The Graduate Record Examination (GRE) General Test is a standardized entrance examination widely required for admission into graduate and business programs worldwide. Administered by Educational Testing Service (ETS), the test evaluates critical thinking, analytical writing, verbal reasoning, and quantitative reasoning skills developed over years of academic study. Understanding the computer-adaptive nature of the test, scoring ranges, section time limits, and question formats is essential for effective test preparation. Practicing structured multiple-choice questions on the exam overview helps aspirants streamline their study approach, manage exam timing efficiently, and avoid common logistical pitfalls on test day.
1. What is the total duration of the shortened GRE General Test introduced in September 2023?
Correct Answer: c) 1 hour and 58 minutes
Explanation:
The shortened GRE takes approximately 1 hour and 58 minutes to complete, significantly reducing the testing time from the previous 3 hours and 45 minutes.
2. Which organization owns and administers the GRE General Test?
Correct Answer: b) Educational Testing Service (ETS)
Explanation:
The GRE (Graduate Record Examinations) is owned and administered by the Educational Testing Service (ETS).
3. On what date was the new, shorter version of the GRE officially introduced?
Correct Answer: c) September 22, 2023
Explanation:
ETS officially rolled out the shorter version of the GRE General Test on September 22, 2023.
4. How many total sections are there in the current GRE General Test?
Correct Answer: c) 5 sections
Explanation:
The current test consists of 5 sections: 1 Analytical Writing, 2 Verbal Reasoning, and 2 Quantitative Reasoning sections.
5. Which major section was completely removed in the shortened GRE format?
Correct Answer: d) The Unscored/Experimental Section
Explanation:
The unscored (experimental or research) section was eliminated in the shorter GRE to reduce the overall testing time.
6. Which essay task was removed from the Analytical Writing measure in 2023?
Correct Answer: a) Analyze an Argument
Explanation:
ETS removed the 'Analyze an Argument' task. The new test only features the 'Analyze an Issue' task.
7. What is always the first section of the GRE General Test?
Correct Answer: c) Analytical Writing
Explanation:
The Analytical Writing section, consisting of one essay, always begins the GRE exam.
8. How long is the scheduled break in the shortened GRE format?
Correct Answer: d) There is no scheduled break
Explanation:
Because the test time was reduced to under two hours, the previously standard 10-minute scheduled break was removed.
9. What type of adaptivity is used in the GRE General Test?
Correct Answer: b) Section-level adaptive
Explanation:
The GRE is section-level adaptive for both Verbal and Quantitative Reasoning. Your performance on the first section determines the difficulty of the second.
10. How many total questions are there across the two Verbal Reasoning sections?
Correct Answer: b) 27 questions
Explanation:
The new GRE format has 27 Verbal Reasoning questions in total, split between two sections (12 and 15 questions respectively).
11. How many total questions are there across the two Quantitative Reasoning sections?
Correct Answer: a) 27 questions
Explanation:
Like the Verbal measure, there are 27 Quantitative Reasoning questions in total, distributed across two sections.
12. How many questions are in the first Verbal Reasoning section?
Correct Answer: b) 12 questions
Explanation:
The first Verbal section contains 12 questions.
13. How much time is allotted for the first Verbal Reasoning section?
Correct Answer: b) 18 minutes
Explanation:
Test-takers are given 18 minutes to complete the 12 questions in the first Verbal Reasoning section.
14. How many questions are in the second Verbal Reasoning section?
Correct Answer: b) 15 questions
Explanation:
The second Verbal section contains 15 questions.
15. How much time is allotted for the second Verbal Reasoning section?
Correct Answer: b) 23 minutes
Explanation:
Test-takers have 23 minutes to complete the 15 questions in the second Verbal Reasoning section.
16. How many questions are in the first Quantitative Reasoning section?
Correct Answer: b) 12 questions
Explanation:
The first Quantitative Reasoning section consists of 12 questions.
17. How much time is allotted for the first Quantitative Reasoning section?
Correct Answer: b) 21 minutes
Explanation:
Test-takers have 21 minutes to answer the 12 questions in the first Quantitative section.
18. How many questions are in the second Quantitative Reasoning section?
Correct Answer: b) 15 questions
Explanation:
The second Quantitative Reasoning section contains 15 questions.
19. How much time is allotted for the second Quantitative Reasoning section?
Correct Answer: c) 26 minutes
Explanation:
The second Quantitative section gives test-takers 26 minutes to answer 15 questions.
20. How long is the Analytical Writing section on the new GRE?
Correct Answer: b) 30 minutes
Explanation:
You are given 30 minutes to complete the single 'Analyze an Issue' task.
21. Which of the following question types is NOT found in the GRE Verbal Reasoning section?
Correct Answer: d) Sentence Correction
Explanation:
Sentence Correction is heavily featured on the GMAT, not the GRE. The GRE Verbal section uses Text Completion, Sentence Equivalence, and Reading Comprehension.
22. Which of the following mathematical subjects is NOT tested on the GRE Quantitative Reasoning measure?
Correct Answer: b) Trigonometry
Explanation:
The GRE tests basic arithmetic, algebra, geometry, and data analysis. It does not test trigonometry or calculus.
23. What is the maximum number of blanks in a GRE Text Completion question?
Correct Answer: c) 3 blanks
Explanation:
Text Completion questions can have one, two, or three blanks that must be filled to complete the passage.
24. How many choices must you select for a Sentence Equivalence question?
Correct Answer: b) 2 choices
Explanation:
Sentence Equivalence questions always require you to select exactly two choices that result in sentences of the same meaning.
25. Which of these is a unique feature of some GRE Reading Comprehension questions?
Correct Answer: a) Select-in-passage
Explanation:
In 'Select-in-passage' questions, test-takers must click on a specific sentence within the reading passage that meets a certain description.
26. What is the primary format of a Quantitative Comparison question?
Correct Answer: b) Comparing Quantity A and Quantity B
Explanation:
Quantitative Comparison questions require you to determine the relationship between two specific quantities, Quantity A and Quantity B.
27. What must you do in a Numeric Entry question on the GRE?
Correct Answer: c) Type the numerical answer into a box
Explanation:
Numeric Entry questions have no multiple-choice options. You must calculate the answer and type it into a provided box.
28. What is the scoring range for the Verbal Reasoning section?
Correct Answer: b) 130 to 170
Explanation:
Both the Verbal and Quantitative Reasoning sections are scored on a scale of 130 to 170.
29. What is the scoring range for the Quantitative Reasoning section?
Correct Answer: b) 130 to 170
Explanation:
The Quantitative Reasoning score is reported on a scale of 130 to 170.
30. What is the highest possible combined (total) score on the GRE?
Correct Answer: b) 340
Explanation:
The total score combines Verbal (max 170) and Quant (max 170), yielding a maximum possible score of 340.
31. What is the minimum possible combined (total) score on the GRE?
Correct Answer: c) 260
Explanation:
Since the minimum score for Verbal and Quant is 130 each, the lowest possible combined score is 260.
32. By what increment are Verbal and Quantitative Reasoning scores reported?
Correct Answer: a) 1-point increments
Explanation:
Verbal and Quant scores are reported in exactly 1-point increments (e.g., 150, 151, 152).
33. What is the scoring range for the Analytical Writing section?
Correct Answer: a) 0.0 to 6.0
Explanation:
The Analytical Writing measure is scored on a holistic scale from 0.0 to 6.0.
34. By what increment are Analytical Writing scores reported?
Correct Answer: b) 0.5-point increments
Explanation:
AWA scores are reported in half-point increments (e.g., 4.0, 4.5, 5.0).
35. Does the Analytical Writing score factor into the 260–340 overall GRE score?
Correct Answer: c) No, it is reported separately.
Explanation:
The Analytical Writing score is entirely separate and does not affect the 130-170 scales used for the V and Q sections.
36. What is the penalty for guessing or answering incorrectly on the GRE?
Correct Answer: d) There is no penalty
Explanation:
The GRE does not penalize incorrect answers. Your score is based solely on the number of correct responses, so guessing is always recommended.
37. Approximately how quickly are official GRE scores available after testing under the new format?
Correct Answer: c) 8 to 10 days
Explanation:
One benefit of the shortened GRE is faster score reporting, typically taking 8-10 days.
38. How long are GRE scores valid from the test date?
Correct Answer: c) 5 years
Explanation:
GRE scores remain reportable and valid for five years following your test date.
39. What type of proctoring is used for the GRE taken at home?
Correct Answer: c) Live online human proctoring
Explanation:
The 'GRE General Test at Home' is monitored securely in real-time by live online human proctors (via ProctorU).
40. Are calculators permitted during the test?
Correct Answer: c) Yes, an on-screen basic calculator is provided for the Quant sections.
Explanation:
The GRE provides a basic on-screen calculator for the Quantitative Reasoning measure. Personal calculators are strictly forbidden.
41. Which of the following operations is included on the GRE on-screen calculator?
Correct Answer: c) Square root
Explanation:
The on-screen calculator is basic, featuring addition, subtraction, multiplication, division, and square root operations, plus memory functions.
42. What is the policy regarding unscheduled breaks on the new GRE?
Correct Answer: a) They are allowed, but the section timer will keep running.
Explanation:
You can take an unscheduled break (at test centers), but the clock continues to run, costing you valuable test time.
43. Within a single active section, are test-takers allowed to skip a question and return to it later?
Correct Answer: a) Yes, skipping and returning is fully supported.
Explanation:
The GRE software allows you to skip questions, mark them for review, and navigate freely within the current active section.
44. Can you return to the first Verbal section to change answers while working on the second Verbal section?
Correct Answer: c) No, once a section ends, it cannot be revisited.
Explanation:
Navigation and answer changes are strictly limited to the section you are currently taking. Once time expires, the section is locked.
45. Does the GRE software feature a 'Mark and Review' function?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, a screen shows answered, incomplete, and marked questions within a section.
Explanation:
The software includes a review screen that clearly displays which questions you have answered, left blank, or marked for review within the current section.
46. How does the section-level adaptivity work on the GRE?
Correct Answer: b) Performance on the first section determines the difficulty of the second section.
Explanation:
Section 1 of Verbal/Quant is of average difficulty. How well you do on it determines if Section 2 will be easier, average, or harder.
47. What happens if you perform very well on the first section of Quantitative Reasoning?
Correct Answer: c) Your second section will be more difficult.
Explanation:
A strong performance on the first routing section leads to a harder second section, which in turn grants access to the highest score brackets.
48. Why is getting a difficult second section on the GRE desirable?
Correct Answer: b) It provides a higher scoring potential.
Explanation:
Because of adaptivity, facing the harder second section means you performed well on the first, unlocking the highest possible score ceiling.
49. What is the minimum waiting period between GRE test retakes?
Correct Answer: c) 21 days
Explanation:
You can retake the GRE once every 21 days.
50. What is the maximum number of times a person can take the GRE in a continuous rolling 12-month period?
Correct Answer: b) 5 times
Explanation:
ETS policies state that you can take the GRE up to five times within any continuous 12-month period.
51. What is the purpose of the 'ScoreSelect' feature?
Correct Answer: b) It allows test-takers to send only their best/preferred scores to institutions.
Explanation:
ScoreSelect gives test-takers the choice to send scores from their most recent test, all tests, or a specific test administration to schools, hiding poor performances.
52. What is the official ETS practice test software for the GRE called?
Correct Answer: b) POWERPREP Online
Explanation:
POWERPREP Online provides free official practice tests from ETS that simulate the actual testing environment.
53. Can you change an answer to a question on the GRE?
Correct Answer: c) Yes, at any point before the time for that specific section expires.
Explanation:
As long as the section timer has not run out, you can freely navigate back to questions and change your answers.
54. Which essay prompt requires test-takers to construct a logical, well-reasoned argument on a general-interest topic?
Correct Answer: b) Analyze an Issue
Explanation:
The 'Analyze an Issue' task asks you to present your perspective on an issue and support it with relevant reasons and examples.
55. How many choices are provided for a 1-blank Text Completion question?
Correct Answer: c) 5
Explanation:
A single-blank Text Completion question always has five answer choices to choose from.
56. How many choices per blank are provided for 2-blank and 3-blank Text Completion questions?
Correct Answer: b) 3
Explanation:
For Text Completions with two or three blanks, each individual blank has exactly three options.
57. How is partial credit awarded for a 3-blank Text Completion question if you get 2 blanks right?
Correct Answer: c) There is no partial credit; the whole question is marked incorrect.
Explanation:
The GRE does not give partial credit. To get points for a multi-blank question, every choice must be correct.
58. How many total answer choices are presented for a Sentence Equivalence question?
Correct Answer: c) 6
Explanation:
Sentence Equivalence questions display a single sentence with one blank and exactly six answer choices. You must pick two.
59. What is the goal of a Sentence Equivalence question?
Correct Answer: c) To choose two words that complete the sentence and produce the same overall meaning.
Explanation:
You must select two words from the six choices that fit grammatically and create sentences that mean the same thing.
60. Which of the following is a Quantitative Comparison answer choice indicating a lack of information?
Correct Answer: d) The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
Explanation:
In QC questions, the standard 'D' option is that the relationship cannot be determined.
61. In Quantitative Comparison, what does option 'C' signify?
Correct Answer: c) The two quantities are equal.
Explanation:
Option 'C' is always the choice that states the two quantities are equal.
62. If a multiple-choice question in the Quantitative section asks you to 'Indicate all such statements', what format is it?
Correct Answer: c) Multiple-choice — Select One or More
Explanation:
These questions feature square checkboxes instead of circles and require you to select all correct answers (which could be one, some, or all).
63. How is Data Interpretation tested on the GRE?
Correct Answer: c) Through sets of consecutive questions based on the same charts or graphs.
Explanation:
Data Interpretation questions appear in the Quant sections, grouped together based on a shared set of charts, tables, or graphs.
64. How are Analytical Writing essays graded?
Correct Answer: b) By one trained human rater and an e-rater algorithm.
Explanation:
The essay is scored by a human reader and a computerized program (e-rater). If their scores closely agree, they are averaged. If they differ heavily, a second human rater intervenes.
65. Does the testing software for Analytical Writing include a spell-check function?
Correct Answer: c) No, there is no spell-check or grammar-check function.
Explanation:
The word processor is very basic (cut, paste, undo) and does not include any spell-check or grammar-check.
66. What is the policy for scratch paper when taking the GRE at a test center?
Correct Answer: b) The test center provides scratch paper which must be returned.
Explanation:
The administrator supplies scratch paper. You cannot bring your own, and you must hand it back at the end of the test.
67. What note-taking materials are permitted for the 'GRE at Home' test?
Correct Answer: b) An erasable whiteboard or transparency sheet with erasable marker.
Explanation:
To prevent cheating, at-home test-takers cannot use standard paper. They must use a small whiteboard or a transparent sheet protector and erase it in front of the proctor.
68. Which of the following is typically required as primary ID for testing at a test center?
Correct Answer: a) A valid passport or government-issued ID.
Explanation:
Primary ID must be an original, unexpired, government-issued document featuring your name, photograph, and signature (like a passport).
69. Can you use a headset or earphones for the GRE at Home test?
Correct Answer: c) No, you must use internal or external computer speakers and microphones.
Explanation:
Headsets and earphones are strictly prohibited for at-home testing to ensure proctors can monitor for illicit communication.
70. What type of computer device is NOT permitted for the GRE at Home?
Correct Answer: d) Tablet or Chromebook
Explanation:
The test must be taken on a desktop or laptop computer (Windows or Mac). Tablets, Chromebooks, and mobile devices are not supported.
71. What happens if the section timer expires while you are in the middle of answering a question?
Correct Answer: b) Whatever answer is currently selected is automatically saved and scored.
Explanation:
If time runs out, the system automatically submits the section. Any choices you have clicked on will be saved and evaluated.
72. Which of these subjects is tested in a GRE Subject Test, rather than the General Test?
Correct Answer: c) Psychology
Explanation:
Psychology, Mathematics, and Physics are separate GRE Subject Tests, distinct from the core GRE General Test.
73. Are GRE Subject Tests currently paper-delivered or computer-delivered?
Correct Answer: b) Computer-delivered
Explanation:
ETS recently transitioned the GRE Subject Tests to a computer-delivered format starting in September 2023.
74. Is the GRE General Test offered in a paper-delivered format?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, but only in areas of the world where computer-delivered testing is not available.
Explanation:
The GRE is overwhelmingly computer-delivered. Paper-delivered tests are exceptionally rare and only offered where computer testing is completely unavailable.
75. What is the typical base registration fee for the GRE General Test in most parts of the world (e.g., USA)?
Correct Answer: c) Around $220
Explanation:
While fees vary slightly by region (e.g., higher in India or China), the standard global base fee is approximately $220.
76. When can you choose to cancel your GRE scores?
Correct Answer: b) Immediately at the end of the test, before viewing the unofficial scores.
Explanation:
At the conclusion of the test, prior to the unofficial scores appearing on-screen, you are given a one-time option to 'Report' or 'Cancel' the scores.
77. If you cancel your scores at the end of the test, will institutions see that you took the test?
Correct Answer: b) No, canceled scores are not reported or shown on your record to schools.
Explanation:
Canceled scores are entirely discarded and do not appear on any score reports sent to institutions.
78. Can you reinstate canceled scores later?
Correct Answer: b) Yes, for a fee, within 60 days of the test date.
Explanation:
ETS allows test-takers to reinstate canceled scores within 60 days of the test date by paying a reinstatement fee.
79. Does the GRE assess spoken English proficiency?
Correct Answer: c) No, the GRE does not test speaking skills.
Explanation:
Unlike the TOEFL or IELTS, the GRE does not evaluate listening or speaking proficiency.
80. What happens to the section order immediately following the Analytical Writing section?
Correct Answer: c) It is randomized, meaning you could get either V-Q-V-Q or Q-V-Q-V.
Explanation:
Following the essay, the system will randomly serve either Verbal or Quant first, determining the alternating order.
81. How are Reading Comprehension questions with multiple-choice (select one or more) formatted?
Correct Answer: b) Checkboxes (squares) and you must choose all correct statements.
Explanation:
Multiple-answer questions on the GRE use square checkboxes instead of round radio buttons to signify that more than one choice can be selected.
82. What is the primary skill tested by Quantitative Comparison questions?
Correct Answer: c) Estimation, reasoning, and identifying relationships quickly
Explanation:
Quantitative Comparison tests mathematical reasoning, specifically the ability to evaluate relative sizes without necessarily doing exhaustive calculations.
83. Which of the following topics is commonly featured in Data Interpretation sets?
Correct Answer: b) Statistics, percentages, and reading graphs
Explanation:
Data Interpretation requires candidates to extract data from visual charts (bar, pie, line) and apply concepts like percentages, ratios, and averages.
84. What should you do if you encounter a very difficult question early in a GRE section?
Correct Answer: b) Skip it, mark it for review, and return to it if time permits.
Explanation:
Because all questions in a section carry equal weight, the best strategy is to skip time-consuming questions and secure points on easier ones first.
85. When entering a fraction into a Numeric Entry question with two boxes, how is it inputted?
Correct Answer: b) Type the numerator in the top box and denominator in the bottom box.
Explanation:
When a Numeric Entry question provides two boxes, one above the other, you enter the numerator in the top box and the denominator below.
86. Which resource is considered the most authentic for GRE practice questions?
Correct Answer: b) The Official Guide to the GRE General Test by ETS
Explanation:
ETS produces the GRE, making their official guides and POWERPREP tests the most accurate representation of exam content.
87. How are unofficial scores reported at the test center?
Correct Answer: b) You see your Verbal and Quantitative scores on the screen immediately after the test.
Explanation:
If you choose to report your scores at the end of the test, your unofficial Verbal and Quant scores will immediately display on the screen.
88. Why is the Analytical Writing score not provided immediately at the end of the test?
Correct Answer: b) It must be read and graded by a human rater.
Explanation:
Because the essay requires human evaluation, the AWA score takes 8-10 days to process along with the official report.
89. What is the primary difference in content between the old GRE and the new shorter GRE?
Correct Answer: b) The new GRE has removed the 'Analyze an Argument' essay and has fewer total questions.
Explanation:
The content and question types remain the same, except for the removal of the Argument essay and a reduction in the overall number of questions.
90. Does the GRE penalty-weight incorrect answers in the section-level adaptive calculation?
Correct Answer: b) No, your raw score is strictly the total number of questions answered correctly.
Explanation:
Within a section, all questions contribute equally to your raw score, which is simply the number of questions you got right. There is no penalty for getting a specific question wrong.
91. What is meant by the 'raw score' on the GRE?
Correct Answer: b) The number of questions answered correctly in a section.
Explanation:
The raw score is simply the tally of questions answered correctly. It is then converted into the scaled score (130-170) through equating.
92. What is equating in the context of GRE scoring?
Correct Answer: a) A process that accounts for minor variations in difficulty across different test editions.
Explanation:
Equating ensures that a 160 on one administration of the test reflects the same level of ability as a 160 on a slightly harder or easier administration.
93. Which of the following would NOT be tested under GRE Data Analysis?
Correct Answer: c) Matrix multiplication
Explanation:
Data analysis covers basic statistics, probability, and sets. Advanced concepts like matrix multiplication or linear algebra are not tested.
94. How many reading passages are typically found in a GRE Verbal section?
Correct Answer: b) Usually 3 to 5 passages of varying lengths
Explanation:
Each Verbal section features a mix of short, medium, and sometimes long reading passages, accompanied by related questions.
95. In Text Completion, how do you select your answer?
Correct Answer: b) Click on the blank and choose from a dropdown, or click the choices directly.
Explanation:
For Text Completion, you select one entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices provided on screen.
96. Is the GRE test format exactly the same for all test takers on a given day?
Correct Answer: b) No, questions are drawn from a massive bank, and section order varies.
Explanation:
Because the GRE is adaptive and draws from a large pool of questions, the exact test experience and sequence of sections vary from person to person.
97. If you are taking the GRE at home, what must you do before the test begins?
Correct Answer: a) Show the proctor your room using your computer's webcam.
Explanation:
Security protocols require you to do a 360-degree room scan with your camera to prove the testing environment is clear of prohibited materials.
98. Are dual monitors allowed when taking the GRE at home?
Correct Answer: b) No, you must use a single monitor setup.
Explanation:
Test security rules strictly forbid the use of multiple monitors or dual screens during the at-home exam.
99. Can you wear a smartwatch during the GRE?
Correct Answer: b) No, electronic devices and watches of any kind are prohibited.
Explanation:
All watches, including smartwatches and analog watches, are banned from the testing room.
100. What happens if a test-taker is caught looking at their phone during a break at a test center?
Correct Answer: c) Their test may be immediately terminated and scores canceled.
Explanation:
Accessing a phone or prohibited electronic device at any point (even during breaks) is grounds for immediate dismissal and score cancellation.
101. What software must be downloaded to take the GRE at home?
Correct Answer: b) The ETS Secure Test Browser
Explanation:
To take the exam at home, test-takers must install the ETS Secure Test Browser, which locks down the computer during the test.
102. What is the primary difference between the 'POWERPREP Online' and 'POWERPREP PLUS Online' tests?
Correct Answer: c) POWERPREP PLUS tests are paid and provide an AWA score, while the standard are free.
Explanation:
POWERPREP PLUS tests require a fee but provide scores and explanations for all sections, including the Analytical Writing measure.
103. Can you use the keyboard to type numbers into the on-screen calculator?
Correct Answer: a) Yes, the numerical keypad can be used to type numbers.
Explanation:
To save time, test-takers can use their computer's keyboard number pad to enter data into the on-screen calculator.
104. When does the 5-year validity period for a GRE score begin?
Correct Answer: b) On the date you take the test.
Explanation:
GRE scores are reportable for exactly five years following your specific test administration date.
105. What does a GRE percentile rank indicate?
Correct Answer: b) The percentage of test takers who scored lower than you.
Explanation:
The percentile rank compares your performance to other test-takers, showing the percentage of people who achieved a lower score.
106. Which section typically requires test-takers to understand the structure of a text, the author's purpose, and logical inferences?
Correct Answer: c) Reading Comprehension
Explanation:
Reading Comprehension questions assess your ability to analyze text, understand its structure, and draw logical inferences.
107. How should a test-taker approach a Text Completion question with 3 blanks?
Correct Answer: b) Read the whole passage and start with the blank that has the most obvious context clues.
Explanation:
The best strategy is to fill in the blank you find easiest first, as it often provides context to solve the remaining blanks.
108. Which of the following is true about GRE 'Paragraph Argument' questions?
Correct Answer: b) They are short Reading Comprehension questions focused on logical reasoning, like strengthening or weakening an argument.
Explanation:
Critical Reasoning or 'Paragraph Argument' questions present a short argument and ask you to evaluate its logic, assumptions, or flaws.
109. What happens if a test-taker requests testing accommodations for a disability?
Correct Answer: b) Accommodations such as extended time or screen readers can be approved by ETS before testing.
Explanation:
ETS provides accommodations for test-takers with documented disabilities, but they must apply and be approved well in advance of the test.
110. If you take the GRE multiple times, do graduate schools see all of your attempts?
Correct Answer: b) No, because of ScoreSelect, you can choose to send only your best scores.
Explanation:
With the ScoreSelect option, you control which scores are reported to schools, allowing you to hide less successful attempts.
