The National Defence Academy (NDA) examination is a prestigious nationwide entrance test conducted twice a year by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) to select eligible unmarried male and female candidates for the Army, Navy, and Air Force wings of the NDA and the Indian Naval Academy. Spanning a total written duration of 5 hours across two offline papers Mathematics (300 marks) and the General Ability Test, or GAT (600 marks) the exam evaluates candidates through 270 objective multiple-choice questions. Successful candidates clear a rigorous screening before facing the comprehensive 5-day Services Selection Board (SSB) interview, which carries an additional 900 marks. Mastering the marking scheme, negative marking penalties, and structural layout is vital for maximizing score potential.
1. What does NDA stand for in the context of Indian defence examinations?
Correct Answer: a) National Defence Academy
Explanation:
NDA stands for National Defence Academy, which is the joint defence service training institute of the Indian Armed Forces.
2. Which organization conducts the NDA and NA examination in India?
Correct Answer: b) Union Public Service Commission
Explanation:
The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) conducts the NDA & NA examination twice a year for admission to the Army, Navy, and Air Force wings.
3. Where is the National Defence Academy located?
Correct Answer: b) Khadakwasla, Pune, Maharashtra
Explanation:
The National Defence Academy is located at Khadakwasla near Pune, Maharashtra.
4. How many times a year is the NDA exam typically conducted by UPSC?
Correct Answer: b) Twice a year
Explanation:
UPSC conducts the NDA examination twice annually, commonly referred to as NDA I and NDA II.
5. What is the age limit criterion for male and female candidates applying for the NDA exam?
Correct Answer: a) 16.5 to 19.5 years
Explanation:
Candidates must generally be between 16.5 and 19.5 years of age at the time of commencement of the course.
6. Are female candidates eligible to appear for the NDA examination?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, female candidates are eligible for admission to the NDA
Explanation:
Following a landmark Supreme Court directive and government approval, female candidates are eligible to apply and join the NDA across all three services.
7. What educational qualification is required for joining the Army wing of the NDA?
Correct Answer: a) Pass in 10+2 pattern of school education or equivalent from a recognized board
Explanation:
For the Army wing of NDA, a candidate must have passed the 10+2 examination or equivalent from a recognized state or central board.
8. What educational requirement is mandatory for candidates aspiring to join the Air Force and Naval wings (Cadet Entry Scheme)?
Correct Answer: a) 10+2 with Physics and Mathematics
Explanation:
Candidates applying for the Air Force and Naval wings of NDA must have passed 10+2 with Physics and Mathematics as mandatory subjects.
9. What are the two papers included in the written examination of the NDA exam?
Correct Answer: a) Mathematics and General Ability Test (GAT)
Explanation:
The NDA written exam consists of two papers: Paper 1 is Mathematics and Paper 2 is the General Ability Test (GAT).
10. What is the maximum marks allotted for the Mathematics paper in the NDA written exam?
Correct Answer: c) 300 marks
Explanation:
The Mathematics paper carries a maximum of 300 marks with a duration of 2.5 hours.
11. What is the maximum marks allotted for the General Ability Test (GAT) in the NDA written exam?
Correct Answer: c) 600 marks
Explanation:
The General Ability Test (GAT) carries a maximum of 600 marks, bringing the total written exam score to 900 marks.
12. What is the total duration of each of the two written papers (Mathematics and GAT) in the NDA exam?
Correct Answer: c) 150 minutes each
Explanation:
Both the Mathematics paper and the GAT paper are of 2.5 hours duration each, which equals 150 minutes per paper.
13. Is there a negative marking system in the NDA written examination?
Correct Answer: c) Yes, 1/3rd (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question are deducted for every wrong answer
Explanation:
There is a penalty (negative marking) of one-third of the marks allotted to a question for each incorrect response marked by the candidate.
14. What languages are the NDA written exam question papers set in?
Correct Answer: c) Both English and Hindi
Explanation:
The question papers for both Mathematics and GAT are bilingual, printed in both English and Hindi languages.
15. What is the total number of marks for the Services Selection Board (SSB) interview stage in NDA selection?
Correct Answer: b) 900 marks
Explanation:
The SSB interview process carries 900 marks, exactly matching the maximum written exam score of 900 marks.
16. What is the combined maximum total marks (Written + SSB Interview) used for final merit list preparation in NDA?
Correct Answer: d) 1800 marks
Explanation:
The final merit is calculated out of a total of 1800 marks, comprising 900 marks from the written exam and 900 marks from the SSB interview.
17. How many stages make up the Services Selection Board (SSB) interview process for NDA candidates?
Correct Answer: b) Two stages: Stage I (Screening) and Stage II (Comprehensive testing)
Explanation:
The SSB interview is conducted in two distinct stages: Stage I screening tests (OIR and PPDT) and Stage II psychological, group, and personal interview tests over 4-5 days.
18. What happens if a candidate fails to qualify in Stage I of the SSB interview?
Correct Answer: b) They are screened out and sent home on the same day
Explanation:
Candidates who do not clear Stage I (Screening test) on day one are screened out and depart from the selection center immediately.
19. How many days does the Stage II SSB interview process typically last for candidates who clear Stage I?
Correct Answer: c) About 4 to 5 days
Explanation:
Stage II testing is comprehensive and spans approximately 4 to 5 days, covering psychological tests, group tasks, and the interviewing officer's conference.
20. Which of the following is evaluated during the psychological testing phase of the SSB interview?
Correct Answer: b) Officer Like Qualities (OLQs) through thematic apperception and word association
Explanation:
Psychological tests (TAT, WAT, SRT, SD) are designed to assess the candidate's subconscious personality traits and Officer Like Qualities (OLQs).
21. What is evaluated during the Group Testing Officer (GTO) tasks in the SSB interview?
Correct Answer: a) Teamwork, leadership, cooperation, and resourcefulness in group obstacles
Explanation:
GTO tasks assess group dynamics, physical stamina, problem-solving under constraints, and leadership potential in collective settings.
22. What is the medical examination standard required after successfully clearing the SSB interview for NDA?
Correct Answer: b) Rigorous medical examination by a Special Medical Board (SMB) and Review Medical Board (RMB)
Explanation:
Candidates recommended by the SSB undergo an exhaustive medical examination conducted by military doctors to determine physical fitness.
23. Are unmarried male and female candidates mandatory for eligibility in the NDA exam?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, only unmarried candidates are eligible to apply and must remain unmarried during training
Explanation:
Eligibility criteria strictly mandate that candidates must be unmarried and remain unmarried throughout the duration of their training at the academy.
24. What is the duration of training received by cadets at the National Defence Academy?
Correct Answer: b) 3 years
Explanation:
Cadets undergo a rigorous 3-year foundational training program at NDA, followed by specialized service-specific commissioning training.
25. What degree do cadets receive upon successful completion of their 3-year training at NDA?
Correct Answer: b) Bachelor's Degree (B.A. / B.Sc. / B.Sc. Computer Science / B.Tech) from Jawaharlal Nehru University
Explanation:
Upon graduation from NDA, cadets are awarded a bachelor's degree (B.A., B.Sc., or B.Tech equivalent) affiliated with Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU), New Delhi.
26. Where do naval cadets go for specialized training after completing their NDA tenure?
Correct Answer: a) Indian Naval Academy (INA), Ezhimala
Explanation:
Naval cadets move to the Indian Naval Academy (INA) in Ezhimala, Kerala, for specialized post-NDA training before commissioning.
27. Where do air force cadets go for flight training after completing their time at NDA?
Correct Answer: a) Air Force Academy (AFA), Dundigal
Explanation:
Air Force cadets transition to the Air Force Academy (AFA) in Dundigal, Hyderabad, for flight training and commissioning.
28. Where do army cadets go for their final pre-commissioning training after graduating from NDA?
Correct Answer: a) Indian Military Academy (IMA), Dehradun
Explanation:
Army cadets from NDA proceed to the Indian Military Academy (IMA) in Dehradun for their final year of pre-commissioning military training.
29. What rank do successful cadets hold upon final commissioning into the Indian Armed Forces?
Correct Answer: a) Lieutenant (Army) / Sub Lieutenant (Navy) / Flying Officer (Air Force)
Explanation:
Upon successful commissioning, cadets enter service as commissioned officers holding the rank of Lieutenant, Sub Lieutenant, or Flying Officer.
30. What is the primary syllabus content of the NDA Mathematics paper?
Correct Answer: a) Algebra, Matrices and Determinants, Trigonometry, Analytical Geometry, Integral Calculus, Vector Algebra, Statistics and Probability
Explanation:
The NDA Mathematics syllabus covers senior secondary level topics including algebra, calculus, matrices, trigonometry, statistics, and probability.
31. How is the General Ability Test (GAT) paper divided in terms of sections and marks?
Correct Answer: a) Part A (English - 200 marks) and Part B (General Knowledge - 400 marks)
Explanation:
GAT is structured into Part A (English, carrying 200 marks) and Part B (General Knowledge, carrying 400 marks).
32. What topics are typically assessed under the English section (Part A) of the GAT paper?
Correct Answer: a) Grammar and usage, vocabulary, comprehension, and cohesion in English
Explanation:
The English section evaluates grammar, vocabulary, sentence structure, synonyms, antonyms, spotting errors, and reading comprehension.
33. Which broad subjects comprise Part B (General Knowledge) of the GAT paper?
Correct Answer: a) Physics, Chemistry, General Science, History & Freedom Movement, Geography, and Current Events
Explanation:
Part B of GAT covers physics, chemistry, general biology, Indian history and freedom movement, geography, and current national/international affairs.
34. Approximately what proportion of the GAT General Knowledge section is devoted to Physics and Chemistry?
Correct Answer: a) A significant section covering fundamental laws of physics and chemical reactions
Explanation:
Science subjects form a core portion of GAT Part B, testing standard concepts in mechanics, optics, electricity, atomic structure, and chemical properties.
35. What role do Current Events play in the GAT General Knowledge paper?
Correct Answer: a) They test the candidate's awareness of significant national and international happenings
Explanation:
Current events questions assess candidates' ongoing awareness of national affairs, international relations, sports, defence updates, and awards.
36. What is the official mode of conducting the NDA written examination?
Correct Answer: b) Offline Pen and Paper based test using OMR sheets
Explanation:
The NDA written exam is conducted offline as a traditional pen-and-paper test where candidates mark answers on Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) sheets.
37. What type of pen must candidates use to darken circles on the OMR answer sheet during the NDA exam?
Correct Answer: a) Black ballpoint pen
Explanation:
UPSC guidelines mandate the use of a black ballpoint pen to fill and darken OMR response circles for accurate optical scanning.
38. Are calculators or electronic gadgets permitted inside the NDA written examination hall?
Correct Answer: b) No, calculators, cellular phones, smartwatches, and electronic devices are strictly prohibited
Explanation:
All electronic gadgets, calculators, mobile phones, and smartwatches are strictly banned inside the examination hall.
39. What is the minimum aggregate percentage required in the written exam to qualify for the SSB interview?
Correct Answer: b) Determined by UPSC through sectional and overall cut-off marks announced after result evaluation
Explanation:
UPSC establishes varying cut-off marks for both individual papers and overall total score depending on exam difficulty and vacancy numbers.
40. What is the purpose of the Computerized Pilot Selection System (CPSS) in the NDA selection process?
Correct Answer: a) Mandatory aptitude test for candidates opting for the Air Force wing
Explanation:
CPSS is a specialized, once-in-a-lifetime computerized aptitude test required for candidates desiring to join the Indian Air Force flying branch.
41. Can a candidate who fails the CPSS test ever attempt it again for the Air Force?
Correct Answer: b) No, CPSS (formerly PABT) is a single-attempt lifetime test
Explanation:
CPSS is a non-repeatable test; if a candidate fails it once, they cannot take it again for Air Force pilot entry.
42. What physical fitness criteria are emphasized during the SSB interview and medical tests?
Correct Answer: a) Good cardiovascular endurance, flexibility, swimming capability, and freedom from major deformities
Explanation:
Candidates need functional physical fitness, agility, and stamina to navigate obstacle courses and outdoor GTO tasks, alongside meeting medical standards.
43. Are tattoos permitted on candidates appearing for the NDA exam and SSB interview?
Correct Answer: b) Permanent body tattoos are generally permitted only on specific traditional sites like inner forearms, subject to military tattoo policies
44. What is the significance of the 'Conference' day on the final day of the SSB interview?
Correct Answer: a) All assessors discuss each candidate's performance to reach a final consensus on recommendation
Explanation:
During the conference, all interviewing officers, psychologists, and GTOs deliberate collectively to decide whether to recommend the candidate.
45. What is the immediate outcome announced on the final day of the SSB interview?
Correct Answer: a) Declaration of recommended candidates
Explanation:
At the conclusion of the SSB conference, results are announced, and candidates who clear the board are officially recommended for medical examinations.
46. What happens after a candidate is recommended by the SSB and clears the medical examination?
Correct Answer: a) Their name is placed on the All India Merit List based on combined written and SSB scores
Explanation:
Candidates clearing both SSB and medicals are ranked on an all-India merit list, and joining letters are issued based on vacancy availability.
47. What is the procedure if a candidate makes it to the merit list but there are more candidates than vacancies?
Correct Answer: b) Admissions are restricted up to the number of available vacancies as per the merit order
Explanation:
Cadets are admitted strictly in order of merit up to the total number of vacancies notified for that specific course.
48. Which service wing at NDA typically has the lowest number of allotted vacancies?
Correct Answer: b) Naval and Air Force wings usually have fewer vacancies compared to the Army wing
Explanation:
The Indian Army wing consistently receives the highest number of vacancies at NDA, while Navy and Air Force allocations are smaller.
49. What attire is generally recommended for candidates attending the SSB interview?
Correct Answer: a) Formal business attire for interviews and appropriate sports/ground kit for GTO tasks
Explanation:
Candidates must wear well-fitted formal clothes for interviews/conferences and designated white shirts, shorts/track pants, and canvas shoes for GTO ground tasks.
50. Are candidates allowed to bring study books into the SSB interview accommodation?
Correct Answer: b) Academic books are unnecessary as SSB tests personality and intellect rather than rote academic knowledge
Explanation:
SSB evaluates psychological aptitude, practical leadership, and personality traits rather than academic textbook retention.
51. What is the significance of the Officer Like Qualities (OLQs) in the SSB evaluation framework?
Correct Answer: a) They form the fundamental benchmark against which candidates are assessed across psychology, GTO, and interview tests
Explanation:
The 15 Officer Like Qualities (OLQs) categorized under planning, social adjustment, social effectiveness, and dynamism are the core evaluation metrics of SSB.
52. Which of the following is categorized as an Officer Like Quality (OLQ) in the SSB system?
Correct Answer: a) Effective Intelligence
Explanation:
Effective intelligence, reasoning ability, organizing ability, and power of expression are key intellectual OLQs assessed at SSB.
53. Can a candidate who is studying in the 11th standard apply for the NDA exam?
Correct Answer: b) No, candidates must be currently studying in or have passed the 12th standard
Explanation:
Candidates must either be appearing in the 12th class exam or have already passed it to be eligible; 11th standard students are not eligible.
54. How are NDA application forms submitted by aspiring candidates?
Correct Answer: a) Online through the official UPSC website (upsconline.nic.in)
Explanation:
Applications must be submitted electronically via the official UPSC online recruitment portal within the specified notification window.
55. Is there an application fee for male candidates belonging to general and OBC categories for the NDA exam?
Correct Answer: a) Yes, a nominal fee (typically Rs. 100)
Explanation:
UPSC charges a standard fee of Rs. 100 for male general and OBC candidates, while female candidates and SC/ST candidates are usually exempted.
56. Are female candidates and SC/ST candidates exempted from paying the UPSC NDA application fee?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, female candidates and candidates belonging to SC/ST categories are exempt from application fees
Explanation:
Fee exemption applies to all female candidates as well as male candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
57. What happens if a candidate provides incorrect or falsified educational documents during the NDA application or SSB process?
Correct Answer: b) Candidature is summarily cancelled, and legal or debarment action may be initiated by UPSC
Explanation:
Submitting false information or fraudulent certificates results in immediate cancellation of candidature and potential debarment from future civil/defence exams.
58. What is the role of the Intelligence Rating (OIR) test conducted on the first day of the SSB interview?
Correct Answer: a) Verbal and non-verbal reasoning test used primarily for initial Stage I screening
Explanation:
The Officer Intelligence Rating (OIR) test consists of verbal and non-verbal reasoning questions and forms half of the Stage I screening score.
59. What is the Picture Perception and Description Test (PPDT) in Stage I of the SSB?
Correct Answer: a) Candidates write a story based on a hazy picture shown briefly, followed by group discussion
Explanation:
PPDT requires candidates to observe a blurred picture, write a brief story, and collaborate in a group discussion to reach a common story.
60. What is the purpose of the individual obstacles test during the GTO phase of the SSB?
Correct Answer: a) To test the candidate's physical courage, stamina, determination, and risk-taking ability across 10 obstacles
Explanation:
The individual obstacles task features 10 adrenaline-fueled obstacles that test agility, daring, stamina, and mental toughness within a strict 3-minute limit.
61. What is the Command Task in the SSB GTO series designed to evaluate?
Correct Answer: a) Leadership qualities where the candidate acts as a commander directing subordinates to solve an obstacle
Explanation:
In the Command Task, the candidate is designated as a commander and selects group members ('subordinates') to help tackle a tactical obstacle under time pressure.
62. What is the Snake Race (Group Obstacle Race) in SSB GTO testing?
Correct Answer: a) A competitive, high-energy team sport where competing groups race carrying a heavy 'snake' through obstacles
Explanation:
The Snake Race is a vigorous group test that fosters team spirit, physical endurance, and collective coordination while navigating obstacle structures.
63. What is the Lecturette task in the SSB interview process?
Correct Answer: a) A 3-minute extempore speech delivered by the candidate on a chosen topic
Explanation:
In the Lecturette, candidates pick one of four topics and speak extempore for 3 minutes, assessing confidence, knowledge, and clarity of expression.
64. What is the primary focus of the Personal Interview conducted by the Interviewing Officer (IO) at the SSB?
Correct Answer: a) In-depth discussion of the candidate's life, family background, hobbies, education, general awareness, and suitability for the armed forces
Explanation:
The Personal Interview is a probing, conversational interaction exploring the candidate's life experiences, motivations, and manifestation of OLQs.
65. Can a candidate who is wearing prescription glasses clear the medical standards for the Naval or Army wings of NDA?
Correct Answer: a) Yes, within prescribed refractive error limits for specific branches
Explanation:
While Air Force flying branch has strict uncorrected vision rules, Army and certain naval/technical branches allow specified limits of corrective spectacles.
66. What happens to cadets at NDA if they sustain a minor injury during training?
Correct Answer: a) They receive expert medical care at the NDA military hospital and resume training upon recovery
Explanation:
NDA features a fully equipped military hospital (Command Hospital / Military Hospital Khadakwasla) to care for cadets with medical rehabilitation support.
67. What is the significance of the 'Passing Out Parade' (POP) at the National Defence Academy?
Correct Answer: a) The ceremonial culmination of training where cadets mark their graduation before moving to service academies
Explanation:
The Passing Out Parade is a grand, prestigious military parade held biannually to mark the successful graduation of NDA course cadets.
68. What is the motto inscribed on the crest of the National Defence Academy?
Correct Answer: a) Seva Paramo Dharma (Service Before Self)
Explanation:
The guiding motto of the National Defence Academy is 'Seva Paramo Dharma', translating to 'Service Before Self'.
69. Which prestigious trophy is awarded to the cadet standing first in overall order of merit at NDA graduation?
Correct Answer: a) The President's Gold Medal
Explanation:
The President's Gold Medal is awarded to the cadet who secures the first position in the overall order of merit upon graduation from NDA.
70. What is the 'Sword of Honour' awarded for in the context of Indian military academies?
Correct Answer: a) Awarded to the best all-round gentleman cadet upon commissioning at academies like IMA
Explanation:
The Sword of Honour is a legendary symbol of excellence presented to the best all-round cadet during pre-commissioning training completion.
71. How are NDA squadrons designated within the academy premises?
Correct Answer: a) Numbered alphabetically or numerically (e.g., Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, etc. up to Hunter or similar names)
Explanation:
NDA cadets live and train in designated squadrons (such as Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta, Echo, Foxtrot, etc.) which foster intense competitive esprit de corps.
72. What is the 'Battalion' structure at NDA?
Correct Answer: a) Several squadrons are grouped into battalions under senior military commanders for administrative and training control
73. Are cadets at NDA permitted to participate in sports and adventure activities?
Correct Answer: a) Yes, sports, equestrian training, sailing, gliding, and adventure sports are integral parts of NDA routine
Explanation:
NDA maintains a strong emphasis on holistic development, requiring cadets to engage extensively in competitive sports, sailing, gliding, and equestrian sports.
74. What role does horse riding (equitation) play at the National Defence Academy?
Correct Answer: a) It is taught to cadets as part of equestrian training to build posture, balance, and fearlessness
Explanation:
Equestrian training is a historic tradition at NDA designed to instill poise, balance, and confidence in young cadets.
75. What is the significance of the Sudan Block at NDA?
Correct Answer: a) The iconic main administrative building of the National Defence Academy
Explanation:
The Sudan Block is the grand, landmark administrative headquarters building of the NDA, built with funds gifted by the people of Sudan in recognition of Indian troops' sacrifices.
76. Why was the main administrative building of NDA named the 'Sudan Block'?
Correct Answer: a) In honor of the financial contribution made by Sudan towards its construction in gratitude for WWII services
Explanation:
The Sudan Government and people contributed funds in the late 1940s to build the academy's main block as a token of appreciation for Indian soldiers who fought in North Africa.
77. Can a candidate who failed the NDA written exam appeal for rechecking of OMR sheets?
Correct Answer: a) UPSC does not entertain requests for revaluation of OMR scripts once evaluated
Explanation:
Due to automated optical scanning and strict evaluation protocols, UPSC does not permit re-checking or re-evaluation of written exam OMR answer sheets.
78. What support does UPSC provide to candidates regarding exam score disclosure?
Correct Answer: a) Marks of candidates (both qualified and non-qualified) are published online on the UPSC website after the final results
Explanation:
UPSC transparently uploads marksheets of all candidates who appeared for the written exam and SSB interview following the culmination of the selection cycle.
79. What career progression awaits an officer commissioned through the NDA into the Indian Armed Forces?
Correct Answer: a) Structured promotions from Lieutenant up to General/Admiral/Air Chief Marshal based on service tenure and merit boards
Explanation:
Officers commissioned through NDA enjoy a clear career trajectory with time-bound and selection-grade promotions extending up to senior command ranks.
80. Are permanent commission opportunities assured for all cadets who graduate from NDA and commissioning academies?
Correct Answer: a) Yes, cadets commissioned from NDA enter into Permanent Commission service in the regular armed forces
Explanation:
Unlike short service commission entries, NDA entry grants cadets a Permanent Commission (PC) in the Indian Armed Forces upon successful graduation.
81. What medical provision and life insurance benefits apply to cadets during their training at NDA?
Correct Answer: a) Comprehensive free medical coverage and government-backed insurance cover during training
Explanation:
The government provides complete medical care and insurance coverage for all cadets undergoing training at the academy.
82. How does the NDA curriculum balance academic education with military training?
Correct Answer: a) Through a meticulously balanced dual schedule of university-standard academics in mornings and military training/sports in afternoons
Explanation:
NDA's unique timetable combines rigorous academic degree instruction with extensive physical conditioning, drill, and military leadership training daily.
83. What is the primary objective of introducing computer science and modern tech modules in the NDA academic syllabus?
Correct Answer: a) To equip future military leaders with cyber awareness, digital literacy, and modern technological adaptability
Explanation:
Modern warfare requires officers to understand technology, information systems, and cyber warfare, making tech education vital at NDA.
84. What role do foreign cadets play at the National Defence Academy?
Correct Answer: a) Cadets from friendly foreign nations are trained at NDA, fostering international diplomatic and military cooperation
Explanation:
NDA regularly trains cadets sponsored by friendly neighbouring and international nations, strengthening bilateral defence ties.
85. What is the significance of the Tri-Service ethos instilled at the National Defence Academy?
Correct Answer: a) It fosters jointness and mutual understanding between Army, Navy, and Air Force cadets training side-by-side
Explanation:
Training together under one roof builds lifelong camaraderie and joint operational synergy among future leaders of the Army, Navy, and Air Force.
86. What advice is universally given to NDA aspirants regarding preparation for the written examination?
Correct Answer: a) Master NCERT textbooks for science/social studies, practice high school mathematics rigorously, and solve past years' question papers
Explanation:
Success in the NDA written exam requires strong conceptual fundamentals in 10+2 mathematics and science, solid English grammar, and consistent mock test practice.
