The Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) conducts multi-tier examinations primarily Preliminary (Prelims) and Main (Mains) to recruit candidates for Public Sector Banks (POs, Clerks, and RRBs). Understanding the key differences between these two stages is critical for formulating a winning preparation strategy. The Prelims act solely as a screening test, emphasizing speed, accuracy, and time management across core subjects like English, Quantitative Aptitude, and Reasoning. In contrast, the Mains examination determines the final merit (alongside the interview for POs) and assesses a candidate’s deep conceptual clarity, analytical endurance, and awareness of current financial and banking affairs. Mains exams are significantly longer, feature complex logical puzzles and data interpretation, and for certain posts, include a descriptive writing test.
1. What is the primary purpose of the IBPS Preliminary examination?
Correct Answer: b) To act as a qualifying screening test
Explanation:
The IBPS Prelims is strictly a qualifying screening round designed to filter candidates for the Mains exam. Its marks are not added to the final merit list.
2. Which of the following stages is considered for the final merit list in the IBPS PO selection process?
Correct Answer: c) Mains and Interview
Explanation:
The final merit list for IBPS PO is prepared based on the marks obtained in the Mains examination and the Interview, typically in an 80:20 ratio.
3. How are the final selections made for the IBPS Clerk exam?
Correct Answer: c) Based 100% on the Mains exam score
Explanation:
There is no interview round for the IBPS Clerk post. Final selection is based entirely on the candidate's performance in the Mains examination.
4. What is the total maximum marks for the IBPS PO and Clerk Preliminary exams?
Correct Answer: b) 100 marks
Explanation:
The IBPS PO and Clerk Preliminary examinations consist of 100 objective questions carrying a total of 100 marks.
5. How many total marks does the IBPS Clerk Mains examination carry?
Correct Answer: c) 200 marks
Explanation:
The IBPS Clerk Mains exam comprises 190 questions that carry a total of 200 maximum marks.
6. What is the total marks allocation for the IBPS PO Mains examination (Objective + Descriptive)?
Correct Answer: b) 225 marks
Explanation:
The IBPS PO Mains exam consists of an Objective test worth 200 marks and a Descriptive test worth 25 marks, totaling 225 marks.
7. How many questions are asked in the IBPS PO and Clerk Preliminary examinations?
Correct Answer: b) 100
Explanation:
Both IBPS PO and Clerk Prelims exams consist of exactly 100 multiple-choice questions.
8. Which of the following sections is present in IBPS PO/Clerk Mains but NOT in Prelims?
Correct Answer: c) General/Financial Awareness
Explanation:
General, Financial, and Banking Awareness is a crucial scoring section introduced in the Mains phase. It is not tested in the Prelims.
9. In IBPS PO Mains, the Quantitative Aptitude section is replaced by a more specific section known as:
Correct Answer: b) Data Analysis & Interpretation
Explanation:
In the IBPS PO Mains exam, standard Quantitative Aptitude is replaced by 'Data Analysis & Interpretation', focusing heavily on charts, graphs, and caselets.
10. Which subject is clubbed with Reasoning Ability in the IBPS PO and Clerk Mains exams?
Correct Answer: b) Computer Aptitude
Explanation:
In the Mains exam pattern for both PO and Clerk, Reasoning Ability is combined with Computer Aptitude into a single section.
11. What is the total duration of the IBPS PO and Clerk Preliminary exams?
Correct Answer: b) 60 minutes
Explanation:
The total time allotted for the IBPS PO and Clerk Prelims is 60 minutes, which is divided into sectional timings.
12. What is the sectional timing for each of the three sections in the IBPS PO and Clerk Prelims?
Correct Answer: b) 20 minutes
Explanation:
Each of the three sections (English, Quant, Reasoning) in the Prelims has a strict sectional timing of 20 minutes.
13. Does the IBPS RRB (Regional Rural Bank) Prelims exam have sectional timing?
Correct Answer: c) No, it has a composite time
Explanation:
Unlike IBPS PO and Clerk, the IBPS RRB Prelims offers a composite time limit (45 minutes) without individual sectional timers.
14. What is the composite time allotted for the IBPS RRB Prelims exam?
Correct Answer: a) 45 minutes
Explanation:
Candidates are given a composite time of 45 minutes to solve 80 questions in the IBPS RRB Prelims.
15. What is the total duration of the IBPS Clerk Mains examination?
Correct Answer: c) 160 minutes
Explanation:
The IBPS Clerk Mains examination lasts for 160 minutes, with specific time limits allocated to each of the four sections.
16. Which IBPS examination includes a Descriptive Paper in its Mains phase?
Correct Answer: c) IBPS PO
Explanation:
The IBPS PO Mains exam includes a Descriptive Paper (Letter Writing & Essay), which is absent in IBPS Clerk and IBPS RRB PO/Clerk exams.
17. How is the Descriptive Paper in IBPS PO Mains administered?
Correct Answer: b) Online typing on the computer
Explanation:
Candidates must type their answers (Essay and Letter) directly on the computer using the keyboard during the Descriptive test.
18. How many questions are asked in the IBPS PO Mains Descriptive Paper?
Correct Answer: b) 2
Explanation:
The Descriptive Paper generally comprises two questions: one Essay and one Letter Writing task.
19. What is the time allotted for the Descriptive Paper in IBPS PO Mains?
Correct Answer: c) 30 minutes
Explanation:
Candidates are given exactly 30 minutes to complete the Descriptive Paper in the IBPS PO Mains exam.
20. Are the marks obtained in the IBPS PO Descriptive Paper counted in the final merit list?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, they are added to the Objective Mains marks
Explanation:
The 25 marks from the Descriptive Paper are added to the 200 marks of the Objective test, making the total Mains score out of 225, which is used for the final merit list.
21. What is the penalty for a wrong answer in both IBPS Prelims and Mains (Objective tests)?
Correct Answer: c) 0.25 (or 1/4th) of the marks assigned to the question
Explanation:
For every incorrect answer marked by a candidate, a penalty of 1/4th (0.25) of the marks assigned to that specific question is deducted.
22. Is there a penalty for leaving a question unattempted in IBPS exams?
Correct Answer: c) No, there is no penalty for unattempted questions
Explanation:
If a question is left blank (no answer is marked by the candidate), no penalty marks are deducted.
23. Does IBPS apply sectional cut-offs in the Preliminary exams?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, candidates must clear the cut-off for each section
Explanation:
IBPS strictly applies sectional cut-offs. Candidates must secure minimum qualifying marks in each individual section as well as clear the overall aggregate cut-off.
24. Which exam phase requires a higher degree of speed and quick calculation from candidates?
Correct Answer: a) Preliminary Exam
Explanation:
The Prelims exam is a test of speed and accuracy, as candidates must solve 100 questions in just 60 minutes.
25. Which exam phase is known for testing deep conceptual understanding and high-level analytical skills?
Correct Answer: b) Mains Exam
Explanation:
The Mains exam features complex puzzles, tricky Data Interpretation, and critical reasoning, testing a candidate's conceptual depth rather than just speed.
26. Are all objective questions in IBPS Mains worth exactly 1 mark?
Correct Answer: b) No, some sections/questions may carry higher marks (e.g., 1.5 or 2 marks)
Explanation:
Unlike Prelims where all questions are 1 mark, Mains exams have variable marking. For example, in Clerk Mains, Reasoning has 40 questions for 60 marks.
27. What is the weightage of the Mains exam and the Interview in the final IBPS PO merit list?
Correct Answer: d) 80:20
Explanation:
The scores of the Mains exam and the Interview are normalized and weighted in the ratio of 80:20 respectively for the final selection.
28. What happens if an IBPS PO candidate clears the overall Mains cut-off but fails the Descriptive Paper cut-off?
Correct Answer: b) They are disqualified and not called for the interview
Explanation:
Candidates must clear the individual cut-off for the Descriptive Paper. Failing it leads to disqualification, regardless of a high objective score.
29. What is the maximum marks for the IBPS PO Interview?
Correct Answer: c) 100
Explanation:
The total marks allotted for the personal interview in the IBPS PO selection process is 100.
30. What is the minimum qualifying marks in the IBPS PO interview for General category candidates?
Correct Answer: c) 40%
Explanation:
A General category candidate must secure a minimum of 40% (40 out of 100 marks) to qualify the IBPS PO interview.
31. After clearing IBPS Clerk Mains, candidates applying for states where they do not know the local language must undergo:
Correct Answer: b) A Language Proficiency Test (LPT)
Explanation:
Candidates who have not studied the official local language of the applied state in 10th/12th standard must pass the LPT before final appointment.
32. Is a Language Proficiency Test (LPT) required for IBPS PO candidates?
Correct Answer: c) No, because PO is an all-India cadre post
Explanation:
IBPS PO is a scale-I officer post with all-India transferability, so there is no specific state-level Language Proficiency Test.
33. How many questions are asked in the IBPS Clerk Mains examination?
Correct Answer: b) 190
Explanation:
The IBPS Clerk Mains exam consists of 190 questions distributed across four sections.
34. How many questions are asked in the IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Prelims?
Correct Answer: b) 80
Explanation:
The Prelims for IBPS RRB consists of 80 questions (40 Reasoning, 40 Quant) for a total of 80 marks.
35. Which two subjects make up the entire IBPS RRB Prelims exam?
Correct Answer: c) Reasoning Ability and Quantitative Aptitude / Numerical Ability
Explanation:
IBPS RRB Prelims is unique because it does not test language (English/Hindi). It only tests Reasoning and Quant/Numerical Ability.
36. In IBPS RRB Mains, candidates have the option to choose between which two sections?
Correct Answer: b) English Language and Hindi Language
Explanation:
In RRB Mains, candidates are given a choice to attempt either the English Language section or the Hindi Language section.
37. Can a candidate choose to write the IBPS PO/Clerk Mains English Language section in Hindi?
Correct Answer: b) No, the English Language section must be attempted in English
Explanation:
While Quant, Reasoning, and GA are bilingual (English and Hindi), the English Language section is exclusively in English to test English proficiency.
38. In IBPS RRB Mains, Computer Knowledge is tested as a standalone section. How many questions does it have?
Correct Answer: b) 40
Explanation:
The Computer Knowledge section in IBPS RRB Mains has 40 questions.
39. What is the maximum marks for the 40 Computer Knowledge questions in IBPS RRB Mains?
Correct Answer: b) 20 marks
Explanation:
The 40 questions in the Computer Knowledge section of RRB Mains carry a maximum of 20 marks (0.5 marks per question).
40. Does IBPS RRB Mains have strict sectional timings?
Correct Answer: b) No, it provides a composite time of 120 minutes
Explanation:
Unlike IBPS PO and Clerk Mains, IBPS RRB Mains offers a composite time of 2 hours (120 minutes) for all sections combined.
41. Can candidates freely switch between sections during the IBPS PO Prelims?
Correct Answer: b) No, the screen locks to one section for its 20-minute duration
Explanation:
Because of strict sectional timings, candidates cannot switch sections at will. A section must be submitted when its 20-minute timer runs out before the next one starts.
42. Why does IBPS use the equi-percentile normalization method in Prelims?
Correct Answer: b) To adjust scores to account for varying difficulty levels across multiple exam shifts
Explanation:
Since Prelims are held across multiple shifts over several days, normalization ensures fairness by adjusting scores based on the relative difficulty of each shift.
43. Is normalization applied in the IBPS Mains exam?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, if the Mains exam is conducted in multiple shifts
Explanation:
Normalization is used whenever an exam is held in multiple shifts. If Mains is held in a single shift (which is rare nowadays but possible), normalization isn't needed; if multiple, it is applied.
44. What happens if two candidates score the exact same marks in IBPS Clerk Mains?
Correct Answer: c) The tie is broken by Date of Birth; the older candidate gets preference
Explanation:
In case of a tie in the final scores, IBPS resolves it by placing the candidate who is senior in age higher on the merit list.
45. For how long is the IBPS CWE (Common Written Examination) Scorecard valid?
Correct Answer: b) Till the completion of the recruitment process for that financial year (typically March 31 of the next year)
Explanation:
The IBPS scorecard is valid only for the recruitment process of the current financial year cycle and expires on March 31.
46. Are candidates allowed to use an on-screen calculator during the Quantitative Aptitude section of IBPS Mains?
Correct Answer: c) No, calculators are strictly prohibited
Explanation:
IBPS strictly prohibits the use of any kind of calculators, including on-screen ones, in both Prelims and Mains.
47. When is a candidate's handwriting sample taken during the IBPS recruitment process?
Correct Answer: c) During both Prelims and Mains (copied from the screen to the call letter)
Explanation:
To prevent impersonation, candidates must copy a displayed text onto their call letter in their own handwriting during both exam phases for later verification.
48. Can candidates use the computer keyboard during the Objective tests of IBPS Prelims and Mains?
Correct Answer: c) No, the keyboard is disabled during Objective tests; only the mouse is used
Explanation:
During objective tests, the keyboard is deactivated to prevent accidental key presses that might close the exam window. Navigation and answering are done solely via the mouse.
49. During which section of the IBPS PO Mains is the keyboard enabled?
Correct Answer: c) The Descriptive Paper
Explanation:
The keyboard is activated only when the Descriptive Paper starts, allowing candidates to type their Essay and Letter.
50. In the IBPS PO Descriptive Paper, are spelling and grammatical errors penalized?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, the automated evaluation system deducts marks for spelling, grammar, and structural errors
Explanation:
The descriptive paper is often evaluated by automated software which strictly checks for spelling, grammar, vocabulary, format, and adherence to the word limit.
51. What is the typical word limit for the Essay in the IBPS PO Mains Descriptive Paper?
Correct Answer: c) 250 words
Explanation:
Candidates are generally instructed to write the essay in about 250 words. Staying within the prescribed limit is crucial for scoring well.
52. What is the typical word limit for the Letter Writing task in the IBPS PO Mains Descriptive Paper?
Correct Answer: b) 150 words
Explanation:
The letter writing task typically has a word limit of about 150 words.
53. Who sets the minimum qualifying marks (cut-off) for the Descriptive Paper?
Correct Answer: c) IBPS, based on candidate performance and vacancies
Explanation:
IBPS determines the cut-offs for all sections, including the descriptive paper, based on the difficulty of the exam and the number of vacancies.
54. Which of the following describes the evaluation condition for the Descriptive Paper in IBPS PO Mains?
Correct Answer: b) It is evaluated only for candidates who clear the overall and sectional cut-offs of the Objective test
Explanation:
If a candidate fails to clear the cut-off in the objective portion of the Mains exam, their descriptive paper is not evaluated.
55. How many English Language questions are there in the IBPS PO Prelims?
Correct Answer: b) 30
Explanation:
The English Language section in IBPS PO (and Clerk) Prelims comprises exactly 30 questions.
56. How many Quantitative Aptitude questions are traditionally asked in IBPS Clerk Prelims?
Correct Answer: b) 35
Explanation:
The Numerical Ability / Quantitative Aptitude section has 35 questions in the IBPS Clerk Prelims.
57. How many Reasoning Ability questions are there in IBPS Clerk Prelims?
Correct Answer: b) 35
Explanation:
The Reasoning Ability section comprises 35 questions in the IBPS Clerk Prelims.
58. In IBPS Clerk Mains, what are the maximum marks allocated to the Reasoning Ability & Computer Aptitude section?
Correct Answer: c) 60
Explanation:
In IBPS Clerk Mains, there are 40 questions in the Reasoning & Computer section, but they carry a maximum of 60 marks.
59. In IBPS Clerk Mains, how many marks are allocated to the General/Financial Awareness section?
Correct Answer: b) 50
Explanation:
The General/Financial Awareness section has 50 questions worth 50 marks in the IBPS Clerk Mains.
60. In IBPS Clerk Mains, how many questions are in the Quantitative Aptitude section and what are the maximum marks?
Correct Answer: c) 50 questions for 50 marks
Explanation:
Wait, standard IBPS Clerk Mains format is 50 Qs for 50 marks for Quant. (Note: Some recent structures show 50 Qs for 50 Marks in Quant and 50 Qs for 50 marks in GA).
61. What is the typical gap between the declaration of IBPS Prelims results and the date of the Mains exam?
Correct Answer: b) 2-3 weeks
Explanation:
Usually, IBPS conducts the Mains exam roughly 15 to 20 days after the declaration of the Prelims result.
62. Do candidates get to see their exact Prelims scores before they write the Mains exam?
Correct Answer: b) No, initially only a 'Qualified/Not Qualified' status is shown; scorecards are released several days later, often right before or after Mains
Explanation:
IBPS first releases a status link showing if a candidate is shortlisted for Mains. Scorecards showing actual marks and cut-offs are published a few days later.
63. For candidates who clear the IBPS PO Mains and are selected for the Interview, when are their Mains marks revealed?
Correct Answer: c) After the entire interview process is completed
Explanation:
To prevent bias during the interview, IBPS does not reveal the Mains scores of shortlisted candidates until the interview phase is entirely concluded.
64. How are Reading Comprehension (RC) passages different in Mains compared to Prelims?
Correct Answer: b) They are longer, highly analytical, usually based on economy/finance, and heavily inferential
Explanation:
Mains English RC requires deep reading, often featuring articles from financial newspapers, and questions require strong inferential reasoning rather than direct fact-finding.
65. How do Puzzles and Seating Arrangements differ in Mains compared to Prelims?
Correct Answer: b) They involve multiple variables (e.g., seating + blood relations + profession) and complex conditions
Explanation:
Mains puzzles are notorious for being lengthy, complex, and combining multiple topics (like directions, blood relations, and seating) into a single problem.
66. What type of Data Interpretation (DI) is primarily seen in IBPS PO Mains?
Correct Answer: c) Logical DI, Missing DI, Caselets, and Arithmetic-based DI
Explanation:
Mains DI tests concepts over calculation. Candidates often see DI sets based on Time & Work, Probability, missing data tables, and heavy caselets.
67. Is Current Affairs asked in the IBPS Prelims exams?
Correct Answer: c) No, it is only asked in the Mains exam
Explanation:
General, Financial, and Banking Awareness (which includes Current Affairs) is exclusively a part of the Mains syllabus for standard IBPS exams.
68. Static General Knowledge (e.g., National Parks, Dams, Capitals) is relevant for which stage?
Correct Answer: b) Only Mains
Explanation:
Static GK forms a part of the General Awareness section, which is only tested in the Mains phase.
69. What is the significance of RBI Circulars in the IBPS PO Mains exam?
Correct Answer: b) They are specifically mentioned in recent syllabus revisions as a key component of Financial Awareness
Explanation:
Recent IBPS PO Mains patterns explicitly emphasize awareness of RBI circulars, banking regulations, and digital finance in the GA section.
70. What is the penalty for a wrong answer to a 2-mark question in IBPS Mains?
Correct Answer: b) 0.50 marks
Explanation:
The negative marking is strictly 1/4th of the marks assigned to the question. For a 2-mark question, 1/4th is 0.50 marks.
71. What happens if a candidate marks multiple options for a single question?
Correct Answer: d) The system does not allow selecting multiple options for standard MCQs
Explanation:
In standard IBPS online interfaces, clicking a new radio button deselects the previous one; you can only submit one option per MCQ.
72. Can a candidate review and change their answers before the sectional time runs out?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, candidates can navigate freely within the active section to modify answers
Explanation:
As long as the timer for that specific section has not expired, candidates can freely go back and change any of their answers.
73. Does IBPS maintain a Reserve List (Waitlist) after final allotment?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, up to 10% of vacancies are kept under reserve list, valid until March 31 of the next year
Explanation:
IBPS maintains a reserve list to the extent of approximately 10% of the vacancies. It is used to fill drop-outs and is valid until the end of the financial year.
74. How does IBPS SO (Specialist Officer) Prelims differ from PO Prelims for Law and Rajbhasha posts?
Correct Answer: b) It replaces Quantitative Aptitude with General Awareness (with special reference to Banking)
Explanation:
For IBPS SO Law Officer and Rajbhasha Adhikari, the Prelims pattern replaces Quant with General Awareness, unlike the standard PO/Clerk Prelims.
75. What is the primary focus of the IBPS SO Mains exam?
Correct Answer: b) Professional Knowledge relevant to the specific post (e.g., IT, HR, Law)
Explanation:
Unlike PO/Clerk, the IBPS SO Mains exam tests strictly the Professional Knowledge required for the specialist role the candidate has applied for.
76. Are candidates required to carry photographs to the exam center?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, they must bring additional passport-size photographs matching the one uploaded in the application
Explanation:
IBPS strictly requires candidates to affix a matching photograph on the call letter and bring additional photographs for attendance verification.
77. What is done with the Prelims Call Letter after the Preliminary exam?
Correct Answer: b) It is authenticated by the invigilator and handed back to the candidate to bring to the Mains exam if shortlisted
Explanation:
Candidates must retain their stamped Prelims call letter and bring it along with the Mains call letter for identity verification during the Mains exam.
78. Are rough sheets provided at the exam center?
Correct Answer: c) Yes, rough sheets are provided and must be deposited before leaving the hall
Explanation:
Rough sheets are provided by the exam center for calculations and must be dropped in designated boxes before the candidate leaves the exam hall.
79. Which biometric parameters are commonly captured by IBPS at exam centers?
Correct Answer: b) Thumb impression and/or Iris scan
Explanation:
IBPS commonly captures the left thumb impression (LTI) and/or performs an Iris scan to authenticate candidates and prevent impersonation.
80. What is a 'Call Letter' in IBPS terminology?
Correct Answer: c) The Admit Card required to enter the examination hall
Explanation:
The term 'Call Letter' is used by IBPS to refer to the Admit Card that candidates download to appear for Prelims, Mains, and Interviews.
81. Can an applicant request a change of examination center for Mains if they relocate after Prelims?
Correct Answer: c) No, requests for a change of center are not entertained
Explanation:
IBPS official notifications explicitly state that no request for a change of examination center for Prelims, Mains, or Interview will be accepted.
82. What ID proofs are acceptable for verification at an IBPS exam center?
Correct Answer: a) Aadhaar Card, PAN Card, Passport, Voter ID
Explanation:
Valid, original photo ID proofs like Aadhaar, PAN, Passport, or Voter ID are required. Ration cards and Learner's licenses are explicitly not accepted.
83. In IBPS PO Mains, if the overall cut-off is 71.25 out of 225, how is it possible for a candidate with 75 marks in Objective to fail?
Correct Answer: b) They might have failed a sectional cut-off in one of the objective tests or the Descriptive test
Explanation:
Even if the total score is above the overall cut-off, failing to clear the minimum cut-off of ANY individual section results in disqualification.
84. Which of the following topics would most likely appear in the IBPS PO Mains Descriptive Essay?
Correct Answer: b) Impact of Artificial Intelligence on the Banking Sector
Explanation:
Essay topics in IBPS PO typically revolve around current socio-economic issues, banking, technology, and environmental concerns.
85. Is the syllabus for Quantitative Aptitude exactly the same for Prelims and Mains?
Correct Answer: b) No, Mains heavily shifts focus from basic arithmetic to complex Data Interpretation and Analysis
Explanation:
While basic arithmetic is tested heavily in Prelims, the Mains exam applies these arithmetic concepts into high-level Data Interpretation and caselets.
86. What does a 'Caselet DI' refer to in the Mains exam?
Correct Answer: b) A Data Interpretation question presented as a textual paragraph rather than a table or graph
Explanation:
Caselet DI provides numerical data within a paragraph of text. Candidates must read, comprehend, and draw a table or Venn diagram to solve it.
87. What is the typical weightage of 'Simplification / Approximation' questions in Prelims vs Mains?
Correct Answer: a) High in Prelims (5-10 questions), almost absent in Mains
Explanation:
Simplification questions test calculation speed and are a staple of Prelims. They rarely appear in the conceptual Mains exam.
88. In the English section, 'Cloze Test' implies:
Correct Answer: b) A reading passage with blanks that need to be filled with the most appropriate words
Explanation:
A cloze test involves a paragraph with omitted words, testing both reading comprehension and vocabulary/grammar.
89. Which puzzle type is highly expected in Mains but rare in Prelims?
Correct Answer: b) Floor-based puzzle with flat numbers, blood relations, and unknown variables
Explanation:
Mains puzzles are multi-layered, combining constraints like flats, floors, relations, and unknown counts of people.
90. What is 'Machine Input-Output' in the Reasoning section?
Correct Answer: b) A logic puzzle where a string of words/numbers is rearranged step-by-step according to a hidden rule
Explanation:
Machine Input-Output is a classic high-level reasoning topic common in Mains, where candidates must decode the logic of rearranging elements.
91. Which of these topics forms a major part of Banking Awareness in Mains?
Correct Answer: b) Functions of RBI, Monetary Policy, and Negotiable Instruments
Explanation:
Banking Awareness focuses heavily on the Indian financial system, RBI regulations, banking terminologies, and monetary policies.
92. If a candidate encounters a 'Data Sufficiency' question in Mains, what must they do?
Correct Answer: b) Determine if the statements provided contain enough data to answer the question, without necessarily solving it fully
Explanation:
Data sufficiency tests logic; candidates must figure out which combination of statements provides enough information to arrive at a solution.
93. Is it possible to score more than the total allotted time implies in Prelims by rushing?
Correct Answer: b) No, sectional timers strictly restrict you to 20 minutes per section
Explanation:
Sectional timers are rigid. You cannot carry forward unutilized time from one section to another.
94. In IBPS Clerk Mains, what is the language medium for the 'General English' section?
Correct Answer: b) Only English
Explanation:
By definition, the English Language section tests proficiency in English, so the questions and options are exclusively in English.
95. Why is the General Awareness section highly prioritized by candidates preparing for Mains?
Correct Answer: b) It can be solved very quickly, maximizing marks in minimal time without calculation
Explanation:
GA requires no calculations. If you know the fact, you can answer immediately, making it a high-scoring section that takes very little time.
96. Are candidates selected as IBPS POs allotted banks randomly?
Correct Answer: b) No, it is based on a merit-cum-preference basis
Explanation:
Provisional allotment is made based on the candidate's final merit rank and the order of preference for participating banks they submitted during application.
97. State Bank of India (SBI) fills its PO and Clerk vacancies through which exam?
Correct Answer: b) SBI PO and SBI Clerk (conducted separately by SBI)
Explanation:
SBI does not participate in the standard IBPS CRP (Common Recruitment Process). It conducts its own separate exams for hiring.
98. What is the primary factor that decides the cut-off marks for Prelims and Mains each year?
Correct Answer: b) The total number of vacancies and the difficulty level of the exam paper
Explanation:
Cut-offs fluctuate yearly based on the number of available vacancies, the number of applicants, and the overall difficulty of the shifts.
99. What must a candidate do if the computer malfunctions during the online IBPS exam?
Correct Answer: c) Immediately inform the invigilator; the timer will pause, and they will be shifted to a working node without time loss
Explanation:
In case of technical glitches, candidates should not panic or try to fix it. Informing the invigilator ensures the session is resumed on a new system with no loss of time.
100. What is the 'Order of Sections' in the IBPS Prelims exam?
Correct Answer: b) It is pre-determined by the system and candidates must follow the sequence as it appears
Explanation:
The sequence of sections in IBPS exams is hardcoded into the software. Candidates cannot choose which section to attempt first.
