Computer Knowledge (or Computer Awareness) is a crucial scoring section in major banking examinations like IBPS, SBI, RRB, and RBI. The syllabus primarily evaluates a candidate’s practical and theoretical understanding of foundational computer concepts required for modern digital banking operations. Key topics include computer hardware and software components, operating systems, database management systems (DBMS), and internet technologies. Furthermore, candidates are heavily tested on MS Office applications (Word, Excel, PowerPoint), keyboard shortcuts, networking protocols, and cybersecurity fundamentals. Mastering these core technological areas ensures quick and accurate responses, helping aspirants maximize their overall exam scores and sectional cut-offs.
1. Who is considered the father of the computer?
Correct Answer: b) Charles Babbage
Explanation:
Charles Babbage is known as the father of the computer because he originated the concept of a programmable general-purpose computer.
2. Which component is known as the 'brain' of the computer?
Correct Answer: c) CPU
Explanation:
The Central Processing Unit (CPU) is called the brain of the computer as it performs all types of data processing operations.
3. What is the primary function of the ALU in a CPU?
Correct Answer: c) To perform arithmetic and logical operations
Explanation:
The Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) is responsible for executing all arithmetic and logical operations in the CPU.
4. First-generation computers used which of the following technologies?
Correct Answer: c) Vacuum Tubes
Explanation:
First-generation computers (1940-1956) relied on vacuum tubes for circuitry and magnetic drums for memory.
5. Transistors were introduced in which generation of computers?
Correct Answer: b) Second Generation
Explanation:
Second-generation computers (1956-1963) replaced vacuum tubes with transistors, making them smaller, faster, and more reliable.
6. Integrated Circuits (ICs) are primarily associated with which computer generation?
Correct Answer: c) Third Generation
Explanation:
Third-generation computers (1964-1971) saw the development of Integrated Circuits (ICs), where miniaturized transistors were placed on silicon chips.
7. Microprocessors were the defining technology of which generation of computers?
Correct Answer: c) Fourth Generation
Explanation:
The microprocessor brought the fourth generation of computers, placing thousands of integrated circuits onto a single silicon chip.
8. The speed of a computer processor is typically measured in:
Correct Answer: b) Hertz (Hz)
Explanation:
Processor speed (clock speed) is measured in Hertz (Hz), commonly expressed in Gigahertz (GHz) for modern processors.
9. Which of the following is an input device?
Correct Answer: c) Scanner
Explanation:
A scanner is an input device that optically 'reads' an image and converts it into a digital signal.
10. Which of the following is an output device commonly used for printing high-quality architectural drawings?
Correct Answer: b) Plotter
Explanation:
A plotter is a specialized output device used to produce high-quality, large-format graphics such as architectural drawings.
11. Which of the following describes the nature of RAM?
Correct Answer: b) Volatile
Explanation:
Random Access Memory (RAM) is volatile memory, meaning it loses its data when the computer's power is turned off.
12. Which type of memory holds the startup routines (BIOS) of a computer?
Correct Answer: b) ROM
Explanation:
Read-Only Memory (ROM) is non-volatile and is used to store firmware, such as the BIOS, which boots up the computer.
13. How many bits make up one Byte?
Correct Answer: b) 8
Explanation:
A byte is a unit of digital data that commonly consists of 8 bits.
14. In computer terminology, a 'Nibble' refers to:
Correct Answer: b) 4 bits
Explanation:
A nibble is a four-bit aggregation, or half an octet (byte).
15. Which of the following is the largest unit of storage?
Correct Answer: d) Exabyte
Explanation:
Among the given options, an Exabyte (EB) is the largest. 1 EB = 1024 Petabytes.
16. Where is cache memory logically located?
Correct Answer: a) Between the CPU and RAM
Explanation:
Cache is a high-speed memory placed between the CPU and the main memory (RAM) to speed up data access.
17. What does EEPROM stand for?
Correct Answer: b) Electrically Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory
Explanation:
EEPROM stands for Electrically Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory, a type of non-volatile memory used in computers.
18. Which of the following is an example of optical storage media?
Correct Answer: c) DVD
Explanation:
A DVD (Digital Versatile Disc) is an optical storage medium that uses lasers to read and write data.
19. Which of the following is an example of magnetic storage media?
Correct Answer: c) Hard Disk Drive (HDD)
Explanation:
A Hard Disk Drive (HDD) uses magnetic storage to store and retrieve digital information using rapidly rotating platters.
20. Software embedded into hardware is commonly referred to as:
Correct Answer: c) Firmware
Explanation:
Firmware is a specific class of computer software that provides the low-level control for a device's specific hardware.
21. An Operating System is categorized as which type of software?
Correct Answer: c) System Software
Explanation:
System software, like an Operating System, is designed to provide a platform for other software and manage hardware resources.
22. Which of the following is an example of utility software?
Correct Answer: b) Antivirus software
Explanation:
Utility software helps maintain, configure, optimize, or analyze a computer. Antivirus software is a prime example.
23. Which of the following is a famous open-source operating system?
Correct Answer: c) Linux
Explanation:
Linux is a highly popular open-source operating system whose source code is freely available for anyone to modify and distribute.
24. What is the function of a compiler?
Correct Answer: b) To convert high-level language into machine language all at once
Explanation:
A compiler translates the entire source code written in a high-level language into machine language before execution.
25. How does an interpreter differ from a compiler?
Correct Answer: a) It translates line by line
Explanation:
Unlike a compiler, an interpreter translates and executes a high-level language program one statement (line) at a time.
26. The process of loading the operating system into the computer's memory (RAM) is called:
Correct Answer: c) Booting
Explanation:
Booting is the initial set of operations that a computer system performs when electrical power to the CPU is switched on, loading the OS into RAM.
27. What is meant by a 'Warm Boot'?
Correct Answer: b) Restarting a computer that is already powered on
Explanation:
A warm boot (or soft boot) is the process of restarting a computer without interrupting its power supply.
28. What does GUI stand for?
Correct Answer: b) Graphical User Interface
Explanation:
GUI stands for Graphical User Interface, a visual way of interacting with a computer using items such as windows, icons, and menus.
29. Which file extension is commonly used for an executable file in Windows?
Correct Answer: b) .exe
Explanation:
The .exe extension stands for 'executable' and denotes a file that contains a program capable of being executed in Windows.
30. The capability of an operating system to load multiple programs into memory at the same time is called:
Correct Answer: c) Multiprogramming
Explanation:
Multiprogramming refers to keeping multiple programs in the main memory at the same time to increase CPU utilization.
31. What is the default font size in MS Word (2007 and later)?
Correct Answer: b) 11 pt
Explanation:
In MS Word 2007 and later versions, the default font is Calibri and the default size is 11 points.
32. Which keyboard shortcut is used to 'Undo' the last action in Windows applications?
Correct Answer: d) Ctrl + Z
Explanation:
Ctrl + Z is the universal shortcut to undo the previous action.
33. Which keyboard shortcut is used to 'Redo' an action?
Correct Answer: b) Ctrl + Y
Explanation:
Ctrl + Y is the standard shortcut to redo an action that was previously undone.
34. Which shortcut is used to print a document?
Correct Answer: b) Ctrl + P
Explanation:
Ctrl + P opens the print dialog box to print the current document.
35. To justify align a paragraph in MS Word, the shortcut is:
Correct Answer: a) Ctrl + J
Explanation:
Ctrl + J is used to justify the text, aligning it evenly along both the left and right margins.
36. What is the shortcut key for creating subscript formatting (e.g., H₂O) in MS Word?
Correct Answer: b) Ctrl + =
Explanation:
Pressing Ctrl and the Equal Sign (=) applies subscript formatting to selected text in MS Word.
37. What is the shortcut key for superscript formatting (e.g., x²) in MS Word?
Correct Answer: b) Ctrl + Shift + +
Explanation:
Pressing Ctrl + Shift + the Plus Sign (+) applies superscript formatting.
38. Which function key is used to run the Spelling and Grammar check in MS Word?
Correct Answer: c) F7
Explanation:
The F7 key is the standard shortcut to open the Spelling and Grammar dialog box in Microsoft Office applications.
39. Which shortcut key is used to open the Thesaurus in MS Word?
Correct Answer: b) Shift + F7
Explanation:
Shift + F7 opens the Thesaurus pane, allowing you to find synonyms for the selected word.
40. What is the maximum zoom percentage allowed in MS Word?
Correct Answer: d) 500%
Explanation:
MS Word allows zooming in up to 500% to view documents in a highly magnified state.
41. In MS Excel, the intersection of a row and a column is called a:
Correct Answer: c) Cell
Explanation:
A cell is the fundamental unit of an Excel worksheet, formed by the intersection of a row and a column.
42. How is the active cell indicated in MS Excel?
Correct Answer: b) By a dark wide border
Explanation:
The active cell, which is currently selected and ready for data entry, is highlighted with a thick, dark border.
43. Every formula in MS Excel must begin with which symbol?
Correct Answer: c) =
Explanation:
An equal sign (=) tells Excel that the succeeding characters constitute a formula.
44. Which symbol is used to create an absolute cell reference in Excel (e.g., locking a cell)?
Correct Answer: d) $
Explanation:
The dollar sign ($) is used in Excel to create an absolute reference (e.g., $A$1), which prevents the reference from changing when the formula is copied.
45. What is the default file extension for an MS Excel 2007 (and later) workbook?
Correct Answer: b) .xlsx
Explanation:
Starting from Excel 2007, the default file format is based on Office Open XML, using the .xlsx extension.
46. Which function key is used to edit the contents of a selected cell in MS Excel?
Correct Answer: a) F2
Explanation:
Pressing F2 allows you to edit the active cell and positions the insertion point at the end of the cell's contents.
47. In Excel 2010, what is the default number of worksheets in a new workbook?
Correct Answer: c) 3
Explanation:
In older versions like Excel 2010 and 2013, a new workbook opens with 3 default worksheets (Sheet1, Sheet2, Sheet3). Note: Excel 2016+ defaults to 1.
48. What is the maximum number of rows in a single worksheet in Excel 2007 and later versions?
Correct Answer: c) 1,048,576
Explanation:
Excel worksheets since 2007 contain exactly 1,048,576 rows and 16,384 columns.
49. What is the purpose of the VLOOKUP function in Excel?
Correct Answer: b) To search for a value in the first column of a table and return a value in the same row
Explanation:
VLOOKUP (Vertical Lookup) is used to find a value in a column and retrieve corresponding data in the same row from another column.
50. What is the maximum zoom percentage in MS Excel?
Correct Answer: c) 400%
Explanation:
Unlike MS Word which allows 500%, MS Excel allows a maximum zoom limit of 400%.
51. What is the keyboard shortcut to insert a new slide in MS PowerPoint?
Correct Answer: b) Ctrl + M
Explanation:
Ctrl + M inserts a new slide into the current presentation, while Ctrl + N creates a completely new presentation file.
52. Which shortcut creates a completely New Presentation in MS PowerPoint?
Correct Answer: a) Ctrl + N
Explanation:
Ctrl + N opens a new, blank presentation file.
53. Which key is used to start a slideshow from the beginning in PowerPoint?
Correct Answer: b) F5
Explanation:
F5 initiates the slide show from the very first slide of the presentation.
54. Which shortcut starts a slideshow from the current slide?
Correct Answer: a) Shift + F5
Explanation:
Shift + F5 starts the slide show beginning from the slide you are currently editing.
55. In PowerPoint, the motion effects applied to individual elements on a slide are called:
Correct Answer: b) Animations
Explanation:
Animations are effects applied to individual elements (text, images, shapes) on a slide, controlling how they appear, move, or disappear.
56. In PowerPoint, the visual effects applied when moving from one slide to the next are called:
Correct Answer: b) Transitions
Explanation:
Slide transitions are the animation-like effects that happen when you move from one slide to the next during a presentation.
57. What is the default file extension for MS PowerPoint 2007 and later?
Correct Answer: b) .pptx
Explanation:
The .pptx extension is the default XML-based format for PowerPoint presentations since the 2007 version.
58. Which view in PowerPoint shows all slides as miniature images (thumbnails)?
Correct Answer: c) Slide Sorter View
Explanation:
Slide Sorter View displays all the slides in your presentation in horizontally sequenced thumbnails, making it easy to rearrange them.
59. Which feature in PowerPoint dictates how printed handouts will look?
Correct Answer: c) Handout Master
Explanation:
The Handout Master lets you edit the appearance and layout of presentation handouts when printed.
60. What is the maximum zoom percentage in MS PowerPoint?
Correct Answer: c) 400%
Explanation:
Like MS Excel, the maximum zoom level available in MS PowerPoint is 400%.
61. What does LAN stand for?
Correct Answer: b) Local Area Network
Explanation:
A Local Area Network (LAN) is a computer network that interconnects computers within a limited area such as a residence, school, or office building.
62. What does WAN stand for?
Correct Answer: b) Wide Area Network
Explanation:
A Wide Area Network (WAN) spans a large geographic area, such as a country or continent. The Internet is the largest WAN.
63. Which network topology features all nodes connected to a central device, such as a hub or switch?
Correct Answer: c) Star Topology
Explanation:
In a Star topology, every node connects to a central network device like a hub, switch, or computer.
64. Which protocol is primarily used for sending outgoing emails?
Correct Answer: d) SMTP
Explanation:
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is the standard protocol for sending emails across the Internet.
65. Which protocol is commonly used for retrieving emails from a server?
Correct Answer: b) POP3
Explanation:
Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3) is standard for receiving emails, downloading them from the server to the local client.
66. What does HTTP stand for?
Correct Answer: a) HyperText Transfer Protocol
Explanation:
HTTP stands for HyperText Transfer Protocol, the foundation of data communication for the World Wide Web.
67. What is the size of an IPv4 address?
Correct Answer: b) 32 bits
Explanation:
An Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) address consists of 32 bits, typically represented as four 8-bit decimal numbers separated by dots.
68. What is the size of an IPv6 address?
Correct Answer: c) 128 bits
Explanation:
IPv6 addresses are 128 bits long, developed to deal with the long-anticipated problem of IPv4 address exhaustion.
69. What is the size of a MAC (Media Access Control) address?
Correct Answer: b) 48 bits
Explanation:
A MAC address is a unique identifier assigned to a network interface controller (NIC) and is 48 bits (6 bytes) in length.
70. Which network hardware device connects two distinct networks operating on different protocols?
Correct Answer: d) Gateway
Explanation:
A gateway serves as a portal connecting two computer networks that use different protocols, acting as a translator between them.
71. Which of the following is considered the precursor to the modern Internet?
Correct Answer: b) ARPANET
Explanation:
ARPANET (Advanced Research Projects Agency Network) was the first public packet-switched computer network, becoming the technical foundation of the Internet.
72. Who is credited with inventing the World Wide Web (WWW)?
Correct Answer: b) Tim Berners-Lee
Explanation:
Tim Berners-Lee, a British computer scientist, invented the World Wide Web while working at CERN in 1989.
73. What does URL stand for?
Correct Answer: a) Uniform Resource Locator
Explanation:
URL stands for Uniform Resource Locator, commonly known as a web address, which specifies the location of a web resource on a computer network.
74. What does ISP stand for?
Correct Answer: c) Internet Service Provider
Explanation:
An ISP (Internet Service Provider) is an organization that provides services for accessing, using, or participating in the Internet.
75. Which of the following is a widely used search engine?
Correct Answer: a) Google
Explanation:
Google is a web search engine. Firefox is a web browser, Word is application software, and Linux is an OS.
76. Which of the following is a web browser?
Correct Answer: c) Google Chrome
Explanation:
Google Chrome is a cross-platform web browser developed by Google. Bing and Yahoo are search engines.
77. What is the primary function of DNS?
Correct Answer: b) To translate domain names into IP addresses
Explanation:
The Domain Name System (DNS) is the phonebook of the Internet. It translates human-readable domain names (like [www.example.com](https://www.google.com/search?q=https%3A%2F%2Fwww.example.com)) to machine-readable IP addresses.
78. What does HTML stand for?
Correct Answer: b) HyperText Markup Language
Explanation:
HTML (HyperText Markup Language) is the standard markup language for documents designed to be displayed in a web browser.
79. What is the term for unsolicited bulk emails sent over the Internet?
Correct Answer: c) Spam
Explanation:
Spam refers to unsolicited, unwanted, and often bulk email messages.
80. What feature allows you to save a URL in your browser to revisit the webpage later easily?
Correct Answer: d) Bookmark
Explanation:
A bookmark (or favorite) is a saved shortcut that directs your browser to a specific webpage.
81. What is a general term for any malicious software designed to cause harm to a computer system?
Correct Answer: b) Malware
Explanation:
Malware is an umbrella term for malicious software, including viruses, worms, trojans, ransomware, and spyware.
82. What does VIRUS stand for in computer security?
Correct Answer: a) Vital Information Resources Under Siege
Explanation:
The acronym VIRUS stands for Vital Information Resources Under Siege, reflecting its destructive nature.
83. Which type of malware locks a user's files and demands payment to restore access?
Correct Answer: c) Ransomware
Explanation:
Ransomware encrypts a victim's files, and the attacker demands a ransom from the victim to restore access to the data.
84. The fraudulent practice of sending emails pretending to be from reputable companies to steal passwords or credit card numbers is called:
Correct Answer: b) Phishing
Explanation:
Phishing is a cybercrime in which targets are contacted by email, telephone, or text message by someone posing as a legitimate institution to lure individuals into providing sensitive data.
85. What is the purpose of a Firewall in a computer network?
Correct Answer: b) To filter incoming and outgoing network traffic based on security rules
Explanation:
A firewall is a network security device that monitors and filters incoming and outgoing network traffic based on an organization's previously established security policies.
86. Malware that secretly records the keys struck on a keyboard is called a:
Correct Answer: a) Keylogger
Explanation:
A keylogger is a type of surveillance software that records every keystroke made on a computer, often used to steal passwords.
87. Malicious software disguised as legitimate software is known as a:
Correct Answer: c) Trojan Horse
Explanation:
A Trojan Horse is malware that misleads users of its true intent by disguising itself as a standard, legitimate program.
88. What does DDoS stand for in cybersecurity?
Correct Answer: b) Distributed Denial of Service
Explanation:
A DDoS (Distributed Denial of Service) attack attempts to disrupt normal traffic of a targeted server by overwhelming it with a flood of Internet traffic from multiple sources.
89. The process of converting plain text into unreadable text (cipher text) to protect it from unauthorized access is called:
Correct Answer: c) Encryption
Explanation:
Encryption is the process of converting human-readable plaintext into incomprehensible text to prevent unauthorized access.
90. Which software utility is specifically designed to detect, prevent, and remove malicious software?
Correct Answer: b) Antivirus
Explanation:
Antivirus software is a data security utility installed in a computer system with the purpose of protecting it from viruses, spyware, malware, and other cyber threats.
91. What does DBMS stand for?
Correct Answer: b) Database Management System
Explanation:
A DBMS (Database Management System) is software that interacts with end users, applications, and the database itself to capture and analyze the data.
92. In a database, a field that uniquely identifies each record in a table is called a:
Correct Answer: b) Primary Key
Explanation:
The Primary Key is a specific choice of a minimal set of attributes that uniquely specify a tuple (row) in a relation (table).
93. What does SQL stand for?
Correct Answer: c) Structured Query Language
Explanation:
SQL stands for Structured Query Language, the standard language for dealing with Relational Databases.
94. What does RDBMS stand for?
Correct Answer: b) Relational Database Management System
Explanation:
RDBMS stands for Relational Database Management System, a database management system based on the relational model introduced by E. F. Codd.
95. In the context of RDBMS, a row in a table is formally known as a:
Correct Answer: a) Tuple
Explanation:
In relational database theory, a row is called a tuple, representing a single, implicitly structured data item in a table.
96. In the context of RDBMS, a column in a table is formally known as an:
Correct Answer: c) Attribute
Explanation:
In relational database theory, a column is referred to as an attribute, which holds the properties or characteristics of an entity.
97. Which technology is widely used in banks to process large volumes of cheques securely?
Correct Answer: c) MICR
Explanation:
Magnetic Ink Character Recognition (MICR) is used by the banking industry to streamline the processing and clearance of cheques and other documents.
98. What does OCR stand for?
Correct Answer: a) Optical Character Recognition
Explanation:
OCR stands for Optical Character Recognition. It is the electronic conversion of images of typed, handwritten, or printed text into machine-encoded text.
99. What does BIOS stand for?
Correct Answer: a) Basic Input Output System
Explanation:
BIOS stands for Basic Input Output System. It is firmware used to perform hardware initialization during the booting process.
100. What does USB stand for?
Correct Answer: a) Universal Serial Bus
Explanation:
USB stands for Universal Serial Bus, an industry standard that establishes specifications for cables, connectors, and protocols for connection and power supply.
