 tiers: CBT Tier-I, CBT Tier-II, Descriptive Tier-III, and Skill Test Tier-IV.
92. SSC CGL recruits candidates primarily for which groups of government posts?
Correct Answer: b) Group B and Group C
Explanation:
The examination recruits staff for various Group 'B' and Group 'C' gazetted and non-gazetted posts in government ministries and departments.
93. Are candidates allowed to use calculators in the SSC CGL Tier-I exam?
Correct Answer: c) No, calculators are strictly prohibited
Explanation:
Electronic gadgets, including calculators and smartwatches, are strictly prohibited in the exam hall.
94. Are candidates allowed to carry their own rough sheets into the SSC CGL examination hall?
Correct Answer: c) No, rough sheets are provided at the exam center
Explanation:
To prevent cheating, candidates cannot carry paper inside. Exam centers provide blank rough sheets for calculations.
95. In the event of a tie in final scores for general posts, which of the following criteria is checked first to resolve it?
Correct Answer: b) Marks in Section-I of Tier-II Paper-I
Explanation:
If scores are tied, SSC resolves it by checking marks in Paper-II/III (if applicable), then marks in Section-I of Paper-I, then Date of Birth, and lastly alphabetical order of names.
96. Which module is tested immediately after Section-II in Session-I of Tier-II Paper-I?
Correct Answer: c) Computer Knowledge Test
Explanation:
Session-I comprises 1 hour of Section-I, 1 hour of Section-II, and immediately follows with the 15-minute Computer Knowledge Test (Section-III, Module-I).
97. Does the DEST module (Session-II) happen on the same day as Session-I of Tier-II Paper-I?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, usually on the same day after a break
Explanation:
For convenience and efficiency, Session-I and Session-II (DEST) are typically conducted on the same day, separated by a brief interval.
98. What is the time allotted for Section-I of Tier-II Paper-I for candidates eligible for a scribe?
Correct Answer: c) 1 hour 20 minutes
Explanation:
Candidates eligible for a scribe get an extra 20 minutes for every 1-hour session, giving them 1 hour 20 minutes for Section-I.
99. Is the initial answer key released by SSC final and binding immediately?
Correct Answer: b) No, it is tentative and candidates can submit representations/challenges
Explanation:
SSC releases a tentative answer key first. Candidates can challenge incorrect answers by paying a fee per question before a final answer key is published.
100. Which paper is exclusively meant for the post of Assistant Audit Officer and Assistant Accounts Officer?
Correct Answer: c) Paper-III
Explanation:
Paper-III of Tier-II covers General Studies (Finance and Economics) and is required exclusively for AAO posts.
