General Knowledge and Current Affairs for CLAT MCQs

Q: 1. The Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam (106th Constitutional Amendment Act) reserves what percentage of seats for women in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies?

See the full post for the detailed answer.

Q: 2. Under the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, who among the following is NOT part of the Selection Committee?

See the full post for the detailed answer.

Q: 3. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides special autonomous status to Jammu and Kashmir, which was abrogated in August 2019?

See the full post for the detailed answer.

Q: 4. What is the primary purpose of the G20 group, which represents major developed and emerging economies?

See the full post for the detailed answer.

Q: 5. Which space mission launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully landed a rover near the lunar south pole in 2023?

See the full post for the detailed answer.

Q: 6. Aditya-L1, India's first space-based observatory mission, was launched to study which of the following celestial bodies?

See the full post for the detailed answer.

Q: 7. What is the primary focus of the BRICS economic bloc?

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Q: 8. The Jallianwala Bagh massacre, a turning point in India's freedom struggle, took place under the orders of which British colonial officer?

See the full post for the detailed answer.

Q: 9. Which movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in August 1942, demanding an end to British rule in India?

See the full post for the detailed answer.

Q: 10. What does Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) mandate for qualifying companies under Indian company law?

See the full post for the detailed answer.

1. The Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam (106th Constitutional Amendment Act) reserves what percentage of seats for women in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies?

a) 25%

b) 33%

c) 50%

d) 30%

Correct Answer: b) 33%

Explanation:

The 106th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2023, provides for the reservation of nearly one-third (33%) of all seats for women in the Lok Sabha, state legislative assemblies, and the Legislative Assembly of the National Capital Territory of Delhi.

2. Under the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, who among the following is NOT part of the Selection Committee?

a) Prime Minister

b) Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha

c) Chief Justice of India

d) Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister

Correct Answer: c) Chief Justice of India

Explanation:

The Chief Justice of India was replaced by a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister in the selection panel under the 2023 Act, modifying the prior Supreme Court directive.

3. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides special autonomous status to Jammu and Kashmir, which was abrogated in August 2019?

a) Article 356

b) Article 370

c) Article 32

d) Article 368

Correct Answer: b) Article 370

Explanation:

Article 370 of the Indian Constitution granted special autonomous status to Jammu and Kashmir, which was effectively modified through Presidential orders in August 2019.

4. What is the primary purpose of the G20 group, which represents major developed and emerging economies?

a) To regulate global military alliances and nuclear non-proliferation

b) To discuss policy pertaining to the promotion of international financial stability and global economic growth

c) To administer international criminal justice and human rights trials

d) To oversee the allocation of global maritime trade routes

Correct Answer: b) To discuss policy pertaining to the promotion of international financial stability and global economic growth

Explanation:

The G20 is an international forum for the governments and central bank governors from 19 countries and the European Union, focusing on global economic and financial issues.

5. Which space mission launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully landed a rover near the lunar south pole in 2023?

a) Chandrayaan-2

b) Chandrayaan-3

c) Aditya-L1

d) Gaganyaan-1

Correct Answer: b) Chandrayaan-3

Explanation:

Chandrayaan-3 successfully touched down on the lunar surface near the south pole on August 23, 2023, making India the fourth nation to land on the moon and the first near the south pole.

6. Aditya-L1, India's first space-based observatory mission, was launched to study which of the following celestial bodies?

a) Mars

b) The Sun

c) Venus

d) Jupiter

Correct Answer: b) The Sun

Explanation:

Aditya-L1 is ISRO's solar mission designed to study the Sun's photosphere, chromosphere, and outermost corona from the Lagrange point 1 (L1).

7. What is the primary focus of the BRICS economic bloc?

a) Establishing a unified currency across all continents

b) Fostering deeper economic, political, and cultural cooperation among emerging market economies

c) Regulating European Union trade tariffs

d) Managing North Atlantic defense security treaties

Correct Answer: b) Fostering deeper economic, political, and cultural cooperation among emerging market economies

Explanation:

BRICS brings together major emerging economies (originally Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa, later expanding) to enhance multilateral cooperation.

8. The Jallianwala Bagh massacre, a turning point in India's freedom struggle, took place under the orders of which British colonial officer?

a) Lord Curzon

b) General Reginald Dyer

c) Sir John Simon

d) Lord Mountbatten

Correct Answer: b) General Reginald Dyer

Explanation:

Brigadier-General Reginald Dyer ordered troops of the British Indian Army to open fire on an unarmed gathering at Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar on April 13, 2019.

9. Which movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in August 1942, demanding an end to British rule in India?

a) Non-Cooperation Movement

b) Civil Disobedience Movement

c) Quit India Movement

d) Swadeshi Movement

Correct Answer: c) Quit India Movement

Explanation:

The Quit India Movement was launched at the Bombay session of the All-India Congress Committee by Mahatma Gandhi in August 1942, demanding 'Do or Die'.

10. What does Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) mandate for qualifying companies under Indian company law?

a) Filing tax returns ahead of schedule every quarter

b) Allocating a specified percentage of net profits toward social development and welfare activities

c) Providing free equity shares to all employees

d) Outsourcing manufacturing units to rural villages

Correct Answer: b) Allocating a specified percentage of net profits toward social development and welfare activities

Explanation:

Under the Companies Act, 2013, eligible large corporations are required to spend a prescribed percentage of their average net profits on CSR initiatives.

11. Which international agreement, signed in 2015, aims to limit global warming to well below 2 degrees Celsius above pre-industrial levels?

a) Kyoto Protocol

b) Paris Agreement

c) Montreal Protocol

d) Vienna Convention

Correct Answer: b) Paris Agreement

Explanation:

The Paris Agreement is a legally binding international treaty on climate change adopted at COP21 in Paris in 2015.

12. What is the primary function of the International Monetary Fund (IMF)?

a) Financing long-term infrastructure projects in developing nations

b) Ensuring the stability of the international monetary system and providing emergency financial assistance to countries facing balance of payments crises

c) Regulating global commercial tariffs and trade disputes

d) Protecting international copyright and patent laws

Correct Answer: b) Ensuring the stability of the international monetary system and providing emergency financial assistance to countries facing balance of payments crises

Explanation:

The IMF works to foster global monetary cooperation, secure financial stability, facilitate international trade, and provide loans to member nations in distress.

13. What is the legal and constitutional status of the Uniform Civil Code (UCC) referenced in the Directive Principles of State Policy?

a) It is an enforceable fundamental right guaranteed under Article 21

b) It is a non-justiciable directive set out in Article 44 urging the state to secure a uniform civil code for citizens

c) It is a mandatory criminal statute enforced across all states automatically

d) It applies exclusively to corporate commercial contracts

Correct Answer: b) It is a non-justiciable directive set out in Article 44 urging the state to secure a uniform civil code for citizens

Explanation:

Article 44 under Part IV (DPSPs) of the Constitution states that the State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.

14. Which institution releases the 'Ease of Doing Business' or related global economic competitiveness indices historically?

a) World Bank

b) World Health Organization

c) Amnesty International

d) Interpol

Correct Answer: a) World Bank

Explanation:

The World Bank historically published the Ease of Doing Business index to evaluate business regulations across global economies before pivoting to alternative assessment frameworks.

15. What is the legal significance of a 'Curative Petition' in the Supreme Court of India?

a) It allows a petitioner to file a brand new civil lawsuit against government ministers

b) It is the final constitutional recourse available after a review petition has been dismissed, entertained only under rare circumstances to prevent miscarriage of justice

c) It replaces the ordinary appeal process in high courts

d) It permits international courts to overrule domestic verdicts

Correct Answer: b) It is the final constitutional recourse available after a review petition has been dismissed, entertained only under rare circumstances to prevent miscarriage of justice

Explanation:

Established in Rupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra, a curative petition is entertained by the Supreme Court only after a review petition is dismissed to rectify gross abuse of process or miscarriage of justice.

16. Which constitutional amendment introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India?

a) 99th Amendment Act

b) 101st Amendment Act

c) 103rd Amendment Act

d) 105th Amendment Act

Correct Answer: b) 101st Amendment Act

Explanation:

The Constitution (101st Amendment) Act, 2016, introduced the comprehensive indirect tax regime known as the Goods and Services Tax (GST).

17. What is the primary purpose of the 'Collegium System' in India?

a) Selecting candidates for civil service examinations

b) Appointing and transferring judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts

c) Determining annual parliamentary constituency boundaries

d) Allocating financial grants to state universities

Correct Answer: b) Appointing and transferring judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts

Explanation:

The collegium system is an institutional mechanism evolved through Supreme Court judgments by which judges are appointed and transferred without executive primacy.

18. What does the term 'Pacta sunt servanda' signify in international law and treaty relations?

a) Treaties can be unilaterally terminated without notice

b) Every treaty in force is binding upon the parties to it and must be performed by them in good faith

c) Customary law always overrides written international pacts

d) Military force supersedes diplomatic agreements

Correct Answer: b) Every treaty in force is binding upon the parties to it and must be performed by them in good faith

Explanation:

Pacta sunt servanda is a foundational pillar of international law ensuring that nations fulfill their treaty obligations sincerely.

19. Which of the following bodies is responsible for conducting monetary policy and issuing currency in India?

a) State Bank of India

b) Reserve Bank of India

c) Ministry of Finance

d) Securities and Exchange Board of India

Correct Answer: b) Reserve Bank of India

Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is India's central banking institution, controlling monetary policy, interest rates, and currency issuance.

20. What is the role of SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) in the Indian financial sector?

a) Regulating agricultural commodity subsidies

b) Regulating the securities market and protecting the interests of investors in stocks

c) Managing national highway construction contracts

d) Setting public sector bank lending rates

Correct Answer: b) Regulating the securities market and protecting the interests of investors in stocks

Explanation:

SEBI is the statutory regulatory body established to protect investor interests in securities and promote the development of the securities market.

21. Which Indian state shares the longest international border with Bangladesh?

a) Assam

b) Tripura

c) West Bengal

d) Meghalaya

Correct Answer: c) West Bengal

Explanation:

West Bengal shares the longest land border with Bangladesh among all Indian states.

22. What is the primary mandate of the International Court of Justice (ICJ)?

a) Prosecuting individuals for war crimes and genocide

b) Settling legal disputes between sovereign states and issuing advisory opinions to UN organs

c) Regulating global commercial patent violations

d) Supervising international trade tariffs

Correct Answer: b) Settling legal disputes between sovereign states and issuing advisory opinions to UN organs

Explanation:

The ICJ is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations handling disputes between states and providing advisory opinions.

23. The International Criminal Court (ICC) differs from the ICJ primarily because the ICC:

a) Adjudicates disputes exclusively between corporations

b) Prosecutes individuals for international crimes such as genocide, war crimes, and crimes against humanity

c) Functions as a trade arbitration tribunal

d) Operates under the direct authority of the World Bank

Correct Answer: b) Prosecutes individuals for international crimes such as genocide, war crimes, and crimes against humanity

Explanation:

While the ICJ tries states, the ICC prosecutes individual persons responsible for grave international crimes.

24. Which constitutional body conducts elections to the offices of the President and Vice-President of India?

a) Supreme Court of India

b) Election Commission of India

c) Parliamentary Secretariat

d) Union Public Service Commission

Correct Answer: b) Election Commission of India

Explanation:

The Election Commission of India is empowered under Article 324 to superintend, direct, and control elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of President and Vice-President.

25. What is the tenure of a judge of the International Court of Justice?

a) 5 years

b) 7 years

c) 9 years

d) 10 years

Correct Answer: c) 9 years

Explanation:

Judges on the International Court of Justice serve nine-year terms and can be re-elected.

26. Where is the headquarters of the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) located?

a) New York

b) Geneva

c) Paris

d) Vienna

Correct Answer: c) Paris

Explanation:

UNESCO's headquarters are located in Paris, France.

27. Which organization releases the global 'Human Development Index' (HDI)?

a) World Health Organization

b) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)

c) World Economic Forum

d) Amnesty International

Correct Answer: b) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)

Explanation:

The UNDP publishes the Human Development Index, measuring countries' achievements in health, education, and standard of living.

28. What is the legal status of Fundamental Duties under the Indian Constitution?

a) They are directly enforceable through writs in the Supreme Court

b) They were added by the 42nd Amendment Act and serve as interpretive guides for courts without being directly enforceable by writ

c) They apply exclusively to foreign residents in India

d) They can be amended by simple state legislative resolutions

Correct Answer: b) They were added by the 42nd Amendment Act and serve as interpretive guides for courts without being directly enforceable by writ

Explanation:

Fundamental Duties (Article 51A) are non-justiciable in nature, meaning citizens cannot be directly sued or forced by writs to perform them, though courts use them for constitutional interpretation.

29. Which historic battle in 1757 established British East India Company political supremacy in Bengal?

a) Battle of Buxar

b) Battle of Plassey

c) Third Battle of Panipat

d) Battle of Wandewash

Correct Answer: b) Battle of Plassey

Explanation:

The Battle of Plassey in 1757 saw Robert Clive defeat Siraj-ud-Daulah, laying the foundation of British rule in India.

30. What was the primary recommendation of the Simon Commission (1928) that provoked widespread protests across India?

a) Immediate granting of complete independence (Purna Swaraj)

b) Total absence of any Indian members on the statutory commission reviewing constitutional reforms

c) Immediate partition of the Indian subcontinent

d) Abolition of all provincial legislative councils

Correct Answer: b) Total absence of any Indian members on the statutory commission reviewing constitutional reforms

Explanation:

The Simon Commission faced fierce opposition ('Simon Go Back') because all seven of its members were British, excluding Indians from deciding their own constitutional future.

31. What is 'Habeas Corpus' literally translated as, and what is its core constitutional purpose?

a) 'To have the body' — protecting citizens against illegal detention and securing physical liberty

b) 'By what authority' — challenging public office usurpation

c) 'We command' — compelling public duty performance

d) 'To be certified' — reviewing lower court decisions

Correct Answer: a) 'To have the body' — protecting citizens against illegal detention and securing physical liberty

Explanation:

Habeas corpus is a vital writ directing authorities to produce a detained person before a court to test the legality of detention.

32. Which constitutional writ is issued to command a public authority or official to perform a mandatory public duty?

a) Certiorari

b) Quo-Warranto

c) Mandamus

d) Prohibition

Correct Answer: c) Mandamus

Explanation:

Mandamus ('we command') is issued by a superior court to compel a lower court, tribunal, or public authority to perform a statutory duty.

33. What is the primary role of the Attorney General of India under Article 76?

a) Serving as the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

b) Acting as the highest law officer and chief legal advisor to the Government of India

c) Drafting all financial bills in Lok Sabha

d) Managing elections across all union territories

Correct Answer: b) Acting as the highest law officer and chief legal advisor to the Government of India

Explanation:

The Attorney General is appointed by the President and gives advice on legal matters to the Union Executive.

34. Which constitutional amendment lowered the voting age in India from 21 years to 18 years?

a) 42nd Amendment Act

b) 44th Amendment Act

c) 61st Amendment Act

d) 86th Amendment Act

Correct Answer: c) 61st Amendment Act

Explanation:

The Sixty-First Amendment Act of 1988 lowered the voting age for elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies from 21 to 18 years.

35. What is the significance of the landmark Supreme Court judgment in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973)?

a) It established the 'Basic Structure Doctrine', limiting Parliament's power to alter core constitutional features

b) It abolished the death penalty for all offenses in India

c) It declared right to property an absolute fundamental right

d) It created the National Judicial Appointments Commission

Correct Answer: a) It established the 'Basic Structure Doctrine', limiting Parliament's power to alter core constitutional features

Explanation:

Kesavananda Bharati ruled that while Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution under Article 368, it cannot destroy its basic structure.

36. Which international organization administers global trade rules and resolves trade disputes between nations?

a) World Trade Organization (WTO)

b) World Bank

c) International Labour Organization

d) UNESCO

Correct Answer: a) World Trade Organization (WTO)

Explanation:

The WTO deals with the global rules of trade between nations, ensuring that trade flows as smoothly, predictably, and freely as possible.

37. What is the primary greenhouse gas responsible for human-induced global climate change?

a) Oxygen

b) Carbon Dioxide ($CO_2$)

c) Nitrogen

d) Helium

Correct Answer: b) Carbon Dioxide ($CO_2$)

Explanation:

Carbon dioxide emitted from burning fossil fuels is the primary driver of anthropogenic global warming.

38. Where is the headquarters of the International Court of Justice located?

a) New York, USA

b) The Hague, Netherlands

c) Geneva, Switzerland

d) London, United Kingdom

Correct Answer: b) The Hague, Netherlands

Explanation:

The ICJ is seated in the Peace Palace in The Hague, Netherlands.

39. Which river is the longest river flowing entirely within Indian territory?

a) Ganga

b) Brahmaputra

c) Godavari

d) Indus

Correct Answer: a) Ganga

Explanation:

The Ganga is the longest river originating in and flowing entirely through India.

40. What is the primary function of the Finance Commission of India under Article 280?

a) Auditing government departmental expenditures

b) Recommending the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States

c) Regulating foreign exchange reserves

d) Setting commercial bank interest rates

Correct Answer: b) Recommending the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States

Explanation:

The Finance Commission is a constitutional body established to define financial relations and tax-sharing formulas between the central government and state governments.

41. Which constitutional amendment added the Fundamental Right to Education (Article 21A) for children aged 6 to 14 years?

a) 86th Amendment Act

b) 91st Amendment Act

c) 97th Amendment Act

d) 103rd Amendment Act

Correct Answer: a) 86th Amendment Act

Explanation:

The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, inserted Article 21A, making free and compulsory education for children aged 6–14 a fundamental right.

42. What does the term 'Quo-Warranto' signify as a constitutional writ?

a) 'By what authority' — challenging a person's legal right to hold a public office

b) 'To have the body' — preventing unlawful detention

c) 'We command' — ordering official action

d) 'To be certified' — transferring legal cases

Correct Answer: a) 'By what authority' — challenging a person's legal right to hold a public office

Explanation:

Quo-warranto prevents illegal usurpation of public offices by requiring occupants to prove their legal authority.

43. Which country hosted the 2024 Summer Olympic Games?

a) Japan

b) France

c) United States

d) Australia

Correct Answer: b) France

Explanation:

Paris, France, hosted the Summer Olympic Games in 2024.

44. What is the principal objective of the 'Collegiate System' or multilateral groupings like the QUAD (Quadrilateral Security Dialogue)?

a) Establishing a single military command structure like NATO in Asia

b) Ensuring a free, open, and inclusive Indo-Pacific region through diplomatic, economic, and security cooperation

c) Regulating global petroleum pricing

d) Managing European space exploration programs

Correct Answer: b) Ensuring a free, open, and inclusive Indo-Pacific region through diplomatic, economic, and security cooperation

Explanation:

The QUAD (comprising India, the US, Japan, and Australia) focuses on maintaining stability, freedom of navigation, and economic resilience in the Indo-Pacific.

45. Who was the first woman President of Independent India?

a) Indira Gandhi

b) Pratibha Patil

c) Sarojini Naidu

d) Droupadi Murmu

Correct Answer: b) Pratibha Patil

Explanation:

Pratibha Patil served as the 12th President of India from 2007 to 2012, becoming the country's first female president.

46. Which constitutional article guarantees the Right to Equality before the law across India?

a) Article 12

b) Article 14

c) Article 19

d) Article 21

Correct Answer: b) Article 14

Explanation:

Article 14 guarantees that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.

47. What is the primary function of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India?

a) Enacting criminal legislation in Parliament

b) Protecting and promoting human rights through inquiry into complaints of human rights violations

c) Adjudicating civil property disputes between private citizens

d) Managing national defense operations

Correct Answer: b) Protecting and promoting human rights through inquiry into complaints of human rights violations

Explanation:

The NHRC is a statutory body tasked with investigating human rights violations, visiting detention centers, and recommending remedial relief.

48. Which historic pact signed in 1932 between Mahatma Gandhi and B.R. Ambedkar provided for reserved seats for the depressed classes within general electorates?

a) Lucknow Pact

b) Poona Pact

c) Gandhi-Irwin Pact

d) Delhi Pact

Correct Answer: b) Poona Pact

Explanation:

The Poona Pact of 1932 settled electoral representation for the depressed classes, retaining joint electorates with reserved seats rather than separate electorates.

49. What is the primary purpose of the 'Collegium Resolution' data transparency initiatives in judicial appointments?

a) Allowing public voting on judge nominations

b) Publishing reasons and recommendations for appointments to ensure transparency and accountability in judicial selection

c) Transferring appointment power entirely to the executive branch

d) Setting mandatory retirement ages for lawyers

Correct Answer: b) Publishing reasons and recommendations for appointments to ensure transparency and accountability in judicial selection

Explanation:

Publishing collegium resolutions on judicial appointments aims to increase transparency regarding why candidates are recommended or deferred.

50. Which atmospheric layer contains the ozone layer that shields the Earth from harmful ultraviolet radiation?

a) Troposphere

b) Stratosphere

c) Mesosphere

d) Thermosphere

Correct Answer: b) Stratosphere

Explanation:

The stratosphere houses the ozone layer, which absorbs the majority of the sun's harmful ultraviolet radiation.

51. What is the primary objective of the Reserve Bank of India's 'Repo Rate' adjustments?

a) Controlling inflation and managing money supply by regulating the cost of borrowing for commercial banks

b) Fixing minimum support prices for agricultural crops

c) Determining individual income tax slabs

d) Managing international trade tariffs

Correct Answer: a) Controlling inflation and managing money supply by regulating the cost of borrowing for commercial banks

Explanation:

The repo rate is the interest rate at which the RBI lends money to commercial banks, serving as a primary tool to control liquidity and inflation.

52. Which constitutional article empowers the Supreme Court to issue special leave to appeal (SLP) against any judgment or order from any court or tribunal in India?

a) Article 32

b) Article 136

c) Article 142

d) Article 226

Correct Answer: b) Article 136

Explanation:

Article 136 grants the Supreme Court discretionary jurisdiction to grant special leave to appeal from any judgment, decree, or sentence in any matter passed by any court or tribunal in India.

53. What is the legal significance of Article 142 of the Indian Constitution?

a) It allows Parliament to dissolve state assemblies

b) It empowers the Supreme Court to pass any decree or order necessary for doing 'complete justice' in any pending cause or matter

c) It grants the President emergency ordinance powers

d) It provides governors veto power over state bills

Correct Answer: b) It empowers the Supreme Court to pass any decree or order necessary for doing 'complete justice' in any pending cause or matter

Explanation:

Article 142 gives the Supreme Court unique plenary powers to issue orders necessary for securing complete justice in exceptional cases.

54. Which international environmental protocol successfully phased out ozone-depleting substances like chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)?

a) Kyoto Protocol

b) Montreal Protocol

c) Paris Agreement

d) Cartagena Protocol

Correct Answer: b) Montreal Protocol

Explanation:

The Montreal Protocol (1987) is a landmark multilateral environmental agreement regulating the production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances.

55. What is the primary focus of the 'Basel Convention'?

a) Regulating international trade in hazardous wastes and their disposal

b) Protecting endangered wildlife species from poaching

c) Establishing global maritime safety standards

d) Preventing nuclear weapons proliferation

Correct Answer: a) Regulating international trade in hazardous wastes and their disposal

Explanation:

The Basel Convention controls the transboundary movements of hazardous wastes and obliges parties to ensure their environmentally sound management.

56. Which constitutional amendment introduced the Economically Weaker Section (EWS) reservation in India?

a) 101st Amendment Act

b) 103rd Amendment Act

c) 105th Amendment Act

d) 106th Amendment Act

Correct Answer: b) 103rd Amendment Act

Explanation:

The 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019, introduced a 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) in educational institutions and public employment.

57. What is the primary purpose of the 'Ramsar Convention'?

a) Conservation and sustainable use of wetlands

b) Protection of deep-sea marine biodiversity

c) Regulation of international transboundary river basins

d) Reduction of global industrial carbon emissions

Correct Answer: a) Conservation and sustainable use of wetlands

Explanation:

The Ramsar Convention is an international treaty for the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands, signed in Ramsar, Iran, in 1971.

58. Which Indian organization is responsible for regulating and licensing telecommunications and broadcasting standards?

a) SEBI

b) TRAI (Telecom Regulatory Authority of India)

c) RBI

d) FSSAI

Correct Answer: b) TRAI (Telecom Regulatory Authority of India)

Explanation:

TRAI regulates the telecommunications sector in India, safeguarding consumer interests and fostering fair competition.

59. What is the legal mandate of the Lokpal in India?

a) Adjudicating international maritime border disputes

b) Inquiring into allegations of corruption against public functionaries at the federal level

c) Auditing national defense procurement contracts exclusively

d) Regulating corporate mergers and acquisitions

Correct Answer: b) Inquiring into allegations of corruption against public functionaries at the federal level

Explanation:

The Lokpal is an anti-corruption authority or ombudsman body established under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, to inquire into corruption allegations against public officials.

60. Which historic site in the Indus Valley Civilization was known for its unique dockyard?

a) Harappa

b) Mohenjo-daro

c) Lothal

d) Kalibangan

Correct Answer: c) Lothal

Explanation:

Lothal, located in Gujarat, featured a massive tidal dockyard, indicating a thriving maritime trade network during the Indus Valley Civilization.

61. What is the primary role of the Chief Economic Advisor (CEA) to the Government of India?

a) Formulating monetary interest rates for commercial banks

b) Providing economic analysis, advising the Ministry of Finance, and authoring the annual Economic Survey

c) Auditing central government tax collections

d) Managing foreign exchange reserves

Correct Answer: b) Providing economic analysis, advising the Ministry of Finance, and authoring the annual Economic Survey

Explanation:

The CEA is the economic advisor to the Government of India, heading the economic division within the Ministry of Finance and drafting the Economic Survey.

62. Which constitutional amendment gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) in India?

a) 73rd Amendment Act

b) 74th Amendment Act

c) 42nd Amendment Act

d) 52nd Amendment Act

Correct Answer: a) 73rd Amendment Act

Explanation:

The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, added Part IX to the Constitution, institutionalizing Panchayati Raj bodies at the grassroots level.

63. What is the role of the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992?

a) Establishing constitutional provisions for Urban Local Bodies (Municipalities)

b) Introducing anti-defection laws for parliamentarians

c) Lowering the voting age to 18 years

d) Creating independent state finance commissions

Correct Answer: a) Establishing constitutional provisions for Urban Local Bodies (Municipalities)

Explanation:

The 74th Amendment added Part IX-A to the Constitution, providing constitutional backing and structure to urban local governments (municipalities).

64. Which schedule of the Indian Constitution contains provisions regarding the disqualification of members on the ground of defection (Anti-Defection Law)?

a) Eighth Schedule

b) Ninth Schedule

c) Tenth Schedule

d) Eleventh Schedule

Correct Answer: c) Tenth Schedule

Explanation:

The Tenth Schedule, added by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985, contains provisions for disqualifying legislators on grounds of defection.

65. What does the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution recognize?

a) Land reform statutes protected from judicial review

b) The official scheduled languages of the Republic of India

c) Panchayati Raj taxation powers

d) Division of legislative powers between Union and States

Correct Answer: b) The official scheduled languages of the Republic of India

Explanation:

The Eighth Schedule lists the officially recognized regional languages of India.

66. What is the primary mandate of the Competition Commission of India (CCI)?

a) Promoting healthy market competition, preventing anti-competitive agreements, and prohibiting abuse of dominant market positions

b) Regulating minimum support prices for farm produce

c) Setting commercial bank reserve ratios

d) Supervising stock market brokerage commissions

Correct Answer: a) Promoting healthy market competition, preventing anti-competitive agreements, and prohibiting abuse of dominant market positions

Explanation:

The CCI enforces the Competition Act, 2002, ensuring fair market competition and preventing monopolies or anti-competitive cartels.

67. Which organization publishes the global 'Corruption Perceptions Index' (CPI)?

a) World Bank

b) Transparency International

c) Amnesty International

d) United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime

Correct Answer: b) Transparency International

Explanation:

Transparency International publishes the Corruption Perceptions Index annually, ranking countries by perceived public sector corruption.

68. What is the core purpose of the 'Collegium' recommendation process when reviewing high court judge transfers?

a) Ensuring judicial independence and preventing local institutional capture or conflict of interest

b) Punishing non-compliant judges through administrative demotion

c) Rotating judges to different climate zones for health reasons

d) Reducing court backlog through random reallocation

Correct Answer: a) Ensuring judicial independence and preventing local institutional capture or conflict of interest

Explanation:

Transferring high court judges across states via collegium recommendations safeguards judicial independence and avoids local favoritism.

69. Which historical site witnessed the formal proclamation of Indian Independence and the transfer of power on August 15, 1947?

a) Sabarmati Ashram

b) Red Fort, Delhi

c) Gateway of India, Mumbai

d) Victoria Memorial, Kolkata

Correct Answer: b) Red Fort, Delhi

Explanation:

Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru hoisted the national flag at the Red Fort on August 15, 1947, marking India's independence.

70. What is the primary function of the 'Comptroller and Auditor General of India' (CAG) under Article 148?

a) Drafting the annual Union Budget

b) Auditing all receipts and expenditure of the Government of India and state governments to ensure financial accountability

c) Collecting income and corporate taxes nationwide

d) Regulating central bank interest rates

Correct Answer: b) Auditing all receipts and expenditure of the Government of India and state governments to ensure financial accountability

Explanation:

The CAG is the supreme audit institution of India, ensuring financial oversight and accountability of public funds.

71. Which international financial institution is headquartered in Washington, D.C., and focuses on poverty reduction and developmental loans for developing countries?

a) World Bank

b) Asian Development Bank

c) New Development Bank

d) Bank for International Settlements

Correct Answer: a) World Bank

Explanation:

The World Bank provides loans and grants to the governments of low- and middle-income countries for capital projects and poverty reduction.

72. What is the significance of the 'Doctrine of Pith and Substance' in Indian constitutional jurisprudence?

a) It determines whether a legislative enactment falls within the legislative competence of Parliament or State Legislature by examining its true character

b) It allows courts to rewrite ambiguous criminal statutes

c) It prohibits government acquisition of private property without court approval

d) It governs international maritime trade disputes

Correct Answer: a) It determines whether a legislative enactment falls within the legislative competence of Parliament or State Legislature by examining its true character

Explanation:

Pith and substance is used by courts to determine the true nature of a law when a legislature's competence is challenged for encroaching on another list.

73. Which article of the Indian Constitution guarantees freedom of speech and expression?

a) Article 14

b) Article 19(1)(a)

c) Article 21

d) Article 32

Correct Answer: b) Article 19(1)(a)

Explanation:

Article 19(1)(a) guarantees all citizens the right to freedom of speech and expression, subject to reasonable restrictions under Article 19(2).

74. What is the legal implication of the 'Doctrine of Severability' in constitutional law?

a) If an unconstitutional provision of a statute can be separated from valid provisions without destroying the act, only the offending part is struck down

b) Courts must split complex lawsuits into two separate trials

c) States can secede from the Union if legislative disputes arise

d) Contracts can be canceled unilaterally without penalty

Correct Answer: a) If an unconstitutional provision of a statute can be separated from valid provisions without destroying the act, only the offending part is struck down

Explanation:

Severability preserves legislative enactments by isolating and invalidating only unconstitutional portions, provided the rest remains operational.

75. Which organization publishes the 'Global Gender Gap Report'?

a) World Economic Forum (WEF)

b) United Nations Development Programme

c) International Labour Organization

d) World Health Organization

Correct Answer: a) World Economic Forum (WEF)

Explanation:

The World Economic Forum publishes the Global Gender Gap Report, benchmarking gender parity across economic, educational, health, and political indicators.

76. What is the primary objective of the 'Wassenaar Arrangement'?

a) Controlling export controls for conventional arms and dual-use goods and technologies

b) Regulating international cryptocurrency transactions

c) Preventing global climate change through carbon taxation

d) Managing international postal service standards

Correct Answer: a) Controlling export controls for conventional arms and dual-use goods and technologies

Explanation:

The Wassenaar Arrangement promotes transparency and greater responsibility in transfers of conventional arms and dual-use goods and technologies.

77. Which constitutional body is responsible for advising the President on matters relating to the appointment and transfer of judges?

a) Supreme Court Collegium

b) Law Commission of India

c) Union Public Service Commission

d) Parliamentary Standing Committee on Law

Correct Answer: a) Supreme Court Collegium

Explanation:

The Supreme Court Collegium, headed by the Chief Justice of India and senior judges, recommends judicial appointments and transfers.

78. What is the primary function of the 'National Green Tribunal' (NGT) in India?

a) Adjudicating civil cases relating to environmental protection, forest conservation, and hazardous waste

b) Setting national forestry commercial timber prices

c) Issuing municipal building permits in urban areas

d) Regulating agricultural fertilizer subsidies

Correct Answer: a) Adjudicating civil cases relating to environmental protection, forest conservation, and hazardous waste

Explanation:

The NGT is a specialized judicial body established under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, for effective and expeditious disposal of environmental cases.

79. Which ancient text is considered the foundational treatise on statecraft, economic policy, and military strategy authored by Kautilya?

a) Arthashastra

b) Manusmriti

c) Ashtadhyayi

d) Natya Shastra

Correct Answer: a) Arthashastra

Explanation:

The Arthashastra, attributed to Kautilya (Chanakya), is an ancient Indian treatise on statecraft, economic policy, and military strategy.

80. What is the role of the 'Solicitor General of India'?

a) Assisting the Attorney General of India in representing the government in courts and legal proceedings

b) Serving as the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

c) Drafting state legislative bills exclusively

d) Managing federal police investigations

Correct Answer: a) Assisting the Attorney General of India in representing the government in courts and legal proceedings

Explanation:

The Solicitor General is the second-law officer of the country, assisting the Attorney General along with additional solicitors general.

81. Which constitutional article prohibits untouchability in any form in India?

a) Article 15

b) Article 16

c) Article 17

d) Article 18

Correct Answer: c) Article 17

Explanation:

Article 17 abolishes 'untouchability' and forbids its practice in any form, making any disability arising out of it an offense punishable by law.

82. What is the primary objective of the 'Zakir Hussain Committee' or historical education commissions in modern Indian history reference?

a) Proposing the Wardha Scheme of Basic Education focusing on manual work and craft-centered learning

b) Reforming colonial civil service recruitment exams

c) Establishing technical engineering institutes

d) Restructuring high court appellate jurisdictions

Correct Answer: a) Proposing the Wardha Scheme of Basic Education focusing on manual work and craft-centered learning

Explanation:

The Wardha Scheme (Basic Education), associated with Zakir Hussain and Mahatma Gandhi, emphasized learning through practical craft and work.

83. Which organization releases the 'World Economic Outlook' report periodically?

a) International Monetary Fund (IMF)

b) World Bank

c) World Trade Organization

d) Asian Development Bank

Correct Answer: a) International Monetary Fund (IMF)

Explanation:

The IMF publishes the World Economic Outlook twice a year, providing analysis of global economic developments and macroeconomic forecasts.

84. What is the legal significance of 'Public Interest Litigation' (PIL) relaxation of 'locus standi'?

a) It allows any public-spirited individual or organization to approach courts to enforce constitutional or legal rights of marginalized groups who cannot approach courts themselves

b) It permits corporations to file tax appeals anonymously

c) It abolishes court filing fees for all criminal matters

d) It gives judges absolute executive power

Correct Answer: a) It allows any public-spirited individual or organization to approach courts to enforce constitutional or legal rights of marginalized groups who cannot approach courts themselves

Explanation:

PIL relaxed traditional standing requirements (locus standi), enabling public-spirited citizens to champion the rights of the disadvantaged.

85. Which Indian city hosted the historic G20 Leaders' Summit under India's presidency in September 2023?

a) New Delhi

b) Mumbai

c) Bengaluru

d) Varanasi

Correct Answer: a) New Delhi

Explanation:

New Delhi hosted the 18th G20 Heads of State and Government Summit at Bharat Mandapam in September 2023 under the theme 'Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam'.

86. What is the primary purpose of the 'Financial Action Task Force' (FATF)?

a) Combating money laundering, terrorist financing, and other related threats to the international financial system

b) Regulating international cryptocurrency mining operations

c) Fixing global petroleum export quotas

d) Providing emergency bank bailouts for bankrupt nations

Correct Answer: a) Combating money laundering, terrorist financing, and other related threats to the international financial system

Explanation:

The FATF is an inter-governmental body setting international standards to prevent money laundering and terrorist financing through grey and black lists.

87. Which constitutional amendment restricted the total number of Ministers in the Council of Ministers to 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha?

a) 91st Amendment Act

b) 86th Amendment Act

c) 52nd Amendment Act

d) 44th Amendment Act

Correct Answer: a) 91st Amendment Act

Explanation:

The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003, limited the size of the Council of Ministers at the center and states to 15% of the total house strength to curb cabinet bloat.

88. What is the primary mandate of the 'Law Commission of India'?

a) Recommending legal reforms, codification of archaic statutes, and reviewing judicial administration to simplify laws

b) Adjudicating civil lawsuits between rival state governments

c) Appointing judges to district and sessions courts

d) Drafting annual union tax bills

Correct Answer: a) Recommending legal reforms, codification of archaic statutes, and reviewing judicial administration to simplify laws

Explanation:

The Law Commission is an executive body established periodically to research and recommend comprehensive legal reforms to the government.

89. Which river forms the famous Jog Falls (Gersoppa Falls), one of India's highest waterfalls?

a) Sharavathi River

b) Kaveri River

c) Narmada River

d) Tapti River

Correct Answer: a) Sharavathi River

Explanation:

Jog Falls is created by the Sharavathi River in Karnataka and is one of the premier plunge waterfalls in India.

90. What is the legal status and nature of 'Directive Principles of State Policy' (DPSPs) under Part IV of the Indian Constitution?

a) Non-justiciable guidelines for state policymaking, aiming to establish a social and economic democracy

b) Enforceable fundamental rights backed by Supreme Court writs

c) Mandatory criminal laws applicable to private citizens

d) Temporary executive orders expiring every five years

Correct Answer: a) Non-justiciable guidelines for state policymaking, aiming to establish a social and economic democracy

Explanation:

DPSPs are non-justiciable (cannot be enforced by courts), but are fundamental in the governance of the country and guiding state laws.

91. Which international organization produces the 'Global Competitiveness Report'?

a) World Economic Forum

b) World Bank

c) International Monetary Fund

d) World Trade Organization

Correct Answer: a) World Economic Forum

Explanation:

The World Economic Forum publishes the Global Competitiveness Report assessing the competitiveness landscape of global economies.

92. What is the role of the 'National Security Advisor' (NSA) in India?

a) Chief advisor to the Prime Minister on national security, foreign policy, and strategic defense affairs

b) Commander-in-Chief of all armed forces branches

c) Director of internal police intelligence operations

d) Minister of External Affairs

Correct Answer: a) Chief advisor to the Prime Minister on national security, foreign policy, and strategic defense affairs

Explanation:

The NSA serves as the primary advisor to the Prime Minister on matters of national security and oversees strategic intelligence coordination.

93. Which constitutional article guarantees protection against double jeopardy (being prosecuted and punished twice for the same offense)?

a) Article 20(2)

b) Article 21

c) Article 22

d) Article 14

Correct Answer: a) Article 20(2)

Explanation:

Article 20(2) states that no person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offense more than once.

94. What is the primary purpose of the 'Collegiate System' transparency reforms and Memorandum of Procedure (MoP)?

a) Establishing clear guidelines, background criteria, and procedural transparency for judicial appointments and transfers

b) Transferring appointment authority to corporate boards

c) Abolishing high court collegiums entirely

d) Setting mandatory retirement ages for attorneys

Correct Answer: a) Establishing clear guidelines, background criteria, and procedural transparency for judicial appointments and transfers

Explanation:

The Memorandum of Procedure (MoP) governs the working relationship between the executive and judiciary in processing judicial appointments.

95. Which ancient Indian site is renowned for being the world's earliest known tidal port associated with the Indus Valley Civilization?

a) Lothal

b) Kalibangan

c) Banawali

d) Dholavira

Correct Answer: a) Lothal

Explanation:

Lothal featured an ingenious tidal basin dock connected to an estuary, facilitating ancient maritime trade.

96. What does the 'Doctrine of Eclipse' establish in Indian constitutional law?

a) Pre-constitutional laws inconsistent with fundamental rights are not void ab initio, but become dormant and unenforceable until the constitutional restriction is removed

b) Laws are automatically suspended during solar eclipses

c) Courts cannot hear cases during night hours

d) Parliamentary bills expire if debated in shadow

Correct Answer: a) Pre-constitutional laws inconsistent with fundamental rights are not void ab initio, but become dormant and unenforceable until the constitutional restriction is removed

Explanation:

The doctrine of eclipse holds that laws violating fundamental rights are overshadowed (dormant) rather than dead, and can revive if the constitutional barrier is lifted.

97. Which international treaty established the International Criminal Court (ICC)?

a) Rome Statute

b) Geneva Conventions

c) Vienna Convention on Treaties

d) Kyoto Protocol

Correct Answer: a) Rome Statute

Explanation:

The Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court, adopted in 1998, established the permanent international tribunal for atrocity crimes.

98. What is the primary function of the 'University Grants Commission' (UGC) in India?

a) Coordinating, determining, and maintaining standards of university education and disbursing grants to universities

b) Conducting primary school entrance exams

c) Regulating secondary school textbook printing

d) Managing vocational training ITIs

Correct Answer: a) Coordinating, determining, and maintaining standards of university education and disbursing grants to universities

Explanation:

The UGC is a statutory body charged with coordinating higher education standards and disbursing maintenance grants to universities and colleges.

99. Which constitutional article empowers the President to promulgate ordinances when Parliament is not in session?

a) Article 123

b) Article 213

c) Article 356

d) Article 370

Correct Answer: a) Article 123

Explanation:

Article 123 grants the President ordinance-making powers during parliamentary recess, possessing the same force as an act of Parliament.

100. What is the primary mandate of the 'Securities Appellate Tribunal' (SAT) in India?

a) Hearing appeals against orders passed by SEBI, PFRDA, and IRDAI

b) Adjudicating criminal murder trials

c) Resolving consumer retail product disputes

d) Managing corporate bankruptcy liquidation

Correct Answer: a) Hearing appeals against orders passed by SEBI, PFRDA, and IRDAI

Explanation:

SAT is a statutory body established to hear and dispose of appeals against orders issued by financial market regulators like SEBI.

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General Knowledge and Current Affairs for CLAT MCQs

1. The Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam (106th Constitutional Amendment Act) reserves what percentage of seats for women in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies?

2. Under the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, who among the following is NOT part of the Selection Committee?

3. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides special autonomous status to Jammu and Kashmir, which was abrogated in August 2019?

4. What is the primary purpose of the G20 group, which represents major developed and emerging economies?

5. Which space mission launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully landed a rover near the lunar south pole in 2023?

6. Aditya-L1, India's first space-based observatory mission, was launched to study which of the following celestial bodies?

7. What is the primary focus of the BRICS economic bloc?

8. The Jallianwala Bagh massacre, a turning point in India's freedom struggle, took place under the orders of which British colonial officer?

9. Which movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in August 1942, demanding an end to British rule in India?

10. What does Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) mandate for qualifying companies under Indian company law?

11. Which international agreement, signed in 2015, aims to limit global warming to well below 2 degrees Celsius above pre-industrial levels?

12. What is the primary function of the International Monetary Fund (IMF)?

13. What is the legal and constitutional status of the Uniform Civil Code (UCC) referenced in the Directive Principles of State Policy?

14. Which institution releases the 'Ease of Doing Business' or related global economic competitiveness indices historically?

15. What is the legal significance of a 'Curative Petition' in the Supreme Court of India?

16. Which constitutional amendment introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India?

17. What is the primary purpose of the 'Collegium System' in India?

18. What does the term 'Pacta sunt servanda' signify in international law and treaty relations?

19. Which of the following bodies is responsible for conducting monetary policy and issuing currency in India?

20. What is the role of SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) in the Indian financial sector?

21. Which Indian state shares the longest international border with Bangladesh?

22. What is the primary mandate of the International Court of Justice (ICJ)?

23. The International Criminal Court (ICC) differs from the ICJ primarily because the ICC:

24. Which constitutional body conducts elections to the offices of the President and Vice-President of India?

25. What is the tenure of a judge of the International Court of Justice?

26. Where is the headquarters of the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) located?

27. Which organization releases the global 'Human Development Index' (HDI)?

28. What is the legal status of Fundamental Duties under the Indian Constitution?

29. Which historic battle in 1757 established British East India Company political supremacy in Bengal?

30. What was the primary recommendation of the Simon Commission (1928) that provoked widespread protests across India?

31. What is 'Habeas Corpus' literally translated as, and what is its core constitutional purpose?

32. Which constitutional writ is issued to command a public authority or official to perform a mandatory public duty?

33. What is the primary role of the Attorney General of India under Article 76?

34. Which constitutional amendment lowered the voting age in India from 21 years to 18 years?

35. What is the significance of the landmark Supreme Court judgment in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973)?

36. Which international organization administers global trade rules and resolves trade disputes between nations?

37. What is the primary greenhouse gas responsible for human-induced global climate change?

38. Where is the headquarters of the International Court of Justice located?

39. Which river is the longest river flowing entirely within Indian territory?

40. What is the primary function of the Finance Commission of India under Article 280?

41. Which constitutional amendment added the Fundamental Right to Education (Article 21A) for children aged 6 to 14 years?

42. What does the term 'Quo-Warranto' signify as a constitutional writ?

43. Which country hosted the 2024 Summer Olympic Games?

44. What is the principal objective of the 'Collegiate System' or multilateral groupings like the QUAD (Quadrilateral Security Dialogue)?

45. Who was the first woman President of Independent India?

46. Which constitutional article guarantees the Right to Equality before the law across India?

47. What is the primary function of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India?

48. Which historic pact signed in 1932 between Mahatma Gandhi and B.R. Ambedkar provided for reserved seats for the depressed classes within general electorates?

49. What is the primary purpose of the 'Collegium Resolution' data transparency initiatives in judicial appointments?

50. Which atmospheric layer contains the ozone layer that shields the Earth from harmful ultraviolet radiation?

51. What is the primary objective of the Reserve Bank of India's 'Repo Rate' adjustments?

52. Which constitutional article empowers the Supreme Court to issue special leave to appeal (SLP) against any judgment or order from any court or tribunal in India?

53. What is the legal significance of Article 142 of the Indian Constitution?

54. Which international environmental protocol successfully phased out ozone-depleting substances like chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)?

55. What is the primary focus of the 'Basel Convention'?

56. Which constitutional amendment introduced the Economically Weaker Section (EWS) reservation in India?

57. What is the primary purpose of the 'Ramsar Convention'?

58. Which Indian organization is responsible for regulating and licensing telecommunications and broadcasting standards?

59. What is the legal mandate of the Lokpal in India?

60. Which historic site in the Indus Valley Civilization was known for its unique dockyard?

61. What is the primary role of the Chief Economic Advisor (CEA) to the Government of India?

62. Which constitutional amendment gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) in India?

63. What is the role of the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992?

64. Which schedule of the Indian Constitution contains provisions regarding the disqualification of members on the ground of defection (Anti-Defection Law)?

65. What does the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution recognize?

66. What is the primary mandate of the Competition Commission of India (CCI)?

67. Which organization publishes the global 'Corruption Perceptions Index' (CPI)?

68. What is the core purpose of the 'Collegium' recommendation process when reviewing high court judge transfers?

69. Which historical site witnessed the formal proclamation of Indian Independence and the transfer of power on August 15, 1947?

70. What is the primary function of the 'Comptroller and Auditor General of India' (CAG) under Article 148?

71. Which international financial institution is headquartered in Washington, D.C., and focuses on poverty reduction and developmental loans for developing countries?

72. What is the significance of the 'Doctrine of Pith and Substance' in Indian constitutional jurisprudence?

73. Which article of the Indian Constitution guarantees freedom of speech and expression?

74. What is the legal implication of the 'Doctrine of Severability' in constitutional law?

75. Which organization publishes the 'Global Gender Gap Report'?

76. What is the primary objective of the 'Wassenaar Arrangement'?

77. Which constitutional body is responsible for advising the President on matters relating to the appointment and transfer of judges?

78. What is the primary function of the 'National Green Tribunal' (NGT) in India?