The Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) conducts the Regional Rural Banks (RRB) exam annually to recruit candidates for various rural banking posts across India. These posts include Office Assistant (Multipurpose), Officer Scale I (PO), Officer Scale II (General Banking & Specialist Cadre), and Officer Scale III (Senior Manager). The exam structure varies by post: Office Assistants face a Prelims and Mains phase with no interview, while Officer Scale I candidates must clear Prelims, Mains, and a Personal Interview. Officers Scale II and III are selected through a Single Level Examination followed by an interview. A unique feature of the IBPS RRB Mains examination is the option for candidates to choose between English and Hindi for the language section, making it highly accessible to regional candidates.
1. What does IBPS stand for?
Correct Answer: b) Institute of Banking Personnel Selection
Explanation:
IBPS stands for the Institute of Banking Personnel Selection, an autonomous body that conducts recruitment exams for public sector banks in India.
2. What does RRB stand for in the context of the IBPS RRB exam?
Correct Answer: b) Regional Rural Banks
Explanation:
In the banking sector, RRB stands for Regional Rural Banks, which provide basic banking and financial services primarily to rural areas.
3. Which of the following posts is NOT recruited through the IBPS RRB exam?
Correct Answer: d) RBI Grade B Officer
Explanation:
The RBI Grade B Officer exam is conducted separately by the Reserve Bank of India, not through the IBPS RRB process.
4. The IBPS RRB Office Assistant post is broadly equivalent to which role in a standard commercial bank?
Correct Answer: b) Clerk
Explanation:
The Office Assistant (Multipurpose) post in RRBs is equivalent to the clerical cadre in other public sector banks.
5. The IBPS RRB Officer Scale I post is equivalent to which position?
Correct Answer: b) Probationary Officer (PO)
Explanation:
Officer Scale I is the entry-level officer post in RRBs, equivalent to a Probationary Officer (PO) or Assistant Manager in commercial banks.
6. What is the age limit for a general category candidate applying for IBPS RRB Office Assistant?
Correct Answer: a) 18 to 28 years
Explanation:
For the Office Assistant (Multipurpose) post, a candidate must be between 18 and 28 years of age.
7. What is the age limit for a general category candidate applying for IBPS RRB Officer Scale I?
Correct Answer: b) 18 to 30 years
Explanation:
For Officer Scale I (Assistant Manager), the age limit for general category candidates is between 18 and 30 years.
8. Which IBPS RRB post requires a minimum age of 21 years and a maximum of 40 years?
Correct Answer: d) Officer Scale III
Explanation:
Officer Scale III (Senior Manager) requires the candidate to be between 21 and 40 years of age.
9. How many stages are there in the selection process for IBPS RRB Office Assistant?
Correct Answer: b) Two (Prelims and Mains)
Explanation:
The selection process for Office Assistant involves only Prelims and Mains. There is no interview for clerical cadre posts.
10. How many stages are there in the selection process for IBPS RRB Officer Scale I?
Correct Answer: c) Three (Prelims, Mains, Interview)
Explanation:
Officer Scale I selection consists of three phases: Preliminary Exam, Main Exam, and a Personal Interview.
11. Which of the following posts under IBPS RRB has only a single-level written examination followed by an interview?
Correct Answer: c) Officer Scale II and III
Explanation:
For Officer Scale II and III, there is no Prelims exam. Candidates take a single-level main examination followed by an interview.
12. Is prior banking experience required to apply for IBPS RRB Officer Scale I?
Correct Answer: c) No prior experience is required
Explanation:
Officer Scale I is an entry-level managerial post, and no prior work experience is required.
13. How much work experience is required for the post of IBPS RRB Officer Scale III (Senior Manager)?
Correct Answer: d) Minimum 5 years
Explanation:
Candidates applying for Officer Scale III must have a minimum of 5 years of experience as an officer in a bank or financial institution.
14. Can a candidate apply for both Office Assistant and Officer Scale I in the same recruitment cycle?
Correct Answer: a) Yes
Explanation:
A candidate can apply for the Office Assistant post and also for one of the Officer posts (Scale I, II, or III) by paying separate fees and filling separate applications.
15. Can a candidate apply for Officer Scale I, Scale II, and Scale III simultaneously?
Correct Answer: c) No, they can apply for only one post in the Officer cadre
Explanation:
A candidate can apply for only one post in the officer cadre: either Scale I, Scale II, or Scale III.
16. What is the minimum educational qualification required for the IBPS RRB Office Assistant post?
Correct Answer: b) Bachelor's degree in any discipline
Explanation:
A Bachelor's degree in any discipline from a recognized university is the minimum requirement for the Office Assistant post.
17. What is the age relaxation provided to Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe (SC/ST) candidates in IBPS RRB?
Correct Answer: b) 5 years
Explanation:
SC/ST candidates are eligible for an upper age limit relaxation of 5 years.
18. What is the age relaxation provided to Other Backward Classes (OBC - Non-Creamy Layer) candidates?
Correct Answer: b) 3 years
Explanation:
OBC candidates belonging to the non-creamy layer get an age relaxation of 3 years.
19. How many subjects are tested in the IBPS RRB Preliminary Examination for Office Assistant and Scale I?
Correct Answer: a) 2
Explanation:
The Preliminary exam consists of only two subjects: Reasoning and Quantitative Aptitude/Numerical Ability. English/Hindi is not tested in Prelims.
20. What is the total number of questions in the IBPS RRB Preliminary Exam?
Correct Answer: b) 80
Explanation:
There are 80 questions in the Prelims exam (40 for Reasoning and 40 for Quantitative Aptitude/Numerical Ability).
21. What is the total marks allotted for the IBPS RRB Preliminary Exam?
Correct Answer: a) 80
Explanation:
The maximum marks for the Preliminary exam is 80, with each question carrying 1 mark.
22. What is the total composite time allotted for the IBPS RRB Preliminary Exam?
Correct Answer: a) 45 minutes
Explanation:
Candidates are given a composite time of 45 minutes to solve the 80 questions in the Prelims exam.
23. Is there a sectional time limit in the IBPS RRB Preliminary Exam?
Correct Answer: c) No, it is a composite time of 45 minutes
Explanation:
Unlike standard IBPS PO/Clerk exams, IBPS RRB does not have a sectional time limit; candidates can switch between sections within the 45 minutes.
24. What is the penalty for a wrong answer in the IBPS RRB exams?
Correct Answer: c) 1/4 mark deducted
Explanation:
For every incorrect answer, 0.25 (or 1/4th) of the marks assigned to that question is deducted as a penalty.
25. Which of the following statements is true regarding unanswered questions in IBPS RRB?
Correct Answer: c) No marks are deducted
Explanation:
There is no penalty for leaving a question blank or unanswered.
26. How many subjects are included in the IBPS RRB Main Examination for Office Assistant and Scale I?
Correct Answer: c) 5
Explanation:
The Mains exam consists of 5 sections: Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude, General Awareness, English/Hindi Language, and Computer Knowledge.
27. In the IBPS RRB Main Exam, candidates have a choice to answer either of which two sections?
Correct Answer: b) English Language or Hindi Language
Explanation:
Candidates must choose to attempt either the English Language section or the Hindi Language section.
28. What is the total number of questions in the IBPS RRB Main Exam?
Correct Answer: c) 200
Explanation:
The Main exam has 200 questions, distributed across the 5 sections (40 questions each).
29. What is the total marks for the IBPS RRB Main Exam?
Correct Answer: b) 200
Explanation:
The maximum marks for the Main exam is 200, though different sections have different weightages per question.
30. In the IBPS RRB Main Exam, how many marks does each question in the Reasoning section carry?
Correct Answer: c) 1.25 marks
Explanation:
The Reasoning section has 40 questions worth 50 marks, meaning each question carries 1.25 marks.
31. How many marks does each question in the Computer Knowledge section of the Mains exam carry?
Correct Answer: a) 0.50 marks
Explanation:
The Computer Knowledge section has 40 questions worth a total of 20 marks, meaning each question is worth 0.50 marks.
32. What is the composite time given for the IBPS RRB Main Exam (Office Assistant and Scale I)?
Correct Answer: b) 120 minutes
Explanation:
Candidates are given a composite time of 2 hours (120 minutes) to complete the 200 questions in the Main exam.
33. Which specific subject is required for IBPS RRB Officer Scale II (Specialist Officer - IT, CA, Law, etc.) that is not in the Scale I exam?
Correct Answer: b) Professional Knowledge
Explanation:
Specialist Officer candidates take a single-level exam that includes a 'Professional Knowledge' section relevant to their specific field.
34. For Officer Scale II (General Banking Officer) and Scale III, which section replaces 'General Awareness' found in the Scale I exam?
Correct Answer: b) Financial Awareness
Explanation:
The General Awareness section is replaced specifically by 'Financial Awareness' for Scale II (GBO) and Scale III exams.
35. Is the score obtained in the Preliminary examination considered for preparing the final merit list?
Correct Answer: b) No, it is only qualifying in nature
Explanation:
The Preliminary exam is purely a screening test. Marks obtained in Prelims are not added to the final merit list.
36. What components determine the final merit list for the IBPS RRB Office Assistant post?
Correct Answer: b) Mains only
Explanation:
Since there is no interview for the Office Assistant post, the final selection is based 100% on the marks obtained in the Main Examination.
37. What is the weightage ratio of the Main Examination and Interview for final selection in Officer Scale I, II, and III?
Correct Answer: c) 80:20
Explanation:
The final merit list is prepared with an 80% weightage given to the written (Main/Single) exam score and 20% to the interview score.
38. How are the scores normalized across different shifts in the IBPS RRB exams?
Correct Answer: b) Equi-percentile method
Explanation:
IBPS uses the equi-percentile method to normalize scores across different shifts to account for varying difficulty levels.
39. Are there sectional cut-offs in the IBPS RRB exams?
Correct Answer: a) Yes, in both Prelims and Mains
Explanation:
Candidates must clear both the sectional cut-offs (minimum score in each subject) and the overall cut-off to qualify.
40. What is the total marks allotted for the Interview phase in IBPS RRB?
Correct Answer: b) 100
Explanation:
The maximum marks allotted for the Personal Interview are 100.
41. What is the minimum qualifying mark in the interview for General category candidates?
Correct Answer: b) 40%
Explanation:
A General category candidate must score a minimum of 40% (40 out of 100) in the interview to qualify.
42. What is the minimum qualifying mark in the interview for SC/ST/OBC/PwBD candidates?
Correct Answer: b) 35%
Explanation:
Reserved category candidates have a relaxed minimum qualifying mark of 35% in the interview.
43. Can a candidate apply for the IBPS RRB Office Assistant post in multiple states?
Correct Answer: b) No, a candidate can apply for vacancies of only one state
Explanation:
An applicant can apply for the post of Office Assistant or Officer Scale I for vacancies in only one state.
44. What is the essential requirement regarding the local language for IBPS RRB candidates?
Correct Answer: b) Must be proficient in the local language of the state applied for
Explanation:
Candidates must have proficiency in the local language of the State/UT where they are applying. This is a mandatory requirement.
45. If a selected candidate did not study the local language up to 8th standard, what happens?
Correct Answer: b) They must pass a Language Proficiency Test (LPT) before joining or within a specific probation period
Explanation:
If the candidate hasn't studied the local language in 8th/10th standard, they must pass a Language Proficiency Test (LPT) at the time of document verification or during probation.
46. Apart from English and Hindi, the IBPS RRB exam (Prelims and Mains) can be taken in how many regional languages?
Correct Answer: c) 13
Explanation:
To facilitate local candidates, IBPS RRB exams for Office Assistant and Scale I are conducted in 13 regional languages in addition to English and Hindi.
47. Under which act were Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) established in India?
Correct Answer: c) Regional Rural Banks Act, 1976
Explanation:
RRBs were set up under the provisions of the Regional Rural Banks Act, 1976 to provide credit and facilities to small farmers and rural artisans.
48. What is the standard shareholding pattern of a Regional Rural Bank (Central Govt : State Govt : Sponsor Bank)?
Correct Answer: a) 50% : 15% : 35%
Explanation:
The equity of an RRB is held by the Central Government (50%), the concerned State Government (15%), and the Sponsor Bank (35%).
49. Which institution acts as the primary regulatory and supervisory authority for Regional Rural Banks alongside the RBI?
Correct Answer: b) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
Explanation:
While RBI is the apex regulator, NABARD is responsible for the supervision and regulation of RRBs and Cooperative Banks.
50. Which was the first Regional Rural Bank established in India?
Correct Answer: b) Prathama Bank
Explanation:
Prathama Bank, sponsored by Syndicate Bank and located in Moradabad, Uttar Pradesh, was the first RRB established in India in 1975.
51. In which year did the IBPS begin conducting the Common Recruitment Process (CRP) for Regional Rural Banks?
Correct Answer: b) 2012
Explanation:
The IBPS started the Common Recruitment Process (CRP) for Regional Rural Banks in September 2012.
52. In the IBPS RRB application process, what is the Pre-Examination Training (PET) intended for?
Correct Answer: c) To familiarise SC/ST, Minority, and Ex-Servicemen candidates with the exam pattern
Explanation:
PET is arranged by Nodal Banks for reserved category candidates to help them understand the exam pattern and clear their doubts before the actual exam.
53. What is the typical application fee for General/OBC/EWS candidates for the IBPS RRB exam (as per recent norms)?
Correct Answer: c) Rs. 850
Explanation:
As per recent official notifications, the application fee for General, EWS, and OBC candidates is Rs. 850.
54. What is the application fee for SC/ST/PwBD candidates for the IBPS RRB exam?
Correct Answer: c) Rs. 175
Explanation:
Reserved category candidates (SC/ST/PwBD) have to pay an intimation charge of Rs. 175.
55. Which of the following topics is NOT a part of the Quantitative Aptitude syllabus for IBPS RRB?
Correct Answer: c) Syllogism
Explanation:
Syllogism is a topic that belongs to the Reasoning section, not the Quantitative Aptitude section.
56. Puzzles and Seating Arrangements belong to which section of the IBPS RRB syllabus?
Correct Answer: b) Reasoning Ability
Explanation:
Puzzles and seating arrangements are core, high-weightage topics in the Reasoning Ability section.
57. A 'Cloze Test' is a common question type in which section?
Correct Answer: c) English/Hindi Language
Explanation:
A Cloze test consists of a passage with blanks that need to be filled, testing language comprehension and vocabulary.
58. Which section focuses on current events, banking terms, RBI circulars, and static GK?
Correct Answer: b) General Awareness
Explanation:
The General Awareness section tests a candidate's knowledge of current affairs, banking and financial awareness, and static GK.
59. Questions on MS Office, Operating Systems, and Internet basics are found in which section?
Correct Answer: c) Computer Knowledge
Explanation:
Basic computer fundamentals, software, hardware, and internet concepts are tested in the Computer Knowledge section.
60. Who is responsible for conducting the interview phase for IBPS RRB candidates?
Correct Answer: b) Nodal Regional Rural Banks with the help of NABARD and IBPS
Explanation:
Interviews are coordinated by the Nodal Regional Rural Banks with the assistance of NABARD and IBPS in the respective centers.
61. When there is a tie in the final scores of two candidates in IBPS RRB, how is it resolved?
Correct Answer: b) The candidate older in age is placed higher in the merit list
Explanation:
Standard IBPS tie-breaking rules state that if scores are equal, the candidate who is senior in age gets preference.
62. How long is the IBPS RRB scorecard valid for provisional allotment?
Correct Answer: b) Till March 31 of the next financial year
Explanation:
The scores and the reserve list remain valid until the completion of the recruitment process for that specific financial year, typically ending on March 31.
63. What is the purpose of the 'Reserve List' in IBPS RRB recruitment?
Correct Answer: b) To provide a waitlist (usually up to 10% of vacancies) to fill spots if allotted candidates do not join
Explanation:
IBPS maintains a reserve list to the extent of approximately 10% of vacancies to fill any shortfalls if selected candidates decline the offer.
64. Are candidates allowed to use calculators during the IBPS RRB online examination?
Correct Answer: c) No, calculators are strictly prohibited
Explanation:
Candidates are not allowed to use calculators, mobile phones, or any electronic gadgets during the examination.
65. What biometric data is generally captured by IBPS at the exam venue to prevent impersonation?
Correct Answer: b) Thumb impression and/or Iris scan
Explanation:
IBPS routinely captures the left thumb impression (LTI) and/or iris scan along with a photograph at the exam center for identity verification.
66. What is the rule regarding the use of a scribe in the IBPS RRB exam for candidates with benchmark disabilities?
Correct Answer: b) The scribe must not be a candidate for the same examination
Explanation:
A candidate arranging their own scribe must ensure the scribe is not an applicant for the same exam, otherwise, both candidatures will be cancelled.
67. How much compensatory time is allowed per hour of the examination for candidates eligible for a scribe?
Correct Answer: c) 20 minutes per hour
Explanation:
Visually impaired candidates and those eligible to use a scribe are granted compensatory time of 20 minutes for every hour of the exam.
68. Can a candidate request a change of examination center once the application form is submitted?
Correct Answer: c) No, request for a change of center will not be entertained
Explanation:
IBPS strict guidelines state that once an exam center is allotted, no request for a change will be considered under any circumstances.
69. In IBPS RRB, 'Data Sufficiency' questions are generally found in which sections?
Correct Answer: b) In Reasoning and Quantitative Aptitude
Explanation:
Data Sufficiency is a format that tests logical ability to determine if provided data is enough to solve a problem, commonly asked in both Reasoning and Quant.
70. If a candidate marks two options for a single question in the online exam, how is it evaluated?
Correct Answer: d) The system only allows selecting one option at a time
Explanation:
The online exam interface uses radio buttons, meaning clicking a new option automatically deselects the previously chosen one.
71. What is the primary mode of document verification for the Office Assistant post?
Correct Answer: b) Before joining, by the allotted Regional Rural Bank
Explanation:
Since there is no interview for the Office Assistant post, document verification is done by the specific RRB at the time of joining/provisional allotment.
72. How are vacancies calculated for the IBPS RRB exam?
Correct Answer: b) Participating RRBs report their vacancies to IBPS
Explanation:
The number of vacancies is entirely dependent on the indents reported by the individual participating Regional Rural Banks to IBPS.
73. Which of the following documents is strictly NOT acceptable as valid ID proof at the exam center?
Correct Answer: c) Ration Card
Explanation:
IBPS explicitly states that Ration Card and Learner's Driving License are not accepted as valid ID proofs.
74. In the context of the IBPS RRB application, what is a 'Handwritten Declaration'?
Correct Answer: b) A scanned text written by the candidate declaring that all uploaded details are true
Explanation:
Candidates must upload a scanned copy of a specific declaration written in their own handwriting, confirming the authenticity of their application.
75. What color ink is strictly specified by IBPS for the Handwritten Declaration?
Correct Answer: b) Black only
Explanation:
The official notification clearly specifies that the handwritten declaration should be written in English on white paper with black ink.
76. For the left thumb impression upload in the application, which ink colors are acceptable?
Correct Answer: c) Black or Blue
Explanation:
The left thumb impression must be on white paper with black or blue ink.
77. If a candidate does not have a left thumb due to an accident, what should they upload?
Correct Answer: b) Right thumb impression
Explanation:
If a candidate does not have a left thumb, they can use their right thumb for the impression. If both are missing, other fingers can be used as per guidelines.
78. Which section of the IBPS RRB Mains exam generally asks questions about 'Base Rate', 'Repo Rate', and 'NEFT'?
Correct Answer: c) General/Financial Awareness
Explanation:
These are banking and economic terms, which form a major part of the General and Financial Awareness syllabus.
79. What is the typical weightage of 'Data Interpretation' (DI) in the Quantitative Aptitude section?
Correct Answer: c) High (10-15 questions)
Explanation:
Data Interpretation (bar graphs, pie charts, tables, line graphs) carries high weightage in bank exams, usually accounting for 10-15 questions or more.
80. What does the term 'Cut-off' mean in IBPS RRB?
Correct Answer: b) The minimum qualifying marks required to proceed to the next stage
Explanation:
Cut-offs are the minimum benchmark scores set by IBPS (overall and sectional) that a candidate must score to qualify.
81. Why do cut-offs vary from state to state for the Office Assistant post?
Correct Answer: b) Because the number of vacancies and the performance of candidates vary by state
Explanation:
Office Assistant is a state-level cadre post. Cut-offs depend on the state's specific vacancies and the competition level within that state.
82. What is 'Simplification and Approximation' in the Prelims exam?
Correct Answer: b) A high-scoring mathematical topic involving BODMAS to solve equations quickly
Explanation:
Simplification/Approximation is a core part of Quantitative Aptitude in Prelims, testing calculation speed using basic arithmetic rules.
83. What is the typical format of the 'Machine Input-Output' topic in the Reasoning section?
Correct Answer: b) A word and number arrangement machine that follows a specific logical rule step-by-step
Explanation:
Machine Input-Output is a logical reasoning puzzle where candidates must identify the pattern of arranging words/numbers and apply it to a new input.
84. Which of the following statements about the 'EWS' category in IBPS RRB is correct?
Correct Answer: b) EWS stands for Economically Weaker Sections and they have a 10% reservation
Explanation:
As per Government of India norms, a 10% reservation is provided to Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) who are not covered under other reservation schemes.
85. What happens if a candidate fails to produce the original EWS/OBC certificate during the interview/document verification?
Correct Answer: c) Their candidature is cancelled or shifted to the General (Unreserved) category if they meet the criteria
Explanation:
If valid category certificates are not produced, the candidate loses the reservation benefit and their status is considered under the General/Unreserved category, provided they meet UR age and score criteria.
86. In the IBPS RRB Mains exam, the 'General Awareness' section has 40 questions. If a candidate attempts 30, gets 20 right and 10 wrong, what is their score in this section?
Correct Answer: c) 17.5
Explanation:
20 right * 1 mark = 20 marks. 10 wrong * 0.25 penalty = 2.5 marks deducted. 20 - 2.5 = 17.5 marks.
87. Which of the following topics is classified under 'Verbal Reasoning'?
Correct Answer: c) Blood Relations
Explanation:
Blood Relations is a part of verbal/logical reasoning, whereas paper folding and mirror images are non-verbal reasoning (which rarely appear in IBPS exams).
88. How are marks from the IBPS RRB Mains exam converted for the final 80:20 calculation (Scale I)?
Correct Answer: a) Mains score out of 200 is divided by 2.5 to convert it to an 80-point scale
Explanation:
To achieve the 80:20 ratio, the written score (out of 200) is normalized to 80 (200 / 2.5 = 80), and the interview score (out of 100) is normalized to 20 (100 / 5 = 20).
89. If an applicant submits multiple applications for the same post (e.g., Office Assistant), what does IBPS do?
Correct Answer: c) Retains the last successfully submitted valid application and forfeits the fees of previous ones
Explanation:
IBPS guidelines state that in case of multiple applications, only the latest valid application is retained, and fees paid for previous ones are not refunded.
90. What is the requirement for the candidate's signature uploaded during application?
Correct Answer: c) It must NOT be in block/capital letters
Explanation:
Signatures in capital/block letters are strictly not accepted by IBPS and will lead to the rejection of the application.
91. Which of the following best describes the 'Inequalities' topic in the Reasoning section?
Correct Answer: b) Drawing conclusions from mathematical relational statements (e.g., A > B = C < D)
Explanation:
Mathematical Inequalities in reasoning involve deducing the relationship between elements based on greater-than, less-than, or equal-to symbols.
92. Under what condition is the Preliminary exam call letter collected at the exam center?
Correct Answer: b) It is not collected; the candidate must retain it safely and bring it to the Mains exam if selected
Explanation:
Candidates must retain their authenticated Prelims call letter and bring it along with the Mains call letter to the Main examination venue.
93. What is the penalty for candidates found using unfair means or electronic gadgets during the IBPS exam?
Correct Answer: b) Cancellation of candidature and potential ban from future IBPS exams
Explanation:
Use of unfair means leads to immediate disqualification, cancellation of the exam, and can result in a permanent ban from future banking exams.
94. Which body formulates the syllabus and exact question paper for the IBPS RRB exams?
Correct Answer: c) Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS)
Explanation:
IBPS is fully responsible for designing the exam structure, formulating the syllabus, and creating the question papers.
95. In the context of the IBPS RRB interview, what does 'LPT' stand for?
Correct Answer: b) Language Proficiency Test
Explanation:
LPT stands for Language Proficiency Test, which checks the candidate's ability to read, write, and speak the local language of the applied state.
96. Who takes the final decision regarding the provisional allotment of a candidate in a specific RRB?
Correct Answer: b) IBPS based on merit-cum-preference and vacancies
Explanation:
IBPS conducts the automated provisional allotment based on the final merit list and the order of preference of banks submitted by the candidate.
97. Can a candidate who is in the final year of their graduation apply for IBPS RRB?
Correct Answer: b) No, the educational qualification must be completed on or before the crucial date mentioned in the notification
Explanation:
Candidates must possess a valid mark sheet or degree certificate as of the cut-off date specified in the notification, meaning final year students awaiting results are generally ineligible.
98. In the Quantitative Aptitude section, questions based on 'Train passing a pole' belong to which arithmetic topic?
Correct Answer: b) Time, Speed and Distance
Explanation:
Problems involving trains, poles, and platforms are standard applications of the Time, Speed, and Distance concept.
99. Which of the following is typically a function of an IBPS RRB Office Assistant?
Correct Answer: b) Handling cash counters, customer queries, and clerical tasks
Explanation:
An Office Assistant works at the front desk handling basic banking operations like cash deposits/withdrawals, passbook printing, and customer service.
100. Which of the following is typically a function of an IBPS RRB Officer Scale I?
Correct Answer: a) Managing the bank's branch, loan disbursement, and rural credit distribution
Explanation:
Officer Scale I (Assistant Manager) oversees branch operations, manages staff, processes agricultural/rural loans, and ensures banking compliance.
101. What is the minimum percentage of marks required in graduation to apply for IBPS RRB Office Assistant or Officer Scale I?
Correct Answer: d) No minimum percentage specified; merely passing is sufficient
Explanation:
For Office Assistant and Officer Scale I, a simple bachelor's degree is required. There is no minimum percentage barrier (unlike Scale II/III which require 50%).
102. For IBPS RRB Officer Scale II (General Banking Officer), what is the minimum percentage required in graduation?
Correct Answer: b) 50%
Explanation:
Candidates applying for Officer Scale II (GBO) must have a bachelor's degree with a minimum of 50% marks in aggregate.
103. Which of the following topics involves arranging people in a circle or a straight line based on given conditions?
Correct Answer: b) Seating Arrangement
Explanation:
Seating Arrangement is a logical puzzle type where entities must be placed in a specific geometric order based on constraint clues.
104. In the English Language section, what does 'Spotting Errors' primarily test?
Correct Answer: b) Grammar and syntax proficiency
Explanation:
Spotting Errors requires candidates to find grammatical, syntactic, or vocabulary mistakes in a given sentence.
105. What happens if an IBPS RRB candidate fails to qualify in the Computer Knowledge section of the Mains exam, despite scoring very high in other sections?
Correct Answer: b) They are disqualified because clearing sectional cut-offs is mandatory
Explanation:
IBPS requires candidates to clear the cut-off for each individual section. Failing any one section leads to overall disqualification.
106. Why is the RRB exam considered highly attractive for candidates preferring rural postings?
Correct Answer: b) Postings are generally within the home state or nearby rural/semi-urban areas
Explanation:
Since a candidate applies to a specific state's RRB, the job offers geographic stability usually within that home state.
107. A candidate applying under the PwBD (Persons with Benchmark Disabilities) category must have a minimum disability percentage of:
Correct Answer: c) 40%
Explanation:
To avail of reservations under the PwBD category, the candidate must have a minimum of 40% benchmark disability certified by a medical board.
108. Which committee recommended the establishment of Regional Rural Banks in India?
Correct Answer: a) Narasimham Committee
Explanation:
Regional Rural Banks were established on the recommendations of the Narasimham Working Group (1975).
109. What is the primary target demographic for Regional Rural Banks (RRBs)?
Correct Answer: b) Small and marginal farmers, agricultural laborers, and rural artisans
Explanation:
RRBs were created to serve the credit needs of the rural economy, specifically farmers, agricultural laborers, and small rural businesses.
110. Which of the following represents a valid formula for calculating final merit for Officer Scale I?
Correct Answer: b) (Mains Score normalized to 80) + (Interview Score normalized to 20)
Explanation:
The final score is a weighted aggregate of the Mains exam (80%) and the Interview (20%).
111. Can candidates view their IBPS RRB Prelims marks before they appear for the Mains exam?
Correct Answer: b) No, only the 'Qualified/Not Qualified' status is shown before Mains; marks are released later
Explanation:
Initially, IBPS only releases the result status. Scorecards showing actual marks and cut-offs are published a few days later, often close to or after the Mains exam.
112. If an applicant uploads a blurred photograph in the IBPS RRB application, what is the likely outcome?
Correct Answer: b) The application may be rejected
Explanation:
IBPS guidelines strictly state that applications with unclear or blurred photographs/signatures are liable to be rejected.
113. What is the format of the IBPS RRB exam?
Correct Answer: b) Computer Based Test (Online Mode)
Explanation:
All phases of the IBPS RRB written examinations (Prelims and Mains) are conducted exclusively online as Computer Based Tests.
114. Is there a Descriptive Paper (Essay and Letter Writing) in the IBPS RRB Mains exam?
Correct Answer: c) No, there is no descriptive paper in IBPS RRB exams
Explanation:
Unlike the IBPS PO or SBI PO exams, the IBPS RRB Mains exam consists entirely of objective-type multiple-choice questions without a descriptive typing test.
115. Which of these is a typical topic in the 'Financial Awareness' section for Scale II & III exams?
Correct Answer: b) Basel Norms and RBI guidelines
Explanation:
Financial awareness focuses on core banking knowledge, including Basel norms, monetary policy, negotiable instruments, and financial regulations.
116. What is the probation period generally applicable for an IBPS RRB Officer Scale I after joining?
Correct Answer: c) 2 years
Explanation:
Newly appointed Officer Scale I candidates are generally kept on probation for a period of 2 years.
117. What is the general probation period for an IBPS RRB Office Assistant?
Correct Answer: a) 6 months
Explanation:
The probation period for clerical cadre (Office Assistant) in RRBs is typically 6 months.
