The Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) is an autonomous recruitment body established in 1984 to encourage the recruitment and placement of young graduates in public sector banks in India. Originally starting in 1975 as Personnel Selection Services (PSS) under the National Institute of Bank Management (NIBM), it transitioned into an independent entity at the behest of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). Today, IBPS conducts the centralized Common Recruitment Process (CRP) for Probationary Officers (PO), Clerks, Specialist Officers (SO), and Regional Rural Banks (RRBs). Its governing board includes nominees from the RBI, the Ministry of Finance, and the Indian Banks’ Association (IBA). Understanding the framework, history, and functions of IBPS is a crucial component of the Banking Awareness section for all banking competitive examinations.
1. What does IBPS stand for?
Correct Answer: b) Institute of Banking Personnel Selection
Explanation:
IBPS stands for the Institute of Banking Personnel Selection, an autonomous body that conducts recruitment exams for public sector banks in India.
2. Where is the headquarters of IBPS located?
Correct Answer: c) Mumbai
Explanation:
The headquarters of the Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) is located in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
3. In which year was the organization originally established as Personnel Selection Services (PSS)?
Correct Answer: b) 1975
Explanation:
IBPS originated as Personnel Selection Services (PSS) in 1975 to help public sector banks with their recruitment processes.
4. In what year did IBPS become an independent autonomous entity?
Correct Answer: c) 1984
Explanation:
At the behest of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Public Sector Banks, IBPS became an independent entity in 1984.
5. Who was the visionary academician instrumental in the establishment of PSS (later IBPS)?
Correct Answer: b) Dr. A. S. Deshpande
Explanation:
Dr. A. S. Deshpande played a foundational role in conceptualizing and establishing the Personnel Selection Services (PSS), which evolved into IBPS.
6. Which of the following major public sector banks does NOT recruit its Probationary Officers and Clerks through the IBPS CRP?
Correct Answer: c) State Bank of India (SBI)
Explanation:
The State Bank of India (SBI) does not participate in the IBPS Common Recruitment Process (CRP). It conducts its own separate exams for PO and Clerk.
7. Under which Act is IBPS registered as an autonomous body?
Correct Answer: b) Societies Registration Act, 1860
Explanation:
IBPS is registered as a society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860, and also as a Public Trust under the Bombay Public Trust Act, 1950.
8. What does 'CWE' stand for in the context of IBPS exams?
Correct Answer: b) Common Written Examination
Explanation:
CWE stands for Common Written Examination, which is the standardized testing mechanism implemented by IBPS for recruiting bank personnel.
9. In which year did IBPS conduct its first Common Written Examination (CWE)?
Correct Answer: c) 2011
Explanation:
IBPS started the Common Written Examination (CWE) process for recruiting officers and clerks in Indian banks in 2011.
10. Which organization represents the management of Indian banks and partners closely with IBPS?
Correct Answer: b) Indian Banks' Association (IBA)
Explanation:
The Indian Banks' Association (IBA) represents bank management and plays a key role in guiding the recruitment policies executed by IBPS.
11. Currently, how many Public Sector Banks participate in the IBPS PO and Clerk recruitment processes?
Correct Answer: b) 11
Explanation:
Following various bank mergers, there are currently 11 participating Public Sector Banks in the standard IBPS PO and Clerk recruitment processes.
12. What is the official name of the exam conducted by IBPS for Probationary Officers?
Correct Answer: a) IBPS CRP PO/MT
Explanation:
The exam is officially called CRP PO/MT (Common Recruitment Process for Probationary Officers / Management Trainees).
13. Which IBPS exam is specifically designed to recruit for the clerical cadre?
Correct Answer: c) IBPS CRP Clerks
Explanation:
The IBPS CRP Clerks exam is conducted to recruit candidates for clerical cadre posts in participating public sector banks.
14. Which IBPS exam is conducted specifically for Regional Rural Banks?
Correct Answer: a) IBPS CRP RRB
Explanation:
The Common Recruitment Process for Regional Rural Banks is termed IBPS CRP RRB.
15. Which exam does IBPS conduct to hire specialized professionals like IT Officers and Law Officers?
Correct Answer: c) IBPS SPL (SO)
Explanation:
IBPS SPL or SO (Specialist Officer) is conducted to hire candidates with specialized skills such as IT, Law, HR, Agriculture, and Marketing.
16. Which of the following is considered a participating bank in the IBPS exams?
Correct Answer: d) Punjab National Bank
Explanation:
Punjab National Bank is a public sector bank that participates in IBPS. HDFC, ICICI, and Axis are private banks.
17. What is the final stage of the IBPS PO selection process?
Correct Answer: c) Interview
Explanation:
The IBPS PO selection process consists of three stages: Prelims, Mains, and the final Interview.
18. Is an interview conducted as part of the IBPS Clerk selection process?
Correct Answer: c) No, there is no interview for the clerical cadre
Explanation:
As per Government of India guidelines, interviews for junior-level posts (clerical cadre) were discontinued. Selection is based entirely on the Mains exam.
19. What is the purpose of Pre-Examination Training (PET) arranged by IBPS?
Correct Answer: b) To provide orientation to SC/ST and Minority community candidates before the exam
Explanation:
PET is organized by nodal banks to help candidates belonging to SC/ST and Minority communities understand the exam pattern and clear their doubts.
20. What is the basis for the final provisional allotment in IBPS exams?
Correct Answer: c) Merit-cum-preference basis
Explanation:
Provisional allotment is made based on the candidate's final merit position and the preference of banks they provided during the application.
21. What is the minimum age limit to apply for the IBPS PO exam for a general category candidate?
Correct Answer: b) 20 years
Explanation:
The minimum age requirement to apply for the IBPS Probationary Officer (PO) exam is 20 years.
22. What is the maximum age limit to apply for the IBPS PO exam for a general category candidate?
Correct Answer: b) 30 years
Explanation:
For general category candidates, the maximum age limit to apply for IBPS PO is 30 years (with relaxations for reserved categories).
23. What is the basic educational qualification required to apply for IBPS PO?
Correct Answer: b) A Degree (Graduation) in any discipline from a recognized University
Explanation:
A valid bachelor's degree in any discipline from a recognized university or equivalent is the basic educational requirement for IBPS PO.
24. What is the total maximum marks for the IBPS PO Preliminary Examination?
Correct Answer: b) 100
Explanation:
The IBPS PO Prelims exam consists of 100 questions carrying a total of 100 marks.
25. What is the total time duration for the IBPS PO Preliminary Examination?
Correct Answer: b) 60 minutes
Explanation:
The total duration of the IBPS PO Prelims exam is 60 minutes, divided into 20 minutes per section.
26. Which of the following sections is NOT a part of the IBPS PO Preliminary Exam?
Correct Answer: d) Computer Awareness
Explanation:
The IBPS PO Prelims exam tests only English Language, Quantitative Aptitude, and Reasoning Ability. Computer Awareness is not included.
27. How many questions are asked in the English Language section of the IBPS PO Prelims?
Correct Answer: c) 30
Explanation:
The English Language section in the IBPS PO Prelims consists of exactly 30 questions.
28. How many questions are asked in the Quantitative Aptitude section of the IBPS PO Prelims?
Correct Answer: b) 35
Explanation:
There are 35 questions in the Quantitative Aptitude section of the IBPS PO Preliminary examination.
29. How many questions are asked in the Reasoning Ability section of the IBPS PO Prelims?
Correct Answer: b) 35
Explanation:
The Reasoning Ability section contains 35 questions in the IBPS PO Prelims.
30. What is the sectional time limit for each of the three sections in the IBPS PO Prelims exam?
Correct Answer: b) 20 minutes
Explanation:
Each section (English, Quant, Reasoning) is allocated exactly 20 minutes, totaling 60 minutes.
31. What is the penalty for a wrong answer in the objective tests of IBPS exams?
Correct Answer: b) 0.25 (or 1/4th) of the marks assigned to that question
Explanation:
For every incorrect answer, 0.25 (or one-fourth) of the marks assigned to the question are deducted as a penalty.
32. What are the total marks for the objective portion of the IBPS PO Mains Examination?
Correct Answer: c) 200
Explanation:
The objective test of the IBPS PO Mains exam carries a maximum of 200 marks.
33. How many marks does the Descriptive Paper carry in the IBPS PO Mains Examination?
Correct Answer: b) 25
Explanation:
The English Language Descriptive Paper (Letter Writing & Essay) in the IBPS PO Mains carries 25 marks.
34. What is the time allotted specifically for the Descriptive Paper in the IBPS PO Mains exam?
Correct Answer: c) 30 minutes
Explanation:
Candidates are given exactly 30 minutes to type their Letter and Essay in the Descriptive Paper.
35. Which of the following topics are tested in the IBPS PO Descriptive Paper?
Correct Answer: b) Letter Writing and Essay
Explanation:
The descriptive test assesses English language skills through two tasks: writing a Letter and writing an Essay.
36. What is the ratio of weightage given to the Mains Exam and the Interview for the final merit list in IBPS PO?
Correct Answer: c) 80:20
Explanation:
The marks obtained in the Mains exam and the Interview are weighted in the ratio of 80:20, respectively, to form the final merit list.
37. What are the total marks allotted for the IBPS PO Interview?
Correct Answer: c) 100
Explanation:
The total marks allotted for the personal interview stage in the IBPS PO exam are 100.
38. What is the minimum qualifying marks requirement in the IBPS PO Interview for General category candidates?
Correct Answer: c) 40%
Explanation:
A General category candidate must score a minimum of 40% (40 out of 100 marks) to qualify in the IBPS PO interview.
39. What is the minimum age requirement for a general category candidate applying for IBPS Clerk?
Correct Answer: b) 20 years
Explanation:
The minimum age limit for the IBPS Clerk exam is 20 years.
40. What is the maximum age limit for a general category candidate applying for IBPS Clerk?
Correct Answer: b) 28 years
Explanation:
For general category candidates, the maximum age limit to apply for IBPS Clerk is 28 years.
41. What is a mandatory requirement regarding local language for the IBPS Clerk exam?
Correct Answer: b) Proficiency (reading, writing, speaking) in the official language of the State/UT
Explanation:
IBPS Clerk is a state-level vacancy. Candidates must be proficient in reading, writing, and speaking the official language of the state they apply for.
42. What does LPT stand for in the context of the IBPS Clerk recruitment process?
Correct Answer: c) Language Proficiency Test
Explanation:
LPT stands for Language Proficiency Test, which banks conduct before joining to verify if the candidate knows the local language of the state applied for.
43. What are the total maximum marks for the IBPS Clerk Preliminary Examination?
Correct Answer: c) 100
Explanation:
The IBPS Clerk Prelims exam consists of 100 questions carrying a total of 100 marks.
44. What are the total maximum marks for the IBPS Clerk Mains Examination?
Correct Answer: c) 200
Explanation:
The IBPS Clerk Mains exam carries a maximum of 200 marks.
45. How many total questions are asked in the IBPS Clerk Mains Examination?
Correct Answer: b) 190
Explanation:
The IBPS Clerk Mains examination consists of exactly 190 questions that account for 200 marks.
46. What is the total time duration allotted for the IBPS Clerk Mains Examination?
Correct Answer: c) 160 minutes
Explanation:
The total duration of the IBPS Clerk Mains exam is 160 minutes, distributed across various sections.
47. Which of the following sections is present in the IBPS Clerk Mains exam but NOT in the Prelims exam?
Correct Answer: b) General/Financial Awareness
Explanation:
General/Financial Awareness is tested only in the Mains examination of IBPS Clerk, not in the Prelims.
48. Does the IBPS Clerk Mains exam include a Descriptive English paper?
Correct Answer: c) No, it does not have a descriptive paper
Explanation:
Unlike IBPS PO, the IBPS Clerk Mains exam is purely objective and does not include a Descriptive English paper.
49. What is the computer literacy requirement to apply for IBPS Clerk?
Correct Answer: c) Must have a Certificate/Diploma/Degree in computer operations/Language or studied IT in High School/College
Explanation:
Candidates applying for IBPS Clerk must have documentary evidence of computer literacy, such as a certificate, diploma, degree, or having studied it as a subject in high school/college.
50. Can a candidate apply for IBPS Clerk vacancies in more than one State or Union Territory?
Correct Answer: c) No, a candidate can apply for vacancies in only one State/UT
Explanation:
An applicant is allowed to apply for clerical vacancies in only one State or Union Territory per recruitment cycle.
51. What does RRB stand for in the context of IBPS exams?
Correct Answer: b) Regional Rural Banks
Explanation:
In IBPS terminology, RRB refers to Regional Rural Banks, for which a separate CRP is conducted.
52. Which post in the IBPS RRB exam is equivalent to the clerical cadre?
Correct Answer: c) Office Assistant (Multipurpose)
Explanation:
The post of Office Assistant (Multipurpose) in Regional Rural Banks is equivalent to a Clerk in standard public sector banks.
53. Which post in the IBPS RRB exam is equivalent to a Probationary Officer (PO)?
Correct Answer: b) Officer Scale I
Explanation:
Officer Scale I in Regional Rural Banks is an entry-level managerial post, equivalent to a Probationary Officer (PO) in commercial banks.
54. What sections are tested in the IBPS RRB Prelims for Office Assistant and Officer Scale I?
Correct Answer: b) Reasoning and Quantitative Aptitude / Numerical Ability only
Explanation:
A unique feature of the IBPS RRB Prelims is that it does not test language (English/Hindi). It only has two sections: Reasoning and Quantitative Aptitude (or Numerical Ability).
55. How many total questions are there in the IBPS RRB Prelims exam?
Correct Answer: b) 80
Explanation:
The IBPS RRB Prelims exam consists of 80 questions in total (40 for Reasoning and 40 for Quant).
56. What is the total time allotted for the IBPS RRB Prelims exam?
Correct Answer: a) 45 minutes
Explanation:
Candidates are given a composite time of 45 minutes to solve the 80 questions in the IBPS RRB Prelims.
57. Are there sectional time limits in the IBPS RRB Preliminary Examination?
Correct Answer: c) No, there is a composite time for the entire test
Explanation:
Unlike the PO and Clerk exams, the IBPS RRB Prelims offers a composite time of 45 minutes without any strict sectional time limits.
58. What language choices do candidates have for the language section in the IBPS RRB Mains exam?
Correct Answer: c) Candidates can choose either English Language or Hindi Language
Explanation:
In the RRB Mains exam, candidates are given the choice to attempt either the English Language section or the Hindi Language section.
59. Which IBPS RRB post requires a minimum of 2 years of relevant experience in a bank or financial institution?
Correct Answer: b) Officer Scale II (General Banking Officer)
Explanation:
To apply for the RRB Officer Scale II (General Banking Officer) post, a candidate must have at least two years of experience as an officer in a bank or financial institution.
60. Which IBPS RRB post requires a minimum of 5 years of relevant experience as an officer?
Correct Answer: c) Officer Scale III
Explanation:
The post of Officer Scale III (Senior Manager) in Regional Rural Banks requires a minimum of 5 years of experience as an officer in a bank or financial institution.
61. Is an interview conducted for the IBPS RRB Office Assistant post?
Correct Answer: c) No, selection is based purely on the Mains exam marks
Explanation:
Similar to the IBPS Clerk, the RRB Office Assistant (clerical) recruitment does not include an interview stage.
62. What is the maximum age limit for a general category candidate applying for RRB Office Assistant?
Correct Answer: b) 28 years
Explanation:
The maximum age limit for applying to the RRB Office Assistant post is 28 years for the general category.
63. What is the maximum age limit for a general category candidate applying for RRB Officer Scale I?
Correct Answer: b) 30 years
Explanation:
For the post of Officer Scale I (Assistant Manager) in RRBs, the maximum age limit is 30 years for general category candidates.
64. What is the maximum age limit for a general category candidate applying for RRB Officer Scale II?
Correct Answer: b) 32 years
Explanation:
Candidates applying for Officer Scale II (Manager) must not have crossed 32 years of age (general category).
65. What is the maximum age limit for a general category candidate applying for RRB Officer Scale III?
Correct Answer: b) 40 years
Explanation:
The maximum age limit for Officer Scale III (Senior Manager) is 40 years for general category candidates.
66. How many distinct specialist posts are generally recruited through the IBPS SO (Specialist Officer) exam?
Correct Answer: c) 6
Explanation:
IBPS conducts the SO exam for 6 specialist posts: IT, Agriculture, Rajbhasha, Law, HR/Personnel, and Marketing.
67. What is the minimum age requirement to apply for the IBPS SO exam?
Correct Answer: b) 20 years
Explanation:
The minimum age limit across all posts for the IBPS Specialist Officer (SO) exam is 20 years.
68. What is the maximum age limit for a general category candidate applying for IBPS SO?
Correct Answer: b) 30 years
Explanation:
The maximum age limit for general category candidates appearing for IBPS SO is 30 years.
69. Which IBPS SO post requires a 4-year Engineering/Technology degree or a Post Graduate degree in Electronics/Computer Science/IT?
Correct Answer: c) IT Officer (Scale I)
Explanation:
The IT Officer (Scale I) post requires candidates to hold a relevant 4-year engineering degree or post-graduate qualification in IT-related fields.
70. Which IBPS SO post requires a 4-year degree in Agriculture, Horticulture, Animal Husbandry, or related fields?
Correct Answer: b) Agricultural Field Officer (AFO)
Explanation:
The Agricultural Field Officer (AFO) post requires a bachelor's degree in agriculture and allied sciences.
71. Which IBPS SO post requires a Post Graduate Degree in Hindi with English as a subject at the degree (graduation) level?
Correct Answer: d) Rajbhasha Adhikari (Scale I)
Explanation:
The Rajbhasha Adhikari (Official Language Officer) is responsible for translation and implementation of the official language policy, requiring PG in Hindi with English at graduation, or vice versa.
72. Which IBPS SO post strictly requires a Bachelor's Degree in Law (LLB) and enrollment as an advocate with the Bar Council?
Correct Answer: b) Law Officer (Scale I)
Explanation:
The Law Officer post requires candidates to have a degree in Law (LLB) and be officially enrolled as an advocate with the Bar Council.
73. Which IBPS SO post requires a 2-year full-time Post Graduate degree or diploma in Personnel Management / HR / Industrial Relations?
Correct Answer: c) HR/Personnel Officer
Explanation:
The HR/Personnel Officer post demands specialized postgraduate qualifications in Human Resources or Personnel Management.
74. Which IBPS SO post requires a 2-year full-time MMS (Marketing) or MBA (Marketing)?
Correct Answer: a) Marketing Officer (Scale I)
Explanation:
The Marketing Officer post specifically requires a 2-year full-time degree or diploma specializing in Marketing.
75. What is the difference in the Prelims subjects for Law Officer and Rajbhasha Adhikari compared to other SO posts?
Correct Answer: b) They have General Awareness with special reference to Banking Industry instead of Quantitative Aptitude
Explanation:
While IT, Agriculture, HR, and Marketing Prelims include Quantitative Aptitude, the Prelims for Law and Rajbhasha substitute it with General Awareness (banking focus).
76. How many total questions are there in the IBPS SO Preliminary Exam?
Correct Answer: c) 150
Explanation:
The IBPS SO Prelims exam consists of 150 questions (50 English, 50 Reasoning, and 50 Quant or General Awareness).
77. What are the maximum marks assigned to the IBPS SO Preliminary Exam?
Correct Answer: b) 125
Explanation:
Despite having 150 questions, the SO Prelims is out of 125 marks, because the 50 English questions are worth only 0.5 marks each (25 marks total).
78. What does the IBPS SO Mains exam primarily test?
Correct Answer: c) Professional Knowledge relating to the specific post
Explanation:
The IBPS SO Mains exam focuses entirely on testing the Professional Knowledge relevant to the candidate's applied specialty (e.g., IT, Law, HR).
79. Which IBPS SO post has both an objective and a descriptive test in the Mains examination?
Correct Answer: b) Rajbhasha Adhikari
Explanation:
Only the Rajbhasha Adhikari Mains exam includes both an objective test (45 questions) and a descriptive test (2 questions) to evaluate language translation skills.
80. What forms the basis for final selection in the IBPS SO recruitment process?
Correct Answer: c) Mains marks and Interview marks combined
Explanation:
The final merit list for Specialist Officers is drawn based on the combined marks obtained in the Mains Examination and the Personal Interview.
81. What is the process used by IBPS to adjust scores to account for varying difficulty levels across multiple exam shifts?
Correct Answer: b) Equi-percentile Normalization
Explanation:
IBPS uses the equi-percentile method of normalization to ensure fairness when an exam is conducted in multiple shifts with varying difficulty levels.
82. Are there sectional cut-offs in IBPS Preliminary exams (like PO and Clerk)?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, candidates must clear both sectional cut-offs and the overall cut-off
Explanation:
Candidates must achieve a minimum score in each individual section as well as a minimum total score to qualify for the next stage.
83. Are the marks obtained in the Preliminary examination added to the final merit list in IBPS PO/Clerk?
Correct Answer: c) No, the Preliminary exam is only qualifying in nature
Explanation:
Prelims marks are strictly used to shortlist candidates for the Mains exam and are not factored into the final merit list.
84. Which section in the IBPS Mains examination heavily focuses on current affairs, the banking sector, and the economy?
Correct Answer: c) General / Financial / Banking Awareness
Explanation:
This section tests a candidate's knowledge of current events, banking terminology, the Indian economy, and financial systems.
85. What is the standard age relaxation provided to Other Backward Classes (OBC-Non Creamy Layer) candidates in IBPS exams?
Correct Answer: b) 3 years
Explanation:
OBC (Non-Creamy Layer) candidates are entitled to an upper age limit relaxation of 3 years as per government norms.
86. What is the standard age relaxation provided to Scheduled Caste (SC) and Scheduled Tribe (ST) candidates in IBPS exams?
Correct Answer: b) 5 years
Explanation:
SC and ST category candidates receive an upper age limit relaxation of 5 years in IBPS recruitment processes.
87. What is the age relaxation provided to Persons with Benchmark Disabilities (PwBD) in IBPS exams?
Correct Answer: c) 10 years
Explanation:
Candidates falling under the PwBD category are eligible for an upper age limit relaxation of 10 years.
88. What technology is primarily used by IBPS at exam centers to authenticate the identity of candidates and prevent impersonation?
Correct Answer: b) Biometric thumb impression and/or Iris scan
Explanation:
To ensure security and prevent impersonation, IBPS captures biometric data (thumb impressions and/or Iris scans) and photographs at the exam venue.
89. What is the accepted mode for submitting an application for any IBPS CRP examination?
Correct Answer: c) Online mode only through the official IBPS website
Explanation:
IBPS accepts applications strictly through the online mode via its official website. No other mode of application is entertained.
90. If two or more candidates score the exact same marks in the final merit list, how is the tie typically resolved by IBPS?
Correct Answer: c) By date of birth (the older candidate is placed higher)
Explanation:
In case of a tie in scores, IBPS resolves it by placing the candidate who is senior in age (according to Date of Birth) higher on the merit list.
91. Which of the following documents is primarily accepted as valid proof of Date of Birth during document verification?
Correct Answer: b) 10th Standard Marksheet/Certificate or Birth Certificate
Explanation:
The SSLC/10th Standard certificate bearing the date of birth, or a legally issued Birth Certificate, is required to prove Date of Birth.
92. In IBPS RRB Clerk (Office Assistant) allotment, besides merit, what plays a crucial role in deciding which bank a candidate gets?
Correct Answer: b) State-wise vacancies and candidate's preference of banks in that state
Explanation:
Allotment is done based on the merit-cum-preference principle, strictly keeping in mind the state-wise vacancies for which the candidate applied.
93. What is the general validity period of the IBPS CWE Scorecard?
Correct Answer: b) Till the completion of the recruitment process for that specific financial year (typically March 31 of the subsequent year)
Explanation:
The IBPS scorecard is valid only for the recruitment process of the current financial year cycle and expires on March 31 of the following year.
94. Is a candidate allowed to carry and use a calculator during IBPS online examinations?
Correct Answer: c) No, calculators are strictly prohibited
Explanation:
IBPS strictly prohibits the use of calculators, mobile phones, or any other electronic devices inside the examination hall.
95. Which apex organization holds supervisory authority over Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) and acts in coordination with IBPS?
Correct Answer: b) NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development)
Explanation:
NABARD is the apex regulatory body for Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) in India and oversees their functioning and policies.
96. In the IBPS PO Mains examination, which two subjects are combined into a single section?
Correct Answer: b) Reasoning & Computer Aptitude
Explanation:
The IBPS PO Mains exam merges Reasoning and Computer Aptitude into a single section comprising 45 questions for 60 marks.
97. What is the total time duration for the IBPS PO Mains exam, including both Objective and Descriptive tests?
Correct Answer: d) 3 hours 30 minutes
Explanation:
The objective portion lasts for 3 hours, and the descriptive test takes 30 minutes, bringing the total time to 3.5 hours.
98. Which is a heavily tested and popular sub-topic within the 'Quantitative Aptitude' section of IBPS exams?
Correct Answer: c) Data Interpretation (DI)
Explanation:
Data Interpretation (DI) involving charts, graphs, and tables forms a major and high-weightage part of the Quantitative Aptitude/Data Analysis section.
99. What percentage of reservation is provided to the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) category in IBPS recruitment?
Correct Answer: b) 10%
Explanation:
As per Government of India guidelines, a 10% reservation in vacancies is provided to candidates belonging to the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS).
100. Which document is absolutely mandatory to carry along with the IBPS admit card (call letter) to the exam center?
Correct Answer: c) Original Photo ID Proof (matching the name on the call letter) and its photocopy
Explanation:
Candidates must present a valid original photo ID (like Aadhar, PAN, Passport) along with a photocopy, matching exactly with the name on the admit card, to enter the exam venue.
101. To which candidates does IBPS primarily offer Pre-Examination Training (PET)?
Correct Answer: b) SC, ST, and Religious Minority community candidates
Explanation:
PET is a government-mandated initiative aimed at providing free training to candidates from SC, ST, and minority communities to level the playing field.
102. What is the specified requirement for the background of the photograph uploaded during the IBPS online application?
Correct Answer: c) A light-colored, preferably white, background
Explanation:
IBPS guidelines clearly state that the uploaded passport-size photograph must be a recent color photo against a light-colored, preferably white, background.
103. If a candidate mistakenly submits two applications for the same IBPS exam, what is the policy regarding application fees?
Correct Answer: b) The fee is not refunded, and only the latest completed application is retained
Explanation:
IBPS processes only the most recent complete application. Application fees are non-refundable under any circumstances.
104. Provisional allotment under IBPS indicates that:
Correct Answer: b) The candidate has been allotted a bank, but final appointment is subject to document verification and fulfilling eligibility criteria by the respective bank
Explanation:
Allotment is strictly 'provisional.' The participating bank will conduct document verification and medical tests before issuing the final offer letter.
105. Who is responsible for conducting the Document Verification (DV) and medical examination after IBPS provisional allotment?
Correct Answer: c) The specific participating bank to which the candidate is allotted
Explanation:
Once IBPS completes the provisional allotment, its role ends. The respective allotted bank takes over for document verification, medicals, and onboarding.
106. Can a candidate request to change their allotted examination center after submitting the IBPS application?
Correct Answer: c) No, the request for a change of center is not entertained under any circumstances
Explanation:
IBPS strictly states in its notification that no request for a change of center for Prelims, Mains, or Interview will be entertained.
107. What is the minimum qualifying mark required in the IBPS PO interview for candidates belonging to SC/ST/OBC/PwBD categories?
Correct Answer: b) 35%
Explanation:
While general candidates need 40%, reserved category candidates (SC/ST/OBC/PwBD) have a relaxed minimum qualifying requirement of 35% in the interview.
108. Is IBPS a statutory body created by an Act of Parliament?
Correct Answer: c) No, it is an autonomous body registered as a Society and Public Trust
Explanation:
IBPS is not a statutory body. It is an autonomous, non-profit organization registered under the Societies Registration Act and the Bombay Public Trust Act.
109. How much compensatory time is typically allowed per hour of examination for eligible Persons with Benchmark Disabilities (PwBD) candidates using a scribe?
Correct Answer: c) 20 minutes
Explanation:
As per government guidelines implemented by IBPS, eligible PwBD candidates are allowed compensatory time of 20 minutes for every hour of the examination.
