The National Defence Academy (NDA) General Ability Test (GAT) is a crucial component of the UPSC NDA written examination, carrying a massive weightage of 600 marks. Divided into Part A (English) and Part B (General Knowledge), the paper evaluates candidates on linguistic proficiency, scientific principles, historical awareness, geography, and current global events. Understanding the exact exam distribution, marking scheme, and practicing targeted multiple-choice questions is essential for clearing the rigorous sectional cutoffs and optimizing overall scores.
1. What does NDA stand for in the context of Indian defense examinations?
Correct Answer: a) National Defence Academy
Explanation:
NDA stands for National Defence Academy, the joint services academy of the Indian Armed Forces.
2. Which organization is responsible for conducting the NDA entrance examination?
Correct Answer: b) Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)
Explanation:
The NDA examination is conducted biannually by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC).
3. What is the total maximum marks for the NDA General Ability Test (GAT) paper?
Correct Answer: c) 600 marks
Explanation:
The GAT paper carries a total of 600 marks, out of the total 900 marks for the written examination.
4. How many total questions are asked in the NDA GAT paper?
Correct Answer: c) 150
Explanation:
The General Ability Test consists of 150 objective-type questions.
5. How many marks are awarded for each correct answer in the NDA GAT paper?
Correct Answer: d) 4 marks
Explanation:
Every correct answer in the GAT paper is awarded 4 marks, making a total of 600 marks for 150 questions.
6. What is the penalty for every incorrect answer in the NDA GAT paper?
Correct Answer: c) Deduction of 1.33 marks
Explanation:
There is a negative marking of 1/3rd of the marks assigned to the question, which equals a deduction of 1.33 marks in GAT.
7. What is the total duration allotted to complete the NDA GAT paper?
Correct Answer: b) 2.5 hours
Explanation:
Candidates are given 2.5 hours (150 minutes) to attempt the GAT paper.
8. Part A of the NDA GAT paper exclusively consists of which subject?
Correct Answer: d) English
Explanation:
Part A of the GAT paper is exclusively dedicated to English.
9. How many questions are asked in the English section (Part A) of the GAT?
Correct Answer: c) 50
Explanation:
The English section comprises 50 questions out of the 150 total questions in the GAT.
10. What is the maximum marks allocated to the English section in the GAT?
Correct Answer: c) 200
Explanation:
Since there are 50 questions worth 4 marks each, the English section carries a total of 200 marks.
11. Part B of the NDA GAT paper is generally referred to as:
Correct Answer: a) General Knowledge
Explanation:
Part B of the GAT is known as General Knowledge and encompasses various science and humanities subjects.
12. What is the total marks allocated for Part B (General Knowledge) of the GAT?
Correct Answer: c) 400
Explanation:
Part B contains 100 questions, carrying a total of 400 marks.
13. Which subject holds the highest weightage (Section A) within Part B (General Knowledge) of the GAT?
Correct Answer: d) Physics
Explanation:
Physics holds a maximum weightage of approximately 25% in the General Knowledge section of the GAT.
14. Does the NDA written examination require candidates to clear a sectional cut-off?
Correct Answer: a) Yes, for both Mathematics and GAT papers
Explanation:
UPSC generally applies a sectional cut-off (typically 25%) in each subject paper (Maths and GAT).
15. Which of the following is NOT a standard component of the English section in the NDA GAT?
Correct Answer: c) Essay Writing
Explanation:
The NDA written exam is completely objective. There is no subjective component like Essay Writing.
16. The English section of the GAT is primarily designed to test the candidate's understanding of English and:
Correct Answer: a) Workmanlike use of words
Explanation:
As per the UPSC syllabus, the English paper evaluates a candidate's understanding of English and workmanlike use of words.
17. Questions on 'Idioms and Phrases' evaluate a candidate's ability to:
Correct Answer: b) Understand figurative and contextual language
Explanation:
Idioms and phrases require candidates to understand figurative meanings rather than literal translations.
18. A typical 'Spotting Errors' question in the NDA exam tests knowledge of:
Correct Answer: b) Basic English Grammar
Explanation:
Spotting Errors mainly targets basic grammatical concepts like parts of speech, tense, and subject-verb agreement.
19. Which grammar topic involves changing a sentence from 'He said, I am happy' to 'He said that he was happy'?
Correct Answer: b) Direct and Indirect Speech
Explanation:
The conversion from exact spoken words to reported form is Direct and Indirect speech.
20. Which term describes a word opposite in meaning to another word?
Correct Answer: c) Antonym
Explanation:
An antonym is a word that means the opposite of another word.
21. What does a 'Jumbled Sentences' (PQRS) question in NDA GAT require the candidate to do?
Correct Answer: b) Rearrange parts of a sentence into a meaningful order
Explanation:
Jumbled sentence (PQRS) questions require candidates to rearrange disordered fragments to form a coherent sentence.
22. Which of the following parts of speech shows the relationship of a noun or pronoun to another word?
Correct Answer: c) Preposition
Explanation:
A preposition (e.g., in, on, under) connects nouns/pronouns and shows their spatial or temporal relationship.
23. The syllabus for the NDA General Ability Test (Part B) covers topics from:
Correct Answer: c) Sciences, Social Studies, and Current Events
Explanation:
The GK section is broad, covering Physics, Chemistry, Biology, History, Geography, and Current Events.
24. In the Physics section of the GAT, what is the SI unit of Force?
Correct Answer: b) Newton
Explanation:
The SI unit of force is the Newton (N), named after Sir Isaac Newton.
25. What is the mathematical representation of Ohm's Law?
Correct Answer: a) V = IR
Explanation:
Ohm's Law states that Voltage (V) equals Current (I) multiplied by Resistance (R).
26. Which type of lens is used to correct myopia (short-sightedness)?
Correct Answer: b) Concave lens
Explanation:
A concave lens is used to correct myopia by diverging incoming light rays.
27. Sound waves traveling through air are an example of:
Correct Answer: c) Longitudinal waves
Explanation:
Sound waves in air are longitudinal, meaning particles of the medium vibrate parallel to the direction of wave propagation.
28. What is the approximate escape velocity from the surface of the Earth?
Correct Answer: b) 11.2 km/s
Explanation:
The escape velocity of Earth is approximately 11.2 kilometers per second.
29. The standard value of acceleration due to gravity (g) on the surface of the Earth is approximately:
Correct Answer: a) 9.8 m/s²
Explanation:
The standard acceleration due to Earth's gravity is roughly 9.8 m/s².
30. At what temperature does pure water have its maximum density?
Correct Answer: b) 4°C
Explanation:
Water has a unique property where its maximum density occurs at 4° Celsius.
31. What are the primary colors of light?
Correct Answer: b) Red, Green, Blue
Explanation:
In physics, the primary colors of additive light are Red, Green, and Blue (RGB).
32. Which instrument is used to measure electric current in a circuit?
Correct Answer: c) Ammeter
Explanation:
An ammeter is connected in series to measure the electric current flowing through a circuit.
33. The law of conservation of energy states that:
Correct Answer: b) Energy can neither be created nor destroyed
Explanation:
This fundamental law states that the total energy of an isolated system remains constant; it can only change forms.
34. What is the formula for calculating Kinetic Energy?
Correct Answer: b) 1/2 mv²
Explanation:
Kinetic energy is calculated as half the mass times the square of the velocity (1/2 mv²).
35. If the displacement of an object is zero, what is the total work done by the applied force?
Correct Answer: b) Zero
Explanation:
Work is Force multiplied by Displacement. If displacement is zero, the work done is zero.
36. Which type of mirror is generally used as a rear-view mirror in vehicles?
Correct Answer: c) Convex mirror
Explanation:
Convex mirrors are used because they always provide an erect, diminished image, giving a wider field of view.
37. What is the SI unit of the power of a lens?
Correct Answer: c) Diopter
Explanation:
The power of a lens is measured in Diopters (D), which is the reciprocal of its focal length in meters.
38. In the Chemistry section of the NDA exam, what is the chemical formula for Baking Soda?
Correct Answer: b) NaHCO3
Explanation:
Baking soda is Sodium Bicarbonate, with the chemical formula NaHCO3.
39. Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have the same atomic number but different:
Correct Answer: b) Mass numbers
Explanation:
Isotopes have the same number of protons (atomic number) but a different number of neutrons, resulting in different mass numbers.
40. Which is the most abundant gas in the Earth's atmosphere by volume?
Correct Answer: c) Nitrogen
Explanation:
Nitrogen constitutes about 78% of the Earth's atmosphere by volume.
41. What is the pH value of pure water at room temperature?
Correct Answer: b) 7
Explanation:
Pure water is neutral and has a pH of exactly 7 at 25°C.
42. Which acid is naturally secreted in the human stomach to aid in digestion?
Correct Answer: c) Hydrochloric acid
Explanation:
The stomach secretes Hydrochloric acid (HCl) to create an acidic environment for enzyme activation and digestion.
43. The rusting of iron is a chemical reaction that requires iron, oxygen, and:
Correct Answer: b) Water (moisture)
Explanation:
Rusting is an oxidation reaction that occurs when iron is exposed to oxygen and water (or moisture).
44. Brass is primarily an alloy of which two metals?
Correct Answer: a) Copper and Zinc
Explanation:
Brass is a metal alloy composed primarily of copper and zinc.
45. What is the hardest naturally occurring substance known?
Correct Answer: d) Diamond
Explanation:
Diamond, an allotrope of carbon, is the hardest known natural substance due to its strong covalent lattice structure.
46. Which inert gas is commonly used to fill standard incandescent electric bulbs to prevent the filament from burning?
Correct Answer: c) Argon
Explanation:
Argon, often mixed with nitrogen, is used in incandescent bulbs because it is inert and prevents the tungsten filament from oxidizing.
47. In the Biology/General Science section, which cell organelle is known as the 'Powerhouse of the Cell'?
Correct Answer: c) Mitochondria
Explanation:
Mitochondria are called the powerhouse of the cell because they generate most of the cell's supply of adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
48. Which blood group is known as the universal donor?
Correct Answer: c) O negative
Explanation:
Type O negative blood lacks A, B, and Rh antigens, making it safe for transfusion to any blood type in emergencies.
49. Deficiency of Vitamin C leads to a disease known as:
Correct Answer: c) Scurvy
Explanation:
Scurvy is caused by a severe deficiency of Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) in the diet.
50. What is the longest and strongest bone in the human body?
Correct Answer: c) Femur
Explanation:
The femur, or thigh bone, is the longest, heaviest, and strongest bone in the human body.
51. The cell wall of a plant cell is predominantly made up of:
Correct Answer: b) Cellulose
Explanation:
Plant cell walls are primarily composed of cellulose, a complex carbohydrate that provides structural support.
52. What is considered the basic structural and functional unit of life?
Correct Answer: c) Cell
Explanation:
The cell is the smallest unit of life that can replicate independently, and cells are the building blocks of all living organisms.
53. Which vitamin plays a crucial role in the clotting of blood?
Correct Answer: d) Vitamin K
Explanation:
Vitamin K is essential for the synthesis of proteins required for blood coagulation (clotting).
54. In the human digestive system, bile is produced by the:
Correct Answer: c) Liver
Explanation:
Bile is continuously produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder until needed for digestion.
55. What is the primary gaseous by-product of photosynthesis released by plants?
Correct Answer: b) Oxygen
Explanation:
During photosynthesis, plants take in carbon dioxide and water to produce glucose, releasing oxygen as a by-product.
56. In the History section, who is known as the founder of the Maurya Empire?
Correct Answer: b) Chandragupta Maurya
Explanation:
Chandragupta Maurya overthrew the Nanda dynasty and founded the Maurya Empire in ancient India.
57. In which year did the Battle of Plassey take place?
Correct Answer: b) 1757
Explanation:
The Battle of Plassey was fought on June 23, 1757, leading to a decisive victory for the British East India Company.
58. The revolt of 1857 is also historically referred to as:
Correct Answer: c) The First War of Indian Independence
Explanation:
The 1857 revolt against British rule is often called the First War of Indian Independence or the Sepoy Mutiny.
59. Who was one of the principal founders of the Indian National Congress in 1885?
Correct Answer: c) Allan Octavian Hume
Explanation:
A.O. Hume, a retired British civil servant, was instrumental in founding the Indian National Congress in 1885.
60. In which year was the Quit India Movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi?
Correct Answer: c) 1942
Explanation:
The Quit India Movement, demanding an end to British rule in India, was launched in August 1942.
61. The famous Dandi March led by Mahatma Gandhi was a part of which movement?
Correct Answer: c) Civil Disobedience Movement
Explanation:
The Dandi March (Salt March) of 1930 marked the beginning of the widespread Civil Disobedience Movement.
62. Who was the first and only Indian to hold the post of Governor-General of independent India?
Correct Answer: b) C. Rajagopalachari
Explanation:
Chakravarti Rajagopalachari was the last Governor-General of India, and the only Indian national to hold that office.
63. The Non-Cooperation Movement was abruptly called off by Gandhi in 1922 due to violence at:
Correct Answer: b) Chauri Chaura
Explanation:
The Chauri Chaura incident in Gorakhpur, where a police station was burnt down, led Gandhi to halt the movement.
64. Who initiated the Bhoodan (Land Gift) Movement in India?
Correct Answer: c) Vinoba Bhave
Explanation:
Acharya Vinoba Bhave initiated the Bhoodan Movement in 1951 to persuade wealthy landowners to donate a percentage of their land.
65. Under the Geography section, which is the largest planet in our solar system?
Correct Answer: c) Jupiter
Explanation:
Jupiter is the largest planet in the solar system, both in mass and volume.
66. The imaginary horizontal line that divides the Earth into the Northern and Southern Hemispheres is the:
Correct Answer: d) Equator
Explanation:
The equator is the imaginary latitude line at 0 degrees that bisects the Earth into the northern and southern halves.
67. Which is the longest river flowing entirely within the Indian subcontinent?
Correct Answer: b) Ganga
Explanation:
The Ganga (Ganges) is the longest river primarily flowing through India, stretching over 2,525 km.
68. What is the highest mountain peak in the world above sea level?
Correct Answer: c) Mount Everest
Explanation:
Mount Everest in the Himalayas is the highest peak in the world, with an elevation of 8,848.86 meters.
69. What is the longitude of the Standard Meridian of India?
Correct Answer: b) 82°30' E
Explanation:
The Standard Meridian of India is 82°30' E (82.5° East), passing through Mirzapur, Uttar Pradesh.
70. Which type of soil in India is most suitable for cultivating cotton?
Correct Answer: d) Black Soil
Explanation:
Black soil, also known as Regur soil, is highly retentive of moisture and is ideal for growing cotton.
71. Which Indian state has the longest coastline?
Correct Answer: c) Gujarat
Explanation:
Gujarat has the longest mainland coastline in India, extending over 1,600 km.
72. Kaziranga National Park, known for the great one-horned rhinoceros, is located in which state?
Correct Answer: b) Assam
Explanation:
Kaziranga National Park is a UNESCO World Heritage Site located in the state of Assam.
73. The 'Blue Revolution' in India is associated with the promotion of:
Correct Answer: c) Fish production (Aquaculture)
Explanation:
The Blue Revolution refers to the significant growth in fish and aquaculture production.
74. Which is the lowest and most dense layer of the Earth's atmosphere, where most weather phenomena occur?
Correct Answer: d) Troposphere
Explanation:
The troposphere is the closest layer to Earth's surface and contains about 75-80% of the atmosphere's mass and almost all weather conditions.
75. The narrow stretch of water that separates India from Sri Lanka is called the:
Correct Answer: c) Palk Strait
Explanation:
The Palk Strait connects the Bay of Bengal and the Palk Bay, acting as a boundary separating India and Sri Lanka.
76. What is the capital of the Union Territory of Lakshadweep?
Correct Answer: b) Kavaratti
Explanation:
Kavaratti is the capital and the most developed island in the Union Territory of Lakshadweep.
77. Which is the largest and deepest ocean on Earth?
Correct Answer: d) Pacific Ocean
Explanation:
The Pacific Ocean is the largest and deepest of Earth's oceanic divisions, containing the Mariana Trench.
78. Which instrument is used to record the intensity and duration of an earthquake?
Correct Answer: c) Seismograph
Explanation:
A seismograph (or seismometer) detects and records vibrations from earthquakes.
79. In the Current Events and Polity section, what is the minimum age prescribed by the Constitution to become the President of India?
Correct Answer: c) 35 years
Explanation:
Article 58 of the Indian Constitution specifies that a candidate must be at least 35 years of age to be eligible for the Presidency.
80. Which Article of the Indian Constitution is termed 'the heart and soul of the Constitution' by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?
Correct Answer: d) Article 32
Explanation:
Article 32 ensures the Right to Constitutional Remedies, allowing individuals to move the Supreme Court to enforce fundamental rights.
81. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (Council of States)?
Correct Answer: b) Vice-President of India
Explanation:
The Vice-President of India acts as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
82. Who holds the authority to appoint the Chief Election Commissioner of India?
Correct Answer: c) President of India
Explanation:
The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by the President of India under Article 324 of the Constitution.
83. What is the highest peacetime gallantry award in the Indian Armed Forces?
Correct Answer: c) Ashoka Chakra
Explanation:
The Ashoka Chakra is India's highest peacetime military decoration awarded for valor, courageous action, or self-sacrifice.
84. Who serves as the Supreme Commander of the Indian Armed Forces?
Correct Answer: c) President of India
Explanation:
Under Article 53 of the Constitution, the supreme command of the Defence Forces is vested in the President.
85. The National Defence Academy (NDA) is located at Khadakwasla in which state?
Correct Answer: c) Maharashtra
Explanation:
The prestigious National Defence Academy is situated at Khadakwasla near Pune, Maharashtra.
86. The concept of 'Five Year Plans' in the Indian Constitution was originally borrowed from:
Correct Answer: c) USSR (Soviet Union)
Explanation:
India adopted the model of centralized economic planning via Five Year Plans from the former Soviet Union.
87. Which Constitutional Amendment Act made the Right to Education a Fundamental Right?
Correct Answer: d) 86th Amendment Act
Explanation:
The 86th Amendment (2002) inserted Article 21A, providing free and compulsory education for all children aged 6 to 14 years.
88. Which part of speech is tested heavily in the GAT English paper via the 'Fill in the Blanks' section?
Correct Answer: b) Vocabulary and prepositions
Explanation:
Fill in the blanks questions primarily test the accurate usage of vocabulary, tenses, and prepositions in context.
89. In history, the Indus Valley Civilization is best known for its:
Correct Answer: c) Urban planning and drainage system
Explanation:
The Indus Valley Civilization (Harappan civilization) was highly advanced in its urban grid planning and efficient drainage systems.
90. Which is the smallest state in India by geographical area?
Correct Answer: b) Goa
Explanation:
Goa is the smallest state in India by total area.
91. In GAT Current Affairs, understanding of international organizations is required. Where is the headquarters of the United Nations (UN) located?
Correct Answer: c) New York
Explanation:
The primary headquarters of the United Nations is situated in New York City.
92. Which disease is transmitted by the bite of an infected female Anopheles mosquito?
Correct Answer: b) Malaria
Explanation:
Malaria is a mosquito-borne infectious disease spread specifically by the female Anopheles mosquito.
93. Who was the first woman President of the Indian National Congress?
Correct Answer: c) Annie Besant
Explanation:
Annie Besant, a British socialist, became the first woman President of the Indian National Congress in 1917.
94. In Physics, which of the following represents the rate of change of velocity?
Correct Answer: d) Acceleration
Explanation:
Acceleration is defined as the rate at which an object changes its velocity over time.
95. Which element forms the basis of all organic chemistry?
Correct Answer: b) Carbon
Explanation:
Carbon's unique ability to form stable, complex molecular chains makes it the foundation of organic chemistry.
96. What is the common name for Sodium Chloride?
Correct Answer: c) Table Salt
Explanation:
Sodium Chloride (NaCl) is widely known and used as common table salt.
97. Which layer of the atmosphere contains the ozone layer that protects Earth from harmful UV radiation?
Correct Answer: b) Stratosphere
Explanation:
The ozone layer is primarily located within the lower portion of the stratosphere.
98. In Indian Polity, the term of a member of the Rajya Sabha is:
Correct Answer: c) 6 years
Explanation:
Members of the Rajya Sabha are elected for a term of six years, with one-third retiring every two years.
99. The fundamental rights in the Indian Constitution are enshrined in which part?
Correct Answer: b) Part III
Explanation:
Fundamental Rights are contained in Part III (Articles 12 to 35) of the Indian Constitution.
