The Staff Selection Commission (SSC) is a premier recruiting organization under the Government of India, established on November 4, 1975. Functioning as an attached office of the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT), the SSC is responsible for recruiting personnel for various Group B (Non-Gazetted) and Group C posts across diverse Central Government ministries, departments, and subordinate offices. The commission conducts some of India’s most highly competitive examinations, including the Combined Graduate Level (CGL), Combined Higher Secondary Level (CHSL), Multi-Tasking Staff (MTS), and Central Police Organization (CPO) exams. Understanding the structure, history, and examination patterns of the SSC is the crucial first step for millions of aspirants aiming to secure central government employment.
1. When was the Staff Selection Commission (SSC) established?
Correct Answer: c) 1975
Explanation:
The Staff Selection Commission was established on November 4, 1975, to recruit staff for various Group B and Group C posts in the Government of India.
2. What was the original name of the Staff Selection Commission?
Correct Answer: b) Subordinate Services Commission
Explanation:
It was originally called the Subordinate Services Commission and was renamed the Staff Selection Commission on September 26, 1977.
3. Where is the headquarters of the Staff Selection Commission located?
Correct Answer: d) New Delhi
Explanation:
The headquarters of the SSC is located in New Delhi.
4. Under which Ministry does the Staff Selection Commission operate?
Correct Answer: c) Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
Explanation:
SSC operates under the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT), which is part of the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.
5. How many Regional Offices does the Staff Selection Commission have?
Correct Answer: b) 7
Explanation:
SSC has 7 Regional Offices located in Allahabad, Mumbai, Kolkata, Guwahati, Chennai, Bangalore, and New Delhi, plus 2 Sub-Regional Offices.
6. What does SSC CGL stand for?
Correct Answer: a) Combined Graduate Level
Explanation:
SSC CGL stands for Combined Graduate Level examination, which is conducted to recruit staff to various posts in ministries, departments, and organizations of the Government of India.
7. Which of the following is the highest-paying post typically offered through the SSC CGL exam?
Correct Answer: b) Assistant Audit Officer (AAO)
Explanation:
The Assistant Audit Officer (AAO) in CAG is a Group B Gazetted (Non-Ministerial) post and is the highest-paying post offered through SSC CGL.
8. What is the minimum educational qualification required for the SSC CHSL exam?
Correct Answer: b) 12th Pass
Explanation:
SSC CHSL (Combined Higher Secondary Level) requires a minimum educational qualification of passing the 12th standard from a recognized board.
9. Which of the following exams is conducted by SSC specifically for recruiting Sub-Inspectors in Delhi Police and CAPFs?
Correct Answer: a) SSC CPO
Explanation:
The SSC Central Police Organization (CPO) exam recruits candidates for the post of Sub-Inspector in Delhi Police, CAPFs, and Assistant Sub-Inspector in CISF.
10. What is the primary function of the SSC MTS exam?
Correct Answer: b) To recruit Multi-Tasking (Non-Technical) Staff
Explanation:
SSC MTS (Multi-Tasking Staff) is a matriculation-level exam conducted to recruit candidates for General Central Service Group 'C' Non-Gazetted, Non-Ministerial posts.
11. Which level of government relies on the SSC for staff recruitment?
Correct Answer: c) Central Government
Explanation:
The SSC conducts examinations primarily for recruiting Group B and Group C staff for various Ministries and Departments of the Central Government of India.
12. Which of the following posts is NOT recruited through SSC CGL?
Correct Answer: c) District Magistrate
Explanation:
A District Magistrate (IAS officer) is recruited through the UPSC Civil Services Examination, not SSC CGL.
13. What is the typical age limit for most Group C posts in the SSC CGL exam (Unreserved category)?
Correct Answer: b) 18 to 27 years
Explanation:
For most Group C posts like Tax Assistant or UDC, the general age limit is 18 to 27 years, though age relaxations apply for reserved categories.
14. Which tier of the revised SSC CGL exam pattern is a qualifying computer knowledge test?
Correct Answer: b) Tier II Paper I (Module I of Section III)
Explanation:
In the revised SSC CGL pattern, the Computer Knowledge Test is Module I of Section III in Tier II, and it is qualifying in nature.
15. The SSC GD Constable exam recruits for which of the following forces?
Correct Answer: c) Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs)
Explanation:
SSC GD recruits General Duty Constables for CAPFs like BSF, CISF, CRPF, ITBP, SSB, as well as the SSF and Assam Rifles.
16. Which language(s) is the SSC Tier I exam typically conducted in?
Correct Answer: d) English, Hindi, and 13 regional languages
Explanation:
Recently, SSC started conducting exams like MTS and CHSL in English, Hindi, and 13 regional languages to provide a level playing field.
17. What is the negative marking for an incorrect answer in SSC CGL Tier I?
Correct Answer: c) 0.50 marks
Explanation:
In SSC CGL Tier I, each question carries 2 marks, and there is a negative marking of 0.50 marks (which is 1/4th of the question's weight) for each wrong answer.
18. The DEST in SSC exams stands for what?
Correct Answer: a) Data Entry Skill Test
Explanation:
DEST stands for Data Entry Skill Test, which evaluates a candidate's typing speed and accuracy for posts like Tax Assistant and DEO.
19. How many Sections are there in the SSC CGL Tier II Paper I?
Correct Answer: b) 3
Explanation:
Paper I of SSC CGL Tier II is divided into 3 sections: Section I (Math & Reasoning), Section II (English & GA), and Section III (Computer & DEST).
20. What is the primary qualification required for the SSC Junior Engineer (JE) exam?
Correct Answer: b) Degree or Diploma in Engineering
Explanation:
SSC JE recruits Junior Engineers in Civil, Electrical, and Mechanical disciplines, requiring a relevant Degree or Diploma in Engineering.
21. Which SSC exam is specifically for candidates proficient in shorthand?
Correct Answer: c) SSC Stenographer Grade C and D
Explanation:
The SSC Stenographer Grade C and D examination is designed to recruit candidates who possess shorthand and typing skills.
22. What is the full form of JHT in the context of SSC exams?
Correct Answer: a) Junior Hindi Translator
Explanation:
SSC JHT stands for Junior Hindi Translator, an exam conducted to recruit translators for various Central Government Departments.
23. What system does SSC use to adjust scores across multiple shifts with varying difficulty levels?
Correct Answer: b) Normalization
Explanation:
SSC uses a normalization formula to adjust candidate scores across multiple shifts to account for variations in the difficulty levels of the question papers.
24. Which body is proposed to eventually replace the Tier I screening of SSC, RRB, and IBPS?
Correct Answer: b) National Recruitment Agency (NRA)
Explanation:
The Government introduced the National Recruitment Agency (NRA) to conduct a Common Eligibility Test (CET) to replace the Tier I exams for SSC, RRB, and IBPS.
25. What is the new official website of the Staff Selection Commission launched in 2024?
Correct Answer: b) ssc.gov.in
Explanation:
In 2024, SSC launched its new website 'ssc.gov.in', requiring candidates to generate a new One-Time Registration (OTR) profile.
26. What is the maximum age limit for the SSC MTS exam for the Havaldar post (Unreserved)?
Correct Answer: b) 27 years
Explanation:
For the post of Havaldar in CBIC and CBN under the SSC MTS exam, the maximum age limit for unreserved candidates is 27 years.
27. In SSC CGL, the post of Assistant Section Officer (ASO) is heavily sought after for placement in which ministry?
Correct Answer: b) Ministry of External Affairs (MEA)
Explanation:
ASO in the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) is highly sought after because it offers opportunities for foreign postings.
28. Is there an interview process in the SSC CGL examination?
Correct Answer: c) No, interviews were abolished for Group B and C posts
Explanation:
The Government of India abolished interviews for all Group B (Non-Gazetted) and Group C posts starting in 2016.
29. In SSC CPO, what is the mandatory physical test called?
Correct Answer: a) Physical Efficiency Test (PET) / Physical Standard Test (PST)
Explanation:
Candidates must clear the Physical Standard Test (PST) and Physical Efficiency Test (PET) to be eligible for Tier II in the SSC CPO exam.
30. Who conducts the final Document Verification (DV) for SSC CGL candidates as of recent changes?
Correct Answer: c) The respective indenting User Departments
Explanation:
To expedite the recruitment process, Document Verification is now conducted directly by the indenting user ministries or departments, rather than by the SSC itself.
31. What does LDC stand for in the context of SSC CHSL?
Correct Answer: b) Lower Division Clerk
Explanation:
LDC stands for Lower Division Clerk, which is one of the primary entry-level clerical posts recruited through the SSC CHSL exam.
32. How many questions are asked in the SSC CGL Tier I exam?
Correct Answer: b) 100
Explanation:
SSC CGL Tier I consists of 100 questions (25 each from Reasoning, General Awareness, Quantitative Aptitude, and English Comprehension).
33. What is the total duration of the SSC CGL Tier I exam for general candidates?
Correct Answer: b) 60 minutes
Explanation:
The total duration of the SSC CGL Tier I exam is 60 minutes (1 hour) for general candidates.
34. Which of the following is an eligibility requirement for the post of Junior Statistical Officer (JSO) in SSC CGL?
Correct Answer: b) Minimum 60% marks in Mathematics at 12th standard level
Explanation:
For JSO, candidates must have a Bachelor's Degree in any subject with at least 60% marks in Mathematics at the 12th standard, OR a degree with Statistics as one of the subjects.
35. In the SSC CHSL exam, what is the role of a PA/SA?
Correct Answer: b) Postal Assistant / Sorting Assistant
Explanation:
PA/SA stands for Postal Assistant and Sorting Assistant. Note: This post was recently moved from CHSL to CGL as the required qualification was upgraded to graduation.
36. Under SSC exams, what does OTR stand for?
Correct Answer: b) One-Time Registration
Explanation:
OTR stands for One-Time Registration, a portal feature where candidates create a permanent profile to apply for various SSC exams without re-entering basic details.
37. What is the purpose of SSC Selection Post exams?
Correct Answer: b) To fill isolated category posts in various departments
Explanation:
SSC Selection Post exams are conducted to recruit candidates for specialized or isolated posts across different ministries that do not fall under regular exams like CGL or CHSL.
38. Which subject is NOT part of the SSC CGL Tier I syllabus?
Correct Answer: d) Regional Language Comprehension
Explanation:
SSC CGL Tier I includes Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude, English Comprehension, and General Awareness. Regional language is not tested.
39. In SSC JE, Paper II is typically of what format?
Correct Answer: a) Objective Multiple Choice (CBT)
Explanation:
Historically subjective, SSC JE Paper II was recently changed to an Objective Type Computer Based Test (CBT) with a negative marking system.
40. What is the basic pay level of an Inspector (Central Excise) recruited via SSC CGL?
Correct Answer: c) Pay Level 7
Explanation:
Inspectors (Central Excise) fall under Pay Level 7 of the 7th Pay Commission pay matrix.
41. The SSC GD Constable Physical Efficiency Test (PET) for male candidates (General) requires running what distance?
Correct Answer: b) 5 km in 24 minutes
Explanation:
For male candidates (other than those belonging to the Ladakh region), the PET requirement is running 5 km in 24 minutes.
42. What is the penalty for a wrong answer in SSC CGL Tier II Section I and II?
Correct Answer: c) 1 mark
Explanation:
In SSC CGL Tier II Sections I & II, each question carries 3 marks, and 1 mark is deducted for every wrong answer.
43. Which body functions as an appellate authority for SSC-related administrative tribunal matters?
Correct Answer: a) Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)
Explanation:
Grievances and service matters related to SSC recruitment often go to the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) before reaching higher courts.
44. Which of the following posts involves working in the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)?
Correct Answer: a) Sub-Inspector
Explanation:
The post of Sub-Inspector in the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is recruited through the SSC CGL examination.
45. What happens if two candidates score equal aggregate marks in SSC CGL?
Correct Answer: a) The older candidate is ranked higher
Explanation:
Tie-breaking rules apply: first, marks in specific Tier II papers; if still tied, the candidate older in age gets preference, followed by alphabetical order of names.
46. Who is the Ex-officio Chairman of the Staff Selection Commission?
Correct Answer: b) An IAS officer equivalent to Secretary to the Govt. of India
Explanation:
The Chairman of SSC is generally a senior IAS officer holding the rank and pay of Secretary or Additional Secretary to the Government of India.
47. What is the standard validity period of the SSC One-Time Registration (OTR) profile?
Correct Answer: d) Valid indefinitely until modified or superseded
Explanation:
An OTR profile is a permanent, one-time setup that remains valid indefinitely to allow candidates to easily apply for future SSC exams.
48. Which SSC exam requires typing speed of 35 wpm in English or 30 wpm in Hindi?
Correct Answer: b) SSC CHSL
Explanation:
The Skill Test/Typing Test for LDC/JSA in the SSC CHSL exam requires a typing speed of 35 words per minute in English or 30 words per minute in Hindi.
49. Are candidates allowed to use calculators in SSC CGL Tier I?
Correct Answer: c) No, calculators are strictly prohibited
Explanation:
Candidates are not allowed to carry or use any electronic devices, including calculators, during the SSC CGL Tier I examination.
50. What is the fee for unreserved male candidates applying for most SSC examinations?
Correct Answer: b) Rs. 100
Explanation:
The application fee for general and OBC male candidates is typically Rs. 100. Women, SC, ST, and Ex-servicemen are usually exempted from payment.
51. Which of these candidates are completely exempted from paying the SSC exam application fee?
Correct Answer: c) All female candidates
Explanation:
According to SSC guidelines, all women candidates, regardless of their category, are exempted from paying the application fee.
52. Which of the following is NOT an SSC Regional Office?
Correct Answer: d) Central Coastal Region (CCR) - Visakhapatnam
Explanation:
There is no 'Central Coastal Region' in SSC. The regions include NR, SR, WR, ER (Kolkata), CR (Allahabad), NER (Guwahati), NWR (Chandigarh), KKR (Bangalore), and MPR (Raipur).
53. For the post of Assistant Section Officer (ASO) in CSS, what does CSS stand for?
Correct Answer: a) Central Secretariat Service
Explanation:
CSS stands for Central Secretariat Service. An ASO in CSS is a highly sought-after desk job based entirely in New Delhi.
54. The SSC CGL Tier II Paper II is mandatory for which post?
Correct Answer: c) Junior Statistical Officer (JSO)
Explanation:
Paper II in Tier II is a Statistics paper and is mandatory only for those candidates who apply for the post of Junior Statistical Officer (JSO).
55. The SSC CGL Tier II Paper III is mandatory for which post?
Correct Answer: a) Assistant Audit Officer (AAO)
Explanation:
Paper III in Tier II is General Studies (Finance and Economics) and is required only for candidates applying for Assistant Audit Officer/Assistant Accounts Officer.
56. What does NIA stand for in the context of SSC CGL Sub-Inspector posts?
Correct Answer: b) National Investigation Agency
Explanation:
NIA stands for National Investigation Agency, India's premier counter-terrorist task force. SSC CGL recruits Sub-Inspectors for the NIA.
57. The SSC Stenographer exam tests candidates primarily on which two subjects in its CBT phase?
Correct Answer: b) General Awareness, Reasoning, and English
Explanation:
The SSC Stenographer CBT tests General Intelligence & Reasoning (50 Qs), General Awareness (50 Qs), and English Language & Comprehension (100 Qs). Quantitative Aptitude (Maths) is not tested.
58. In the SSC MTS exam, what physical test is required for the Havaldar post?
Correct Answer: b) Walking 1600m in 15 mins for males
Explanation:
For the Havaldar post, candidates must pass a Physical Efficiency Test (PET) which includes walking 1600 meters in 15 minutes for males and 1 km in 20 minutes for females.
59. What happens if a candidate is found carrying a mobile phone during an SSC exam?
Correct Answer: c) Candidate is debarred from SSC exams for a specified period
Explanation:
SSC has strict rules regarding malpractice. Carrying electronic devices like mobile phones can result in the candidate being debarred from all SSC exams for 3 to 7 years.
60. Which SSC post is responsible for checking smuggling and illegal import/export at borders and airports?
Correct Answer: b) Inspector (Preventive Officer)
Explanation:
An Inspector (Preventive Officer) under CBIC is stationed at customs points (airports, seaports) to prevent smuggling and illegal activities.
61. How often does SSC typically publish its annual examination calendar?
Correct Answer: b) Once a year (with periodic updates)
Explanation:
SSC publishes a comprehensive Annual Calendar of Examinations every year, outlining the tentative dates for exam notifications, applications, and tier exams.
62. What is the color-blindness policy for SSC CPO (Sub-Inspector) recruitment?
Correct Answer: b) Color blindness is strictly a disqualification
Explanation:
For armed police and sub-inspector roles under SSC CPO, candidates must have high visual standards, and color blindness is a strict medical disqualification.
63. What does DEO stand for in the context of SSC CHSL?
Correct Answer: b) Data Entry Operator
Explanation:
DEO stands for Data Entry Operator. It is a clerical-level post recruited through the SSC CHSL examination.
64. Who conducts the typing test for SSC exams?
Correct Answer: b) SSC directly on computer systems at designated centers
Explanation:
SSC conducts its own Skill/Typing Tests on computers at designated exam centers using specially designed software to evaluate keystrokes and accuracy.
65. For which SSC CGL post is a physical standard and fitness test mandatory?
Correct Answer: c) Inspector (Central Excise)
Explanation:
Posts like Inspector (Central Excise, Examiner, Preventive Officer) and Sub-Inspector (CBI/NIA) require candidates to meet specific physical standards and pass a walking/cycling test.
66. What is the full form of CBIC, a major recruiter through SSC CGL?
Correct Answer: b) Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs
Explanation:
CBIC stands for Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs. It recruits for posts like Excise Inspector, Preventive Officer, and Examiner.
67. What is the full form of CBDT, another major recruiter through SSC CGL?
Correct Answer: b) Central Board of Direct Taxes
Explanation:
CBDT stands for Central Board of Direct Taxes, the nodal department under the Ministry of Finance that recruits Income Tax Inspectors and Tax Assistants.
68. What happens if a candidate submits multiple applications for the same SSC examination?
Correct Answer: c) Only the latest complete application is accepted
Explanation:
According to SSC rules, if multiple applications are submitted, only the latest fully completed application is retained, and all previous ones are rejected.
69. What is the probation period for most Group B and C posts recruited through SSC?
Correct Answer: c) 2 years
Explanation:
The standard probation period for newly appointed candidates in Group B and Group C posts in the Central Government is 2 years.
70. Under the SSC CPO exam, which force is primarily responsible for border guarding along the Indo-Pak and Indo-Bangladesh borders?
Correct Answer: b) BSF
Explanation:
Border Security Force (BSF) is the primary border guarding force for India's borders with Pakistan and Bangladesh. Sub-Inspectors in BSF are recruited via SSC CPO.
71. Which of these subjects tests a candidate’s problem-solving and logical skills in SSC exams?
Correct Answer: c) General Intelligence and Reasoning
Explanation:
General Intelligence and Reasoning evaluates logical thinking, problem-solving abilities, and non-verbal reasoning skills (e.g., puzzles, series, analogies).
72. Is there a sectional cutoff in the SSC CGL Tier I examination?
Correct Answer: c) No, there is only an overall cutoff
Explanation:
Unlike banking exams (IBPS), SSC CGL Tier I does not have sectional cutoffs. Candidates only need to clear the overall aggregate cutoff score.
73. In the new SSC CGL Tier II pattern, is there a sectional time limit?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, each section (e.g., Math+Reasoning) has a fixed 1-hour time limit
Explanation:
In the revised SSC CGL Tier II pattern, Section I (Maths & Reasoning) is active for 1 hour, followed immediately by Section II (English & GA) for another hour. Candidates cannot switch between sections.
74. What minimum qualifying marks are typically set by SSC for UR (Unreserved) category candidates in Tier I?
Correct Answer: c) 30%
Explanation:
The baseline qualifying mark required by SSC for the UR category is 30%. However, the actual cutoff to advance to the next tier is determined competitively and is usually much higher.
75. Who issues the final appointment letter to a candidate selected through SSC?
Correct Answer: c) The User Ministry/Department where the candidate is allocated
Explanation:
SSC is only a recruiting agency. Once a candidate is nominated to a specific department or ministry, the respective department issues the offer of appointment.
76. What is the primary role of the 'Post Preference' form in SSC exams?
Correct Answer: b) To rank the jobs the candidate wishes to join based on their score
Explanation:
Candidates must fill out an Option/Preference form arranging the ministries and posts in order of choice. Final allocation is strictly based on merit-cum-preference.
77. What happens if a candidate fails to submit their Post Preference before the deadline in SSC CGL?
Correct Answer: c) The candidate's candidature is rejected and they will not be considered for final selection
Explanation:
Submission of the Option/Preference form online is mandatory. If a candidate fails to submit it, they are disqualified from final selection.
78. Which of the following describes the CPT in SSC exams?
Correct Answer: b) Computer Proficiency Test
Explanation:
CPT stands for Computer Proficiency Test, which used to evaluate Word Processing, Spreadsheets, and PowerPoint skills. It has now been replaced by the Computer Knowledge Module.
79. Which ID proof is NOT considered universally valid for entry into an SSC examination hall?
Correct Answer: c) College Library Card
Explanation:
SSC strictly requires a valid original government-issued photo ID, such as Aadhaar, Voter ID, PAN, or Passport. College IDs/Library cards are usually not accepted.
80. Under the new SSC photo upload guidelines, which of these can cause application rejection?
Correct Answer: a) Wearing spectacles in the uploaded photo
Explanation:
SSC strictly mandates that photographs must be taken without spectacles/glasses, caps, or masks. Photos with spectacles lead to automatic application rejection.
81. Which SSC CGL post involves working with the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?
Correct Answer: b) Divisional Accountant
Explanation:
Divisional Accountant is an excellent Group B post under the Indian Audit and Accounts Department (CAG) allocated through SSC CGL.
82. For Ex-Servicemen (ESM) candidates, how does age relaxation work in SSC exams?
Correct Answer: c) 3 years after deduction of the military service rendered from the actual age
Explanation:
ESM candidates get an age relaxation of 3 years after deducting their years of military service from their actual age.
83. What is the format of the SSC Multi-Tasking Staff (MTS) exam's computer-based test?
Correct Answer: b) Objective Multiple Choice
Explanation:
The SSC MTS examination is entirely Objective Multiple Choice via a Computer Based Test (CBT).
84. In the SSC MTS revised pattern, which section has no negative marking?
Correct Answer: c) Session-I (Numerical Ability and Reasoning)
Explanation:
Under the revised MTS pattern, Session-I (Numerical Ability & Reasoning) has no negative marking, whereas Session-II (General Awareness & English) has negative marking.
85. Which of these posts does NOT fall under SSC CGL's Group B category?
Correct Answer: c) Tax Assistant
Explanation:
Tax Assistant in CBDT or CBIC is a Group C post, whereas ASO, IT Inspector, and CBI SI are Group B posts.
86. How is the final merit list generated for SSC CGL?
Correct Answer: b) Based solely on Tier II marks
Explanation:
In the revised pattern, Tier I is only qualifying. The final merit list is prepared strictly based on the aggregate marks scored in Tier II.
87. If a candidate is caught copying during an SSC exam, what is the maximum debarment period?
Correct Answer: d) 7 years
Explanation:
Using unfair means, such as copying or using Bluetooth devices, carries the strictest penalty, which can lead to debarment for up to 7 years.
88. Which SSC recruitment test evaluates translation skills?
Correct Answer: c) SSC JHT
Explanation:
SSC Junior Hindi Translator (JHT) explicitly evaluates a candidate's ability to translate documents from Hindi to English and vice versa.
89. In SSC CHSL, how is the Tier II exam structured currently?
Correct Answer: c) It is an objective CBT matching the CGL Tier II format, plus a typing test
Explanation:
The CHSL Tier II pattern was revised to match CGL, featuring sections on Maths, Reasoning, English, and GA in a CBT format, along with a Skill/Typing test.
90. Which post in SSC CGL is known for 'field work' and carrying out search and seizure operations?
Correct Answer: c) Assistant Enforcement Officer (AEO) in ED
Explanation:
AEOs in the Enforcement Directorate (ED) are often involved in field operations, raids, and preventing money laundering.
91. Does SSC provide the answer key after conducting a Computer Based Test (CBT)?
Correct Answer: c) Yes, tentative answer keys are released shortly after the exam for candidates to challenge
Explanation:
SSC releases tentative answer keys and candidates' response sheets within a few days of the exam, allowing candidates to file representations against incorrect keys for a fee.
92. What is the fee per question to challenge an incorrect answer key in SSC exams?
Correct Answer: b) Rs. 100
Explanation:
Candidates must pay Rs. 100 per question/answer challenged when submitting representations against the tentative answer key.
93. What is the full form of CAPF in the context of SSC exams?
Correct Answer: a) Central Armed Police Forces
Explanation:
CAPF stands for Central Armed Police Forces. It includes organizations like BSF, CISF, CRPF, ITBP, and SSB.
94. For candidates belonging to the Scheduled Caste (SC) or Scheduled Tribe (ST), what is the age relaxation provided in SSC exams?
Correct Answer: b) 5 years
Explanation:
Candidates belonging to SC/ST categories receive a 5-year relaxation in the upper age limit for all SSC examinations.
95. For candidates belonging to the Other Backward Classes (OBC), what is the age relaxation provided in SSC exams?
Correct Answer: b) 3 years
Explanation:
Candidates belonging to the Non-Creamy Layer of OBC receive a 3-year relaxation in the upper age limit.
96. What is the main function of the CISF, for which SSC CPO recruits Sub-Inspectors?
Correct Answer: c) Providing security to industrial units, airports, and metro networks
Explanation:
The Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) provides security cover to critical infrastructure installations like airports, atomic power plants, and Delhi Metro.
97. The SSC JE exam consists of how many papers?
Correct Answer: b) Two
Explanation:
The SSC Junior Engineer exam consists of Paper I (Objective) and Paper II (Objective, domain-specific), totaling two papers.
98. Which of the following describes a 'Selection Post' in SSC?
Correct Answer: b) An isolated post specific to a single department with distinct qualifications
Explanation:
Selection Posts are niche roles like Library Clerk, Farm Manager, or Technical Operator that exist in small numbers in specific departments and require unique qualifications.
99. Are calculators allowed in SSC JE Paper II?
Correct Answer: c) Only a virtual on-screen calculator is provided
Explanation:
Under the new CBT format for SSC JE Paper II, candidates are provided an on-screen virtual calculator and cannot bring physical calculators.
100. Which SSC examination recruits candidates specifically for assisting in intelligence collection at the Intelligence Bureau (IB)?
Correct Answer: d) IB conducts its own exam (ACIO), but SSC CGL recruits Assistant Section Officers in AFHQ/IB
Explanation:
While IB conducts its own ACIO exam, SSC CGL does recruit Assistant Section Officers (ASO) who perform administrative roles in the Intelligence Bureau.
101. If a candidate is PwD (Persons with Disabilities), are they eligible for the post of Inspector in Central Excise?
Correct Answer: c) Eligible only for specific disability categories as identified by the government
Explanation:
PwD candidates are exempted from physical tests but are only eligible for the post if their specific disability matches the government's suitability criteria for that job.
102. What is the primary role of a 'Divisional Accountant' (CAG)?
Correct Answer: b) Maintaining and auditing accounts of state government public works divisions
Explanation:
A Divisional Accountant acts as a financial advisor to the Executive Engineer of state public works divisions and maintains their financial accounts.
103. The SSC GD Constable exam is conducted under the administrative control of which Ministry?
Correct Answer: b) Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA)
Explanation:
While SSC conducts the exam, the vacancies, physical tests, and final appointments for GD Constables (CAPFs) are managed by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
104. Which category gets the 'Creamy Layer' exclusion in SSC exam reservations?
Correct Answer: c) Other Backward Classes (OBC)
Explanation:
Only the Non-Creamy Layer of the OBC category is eligible for the 27% reservation. Those falling in the Creamy Layer are treated as Unreserved.
105. In SSC exam applications, what is the crucial date for determining eligibility (age and education)?
Correct Answer: c) A specific cut-off date mentioned in the exam notification
Explanation:
The crucial date for age reckoning and possession of educational qualifications is explicitly stated in each exam's official notification (often January 1 or August 1 of the exam year).
106. What is the 'EWS' quota implemented in SSC exams?
Correct Answer: b) 10% reservation
Explanation:
The Government introduced a 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) in general category vacancies, which is strictly applied in SSC recruitments.
107. What is the purpose of the Medical Examination in SSC CPO?
Correct Answer: b) To ensure candidates do not have knock knee, flat foot, varicose veins, or squint in eyes
Explanation:
Sub-Inspectors in armed forces must be medically fit. The medical exam strictly checks for physical defects like knock knee, flat foot, and visual impairments.
108. What is the penalty for arriving late (after the closing time) to an SSC exam center?
Correct Answer: c) Strictly not allowed to enter
Explanation:
SSC enforces a strict 'Gate Closing Time'. Any candidate arriving even a minute after this time is absolutely not permitted to enter the exam venue.
109. Which of these components is heavily weighted in the SSC CGL Tier II English section?
Correct Answer: b) Reading Comprehension and Grammar
Explanation:
The English Language and Comprehension section heavily tests grammar (error spotting, voice, narration), vocabulary, and reading comprehension.
110. What was a major change in SSC CGL recruitment starting from the 2022 cycle?
Correct Answer: a) Tier III (Descriptive paper) and Tier IV were abolished
Explanation:
SSC overhauled the CGL pattern in 2022. It abolished the Tier III pen-and-paper descriptive test and the separate Tier IV, merging typing and computer tests into Tier II.
111. Who provides the scribe for a Visually Handicapped (VH) candidate in SSC exams?
Correct Answer: a) The candidate must arrange their own scribe or request SSC to provide one
Explanation:
Eligible PwD candidates have the option to bring their own scribe or they can request the SSC to provide one by indicating so in their application form.
112. Can a candidate appearing in the final year of graduation apply for SSC CGL?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, provided they acquire the essential qualification on or before the crucial date
Explanation:
Final year students can apply, but they must possess the final passing result/certificate on or before the crucial date specified in the notification.
113. What is the primary role of the Quantitative Aptitude section in SSC exams?
Correct Answer: b) To evaluate mathematical skills, calculation speed, and numerical logic
Explanation:
Quantitative Aptitude covers topics like arithmetic, algebra, geometry, trigonometry, and data interpretation to test a candidate's mathematical prowess.
114. Which branch of Engineering is NOT covered under the SSC JE exam?
Correct Answer: d) Computer Science Engineering
Explanation:
SSC JE exclusively recruits for Civil, Electrical, and Mechanical engineering posts. It does not recruit Computer Science engineers.
115. The SSC CGL Tier I exam is of what nature?
Correct Answer: b) Qualifying only
Explanation:
As per the new pattern introduced in 2022, Tier I is only screening/qualifying in nature. Its marks are NOT added to the final merit list.
116. What does CGDA stand for, a department that recruits Auditors via SSC CGL?
Correct Answer: a) Controller General of Defence Accounts
Explanation:
CGDA stands for Controller General of Defence Accounts. It is responsible for the audit and accounting of the Ministry of Defence.
117. Which of the following is true regarding SSC Exam Admit Cards?
Correct Answer: b) They must be downloaded from the respective regional SSC website
Explanation:
SSC does not send admit cards by post. Candidates must download their e-Admit Cards from the specific website of the Regional Office where they applied.
118. In the context of SSC exams, what is 'Post Preference'?
Correct Answer: b) Submitting a list of preferred job roles/departments in order of priority
Explanation:
Candidates submit a Post Preference form to rank the ministries and positions they want. Final job allocation is based on their merit score and this preference list.
119. How long is the SSC CGL Tier II Computer Knowledge Module?
Correct Answer: b) 15 minutes
Explanation:
The Computer Knowledge Module is a 15-minute test consisting of 20 questions, forming Module-I of Section-III in Tier II.
120. In SSC CGL Tier II, how many words are candidates roughly expected to type during the DEST (Data Entry Speed Test)?
Correct Answer: b) 2000 key depressions in 15 minutes
Explanation:
The Data Entry Speed Test (DEST) requires candidates to input around 2000 key depressions in a duration of 15 minutes.
121. Which ministry is primarily responsible for the formulation of policies regarding SSC recruitment?
Correct Answer: b) Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT)
Explanation:
The Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT), under the Ministry of Personnel, dictates recruitment policies, reservations, and service conditions for SSC exams.
122. What is the typical ratio of candidates shortlisted for Tier II compared to the number of vacancies in SSC CGL?
Correct Answer: c) 1:10 to 1:15
Explanation:
SSC typically shortlists candidates for Tier II at a ratio of roughly 10 to 15 times the number of declared vacancies, depending on cutoffs and tie cases.
123. For which demographic does the SSC scheme offer 'Ex-Servicemen' quotas?
Correct Answer: c) Retired personnel from the Armed Forces (Army, Navy, Air Force)
Explanation:
Ex-Servicemen (ESM) quotas and age relaxations apply strictly to retired personnel who have served in the regular Army, Navy, or Air Force of the Indian Union.
124. Can a candidate request a change of examination center once the SSC admit card is generated?
Correct Answer: c) No, under no circumstances
Explanation:
SSC strictly states in its notifications that requests for a change of examination center/city will not be entertained under any circumstances.
