Indian Polity and Governance constitutes a core, high-weightage component of the UPSC Civil Services Examination, evaluating a candidate’s grasp of constitutional design, institutional mechanisms, and administrative law. This domain covers the structural dynamics of the legislature, executive, and judiciary, alongside fundamental rights, directive principles, emergency provisions, and centre-state relations. Practicing structured multiple-choice questions helps aspirants master article numbers, landmark amendments, and constitutional precedents required for preliminary screening tests.
1. Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to equality before the law and equal protection of the laws?
Correct Answer: b) Article 14
Explanation:
Article 14 states that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
2. The concept of 'Procedure Established by Law' in the Indian Constitution has been borrowed from the constitution of which country?
Correct Answer: c) Japan
Explanation:
The expression 'Procedure Established by Law' is borrowed from the Japanese Constitution, whereas 'Due Process of Law' is practiced in the USA.
3. Which constitutional amendment introduced the Tenth Schedule to the Indian Constitution, commonly known as the Anti-Defection Law?
Correct Answer: a) 52nd Amendment Act, 1985
Explanation:
The 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1985 added the Tenth Schedule, laying down provisions for disqualification of members of Parliament and State legislatures on grounds of defection.
4. Who among the following has the power to create a new All-India Service under Article 312 of the Constitution?
Correct Answer: b) Rajya Sabha by passing a resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of members present and voting
Explanation:
Under Article 312, if the Rajya Sabha declares by a resolution supported by 2/3rd members present and voting that it is necessary in the national interest, Parliament may create a new All-India Service.
5. Which writ is literally translated as 'We Command' and is issued to a public official to perform a public duty?
Correct Answer: b) Mandamus
Explanation:
Mandamus means 'We Command'. It is an order issued by a court to a inferior court, tribunal, corporation, or public authority to perform a mandatory public duty.
6. The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution are borrowed from which country?
Correct Answer: a) Ireland
Explanation:
The DPSPs contained in Part IV (Articles 36-51) were borrowed from the Irish Constitution, which had copied it from the Spanish Constitution.
7. Which article of the Constitution empowers the President to promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament?
Correct Answer: a) Article 123
Explanation:
Article 123 empowers the President to promulgate ordinances when both Houses of Parliament are not in session. Article 213 grants similar powers to the Governor.
8. What is the maximum strength of the Lok Sabha as stipulated by the Constitution of India?
Correct Answer: c) 552 members
Explanation:
The maximum strength of Lok Sabha is 552 (530 from states, 20 from UTs, and 2 nominated Anglo-Indians, though the Anglo-Indian nomination was discontinued via the 104th Amendment).
9. Which committee recommended the establishment of a three-tier Panchayati Raj system in India?
Correct Answer: a) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
Explanation:
The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957) recommended a 3-tier Panchayati Raj system consisting of Gram Panchayat at the village level, Panchayat Samiti at the block level, and Zilla Parishad at the district level.
10. Under which article can the President declare a National Emergency due to war, external aggression, or armed rebellion?
Correct Answer: a) Article 352
Explanation:
Article 352 provides for the proclamation of National Emergency. Article 356 relates to President's Rule in states, and Article 360 relates to Financial Emergency.
11. Which Constitutional Amendment Act lowered the voting age from 21 years to 18 years?
Correct Answer: c) 61st Amendment Act
Explanation:
The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1988 reduced the voting age for elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies from 21 to 18 years.
12. Who was the permanent Chairman of the Constituent Assembly of India?
Correct Answer: b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Explanation:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the permanent Chairman of the Constituent Assembly on December 11, 1946. Sachchidanand Sinha was the temporary chairman for the first meeting.
13. Which of the following is NOT explicitly mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
Correct Answer: c) Adult franchise
Explanation:
Adult franchise is provided under Article 326 of the Constitution, but it is not explicitly mentioned in the text of the Preamble.
14. Which part of the Indian Constitution contains the provisions relating to Fundamental Duties?
Correct Answer: c) Part IV-A
Explanation:
Part IV-A (Article 51A) contains the Fundamental Duties, which were incorporated upon the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
15. Which financial committee of Parliament examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?
Correct Answer: b) Public Accounts Committee (PAC)
Explanation:
The Public Accounts Committee examines the audit reports of the CAG relating to the appropriation accounts and finance accounts of the Union government.
16. What is the minimum age required to be appointed as the President of India?
Correct Answer: c) 35 years
Explanation:
As per Article 58, a candidate for the office of President must have completed the age of 35 years, be a citizen of India, and be qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha.
17. Who administers the oath of office to the Governor of a State?
Correct Answer: c) The Chief Justice of the concerned High Court
Explanation:
Under Article 159, the oath or affirmation to the Governor is administered by the Chief Justice of the High Court exercising jurisdiction in that State (or the senior-most judge available).
18. Which of the following bodies is a constitutional advisory body established under Article 263?
Correct Answer: a) Inter-State Council
Explanation:
Article 263 empowers the President to establish an Inter-State Council to inquire into and advise upon disputes between states, coordinate policy, etc.
19. Which article prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in any factory, mine, or hazardous activities?
Correct Answer: d) Article 24
Explanation:
Article 24 falls under the Right against Exploitation and prohibits the employment of children below 14 years in hazardous industries.
20. What is the quorum required to hold a meeting of either House of Parliament?
Correct Answer: a) One-tenth of the total members of that House
Explanation:
Under Article 100(3), the quorum to constitute a meeting of Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha is one-tenth of the total number of members of that House.
21. Who can remove a judge of the Supreme Court of India?
Correct Answer: b) The President of India on an address by both Houses of Parliament passed by a special majority
Explanation:
Supreme Court judges can be removed by the President only after an address passed by each House of Parliament by a special majority (2/3rd present and voting and absolute majority).
22. Which schedule of the Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to states and union territories?
Correct Answer: c) Fourth Schedule
Explanation:
The Fourth Schedule of the Indian Constitution details the allocation of seats in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) for each state and union territory.
23. What does the 'Rule of Law' as a fundamental feature of the Indian Constitution imply?
Correct Answer: b) Absence of arbitrary power, equality before the law, and primacy of individual rights
Explanation:
A. V. Dicey's concept of Rule of Law implies absence of arbitrary power, equality before law, and that individual rights are the source of the constitution.
24. Which Constitutional Amendment added the words 'Socialist', 'Secular', and 'Integrity' to the Preamble?
Correct Answer: a) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
Explanation:
The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 is often called a 'mini-constitution' and is the only instance where the Preamble has been amended to add 'Socialist', 'Secular', and 'Integrity'.
25. Which of the following writs is issued to secure the release of a person who has been detained unlawfully?
Correct Answer: c) Habeas Corpus
Explanation:
Habeas Corpus is an effective remedy against illegal detention, ordering the detaining authority to produce the body of the detained person before the court.
26. Who presides over a joint sitting of both Houses of the Indian Parliament?
Correct Answer: c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Explanation:
Under Article 118(4), joint sittings of Parliament are presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, or in their absence, the Deputy Speaker, or the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
27. Which article of the Constitution provides for the establishment of a Finance Commission every five years?
Correct Answer: b) Article 280
Explanation:
Article 280 mandates the President to constitute a Finance Commission every five years or earlier to recommend the distribution of tax revenues between the Centre and States.
28. What is the maximum period for which a proclamation of National Emergency can remain in force without parliamentary approval?
Correct Answer: b) 1 month
Explanation:
A proclamation of National Emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within one month from the date of its issue (reduced from 2 months by the 44th Amendment).
29. Which part of the Constitution deals with the Union Judiciary (Supreme Court)?
Correct Answer: b) Part V
Explanation:
Part V of the Constitution (Articles 52 to 151) deals with the Union government, including the Executive, Parliament, Legislative Powers, and the Union Judiciary (Articles 124-147).
30. Who appoints the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India?
Correct Answer: b) The President of India
Explanation:
The CAG is appointed by the President of India by warrant under his hand and seal, as laid down in Article 148.
31. Which constitutional body conducts elections to panchayats and municipalities in the states?
Correct Answer: b) State Election Commission
Explanation:
Under Articles 243K and 243ZA, State Election Commissions are vested with the superintendence, direction, and control of elections to local bodies.
32. What is the tenure of the members of the Rajya Sabha?
Correct Answer: c) 6 years
Explanation:
The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body not subject to dissolution; however, one-third of its members retire every second year, and each member has a tenure of 6 years.
33. Which schedule of the Constitution outlines the administration of Scheduled Areas and Tribal Areas in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram?
Correct Answer: a) Fifth Schedule
Explanation:
The Fifth Schedule deals with control and administration of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram (which are under the Sixth Schedule).
34. Which article guarantees protection of life and personal liberty?
Correct Answer: c) Article 21
Explanation:
Article 21 states that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.
35. Who was the constitutional advisor to the Constituent Assembly of India?
Correct Answer: a) B. N. Rau
Explanation:
Sir Benegal Narsing Rau (B. N. Rau) served as the constitutional advisor to the Constituent Assembly, preparing the initial draft of the Constitution.
36. Under Article 368, what majority is required in Parliament for constitutional amendments that affect federal provisions?
Correct Answer: b) Special majority of Parliament plus ratification by at least half of the state legislatures
Explanation:
Amendments affecting federal structures require a special majority of Parliament (2/3 present and voting + absolute majority) plus ratification by at least 50% of state legislatures.
37. Which fundamental right cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency under Articles 352 and 359?
Correct Answer: c) Article 20 and 21
Explanation:
Following the 44th Amendment Act, the rights guaranteed under Article 20 (protection in respect of conviction for offenses) and Article 21 (protection of life and liberty) cannot be suspended.
38. Which constitutional amendment introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST) into the Indian fiscal system?
Correct Answer: b) 101st Amendment Act
Explanation:
The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016 introduced the GST framework, establishing the GST Council under Article 279A.
39. What is the maximum strength of the Union Council of Ministers as per the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003?
Correct Answer: b) 15 percent of the total members of Lok Sabha
Explanation:
The 91st Amendment Act, 2003 capped the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers at 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha (and state assemblies).
40. Which of the following courts in India has the power of 'Judicial Review'?
Correct Answer: c) Both Supreme Court and High Courts
Explanation:
Both the Supreme Court (under Article 32) and High Courts (under Article 226) possess the power of judicial review to examine the constitutional validity of legislative and executive actions.
41. Which article of the Indian Constitution abolishes 'Untouchability' and forbids its practice in any form?
Correct Answer: c) Article 17
Explanation:
Article 17 abolishes 'untouchability' and makes its practice punishable in accordance with law.
42. Who appoints the Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court of India?
Correct Answer: b) The President of India based on the collegium recommendation
Explanation:
Under Article 124(2), Supreme Court judges are appointed by the President following the collegium system established via judicial precedents.
43. What does 'Pargana' or 'Sarkar' refer to in the historical administrative context preserved in Indian polity?
Correct Answer: b) Subdivisions of administrative units inherited from Mughal/British revenue systems
Explanation:
Historically, Mughal administrative districts were called 'Sarkars', which were further divided into 'Parganas' or Mahals.
44. Which of the following is NOT a Central Service categorized under All-India Services?
Correct Answer: c) Indian Foreign Service
Explanation:
The three recognized All-India Services under Article 312 are IAS, IPS, and IFoS (Forest). The Indian Foreign Service is a Central Civil Service (Group A).
45. Which article provides for the protection of interests of minorities regarding language, script, and culture?
Correct Answer: b) Article 29
Explanation:
Article 29 protects the cultural and educational rights of citizens, granting sections of citizens with distinct language, script, or culture the right to conserve the same.
46. What is the maximum duration for which a President's Rule under Article 356 can be extended in a state with parliamentary approval?
Correct Answer: c) 3 years
Explanation:
President's Rule can be extended for a maximum period of 3 years through six-month intervals, provided specific constitutional conditions (such as a National Emergency) are met.
47. Which constitutional amendment established the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) as a constitutional body?
Correct Answer: b) 102nd Amendment Act
Explanation:
The 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2018 granted constitutional status to the NCBC under Article 338B.
48. Who acts as the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
Correct Answer: b) The Vice-President of India ex-officio
Explanation:
Article 64 and Article 89(1) state that the Vice-President of India shall be the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
49. Which doctrine allows the Supreme Court to declare a law unconstitutional if it violates the fundamental identity of the Constitution?
Correct Answer: b) Doctrine of Basic Structure
Explanation:
The Doctrine of Basic Structure, propounded in the Kesavananda Bharati case, prevents Parliament from altering the core framework of the Constitution.
50. Which article of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to constitutional remedies by moving the Supreme Court?
Correct Answer: c) Article 32
Explanation:
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar called Article 32 ('Right to Constitutional Remedies') the 'heart and soul' of the Indian Constitution.
51. What is the maximum interval allowed between two consecutive sessions of Parliament?
Correct Answer: c) 6 months
Explanation:
Article 85 specifies that six months shall not intervene between the last sitting of a session and the first sitting of the next session.
52. Which of the following officials has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of either House of Parliament without being entitled to vote?
Correct Answer: b) Attorney General for India
Explanation:
Article 88 grants the Attorney General the right to speak and participate in parliamentary proceedings, though they do not have a right to vote.
53. What is the primary function of the Estimates Committee in Parliament?
Correct Answer: b) To examine whether economies and proper organization can be effected in public expenditure
Explanation:
The Estimates Committee evaluates budget estimates and suggests economies, efficiency, and administrative reforms in public expenditure.
54. Which schedule of the Constitution contains the list of recognized languages in India?
Correct Answer: b) Eighth Schedule
Explanation:
The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution lists the official regional languages recognized by the Republic of India.
55. Under which article can the Parliament legislate on subjects enumerated in the State List if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a 2/3rd majority?
Correct Answer: b) Article 249
Explanation:
Article 249 empowers Parliament to make laws with respect to a matter enumerated in the State List if Rajya Sabha declares it necessary in the national interest by a 2/3rd majority.
56. Who among the following can establish a common High Court for two or more states?
Correct Answer: b) The Parliament by law
Explanation:
Under Article 231, Parliament is empowered by law to establish a common High Court for two or more states or union territories.
57. What is the retirement age of judges of the Supreme Court of India?
Correct Answer: c) 65 years
Explanation:
Judges of the Supreme Court hold office until they attain the age of 65 years, while High Court judges retire at 62 years.
58. Which article of the Constitution embodies the concept of 'Equal Justice and Free Legal Aid'?
Correct Answer: a) Article 39A
Explanation:
Article 39A (a Directive Principle added by the 42nd Amendment) directs the State to secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice on a basis of equal opportunity and provides free legal aid.
59. Who has the final authority to interpret the Constitution of India?
Correct Answer: c) The Supreme Court
Explanation:
The Supreme Court of India acts as the ultimate guardian and interpreter of the provisions of the Constitution.
60. Which amendment added the Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitution to protect land reform laws from judicial review?
Correct Answer: a) First Amendment Act, 1951
Explanation:
The First Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951 added the Ninth Schedule and Article 31B to shield specific land reform laws from judicial scrutiny.
61. What is the maximum strength of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) members, excluding the Chairman?
Correct Answer: b) Not specified in the Constitution; determined by the President
Explanation:
Article 315 specifies that the UPSC shall consist of a Chairman and other members whose number is determined by the President of India.
62. Which writ is issued against a person who has usurped a public office to inquire into the legality of their claim?
Correct Answer: c) Quo-Warranto
Explanation:
Quo-Warranto translates to 'By what authority'. It prevents illegal usurpation of a public office by an unqualified person.
63. Which article of the Constitution directs the State to endeavor to secure for citizens a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) throughout India?
Correct Answer: b) Article 44
Explanation:
Article 44 under Directive Principles states that the State shall endeavor to secure for the citizens a Uniform Civil Code throughout the territory of India.
64. Who was the first Law Minister of independent India and Chairman of the Drafting Committee?
Correct Answer: b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
Explanation:
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar served as independent India's first Law Minister and was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly.
65. What is the procedure for the impeachment of the President of India?
Correct Answer: b) Quasi-judicial procedure initiated in either House of Parliament by a 2/3rd majority of total membership
Explanation:
Article 61 prescribes the impeachment process, which requires a resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of the total membership of either House of Parliament for violation of the Constitution.
66. Which schedule was added by the 74th Amendment Act, 1992 relating to Municipalities?
Correct Answer: b) Twelfth Schedule
Explanation:
The 74th Amendment Act added the Twelfth Schedule, containing 18 functional items for urban local bodies (Municipalities).
67. Which of the following is an extra-constitutional body in India?
Correct Answer: c) NITI Aayog
Explanation:
NITI Aayog is neither a constitutional nor a statutory body; it was established via an executive resolution of the Union Cabinet, making it an extra-constitutional body.
68. What does the term 'Republic' in the Preamble mean?
Correct Answer: a) Head of the State is elected directly or indirectly for a fixed term rather than being a hereditary monarch.
Explanation:
A democratic republic means the head of the state (the President in India) is elected by the people for a fixed term, unlike a hereditary monarchy.
69. Which article prohibits discrimination against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth?
Correct Answer: b) Article 15
Explanation:
Article 15 prohibits discrimination by the State against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth, or any of them.
70. What is the primary objective of the 'Censure Motion' moved in Parliament?
Correct Answer: b) To censure the council of ministers or an individual minister for specific policies or lapses
Explanation:
A Censure Motion can be moved against an individual minister or the entire council of ministers for failing to act or policies; unlike a no-confidence motion, it does not require the government to resign if passed.
71. Which amendment provided constitutional status to the cooperative societies under Article 19(1)(c) and Part IX-B?
Correct Answer: b) 97th Amendment Act, 2011
Explanation:
The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 gave constitutional status and protection to cooperative societies, adding Part IX-B to the Constitution.
72. Who decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not in the Lok Sabha?
Correct Answer: c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Explanation:
Under Article 110(3), if any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the House of the People is final.
73. Which of the following bodies submits its annual audit reports to the President, who then lays them before Parliament?
Correct Answer: b) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Explanation:
The CAG submits audit reports relating to Union accounts to the President, who lays them before both Houses of Parliament.
74. What is the tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner of India?
Correct Answer: b) 6 years or 65 years of age, whichever is earlier
Explanation:
The CEC and Election Commissioners hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
75. Which article empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
Correct Answer: a) Article 32
Explanation:
Article 32 gives the Supreme Court original and wide jurisdiction to issue writs (Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, Quo-Warranto) for enforcing Fundamental Rights.
76. Which constitutional amendment restricted the size of the council of ministers and strengthened anti-defection provisions?
Correct Answer: c) 91st Amendment Act
Explanation:
The 91st Amendment Act (2003) restricted the size of the council of ministers and deleted the exception provision that allowed split parties under the anti-defection law.
77. What does 'Vote on Account' permit the government to do?
Correct Answer: b) Withdraw money from the Consolidated Fund of India for meeting normal government expenses pending the passage of the full budget
Explanation:
A Vote on Account allows the executive to obtain parliamentary approval for advance withdrawal of funds to run government machinery until the regular budget is passed.
78. Which article of the Constitution provides for the separation of judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State?
Correct Answer: c) Article 50
Explanation:
Article 50, a Directive Principle of State Policy, directs the State to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.
79. Who can introduce a 'Private Member's Bill' in Parliament?
Correct Answer: b) Any Member of Parliament who is not a minister
Explanation:
A bill introduced by any MP who is not a minister is called a private member's bill, which can be introduced on Fridays with prior notice.
80. Which provision of the Constitution provides for a 'Single Citizenship' for all of India?
Correct Answer: a) Article 5-11
Explanation:
Part II of the Constitution (Articles 5-11) deals with citizenship, establishing a single uniform citizenship for the entire nation, borrowed from the British model.
81. Which of the following is the ultimate authority to amend the Indian Constitution?
Correct Answer: b) The Parliament of India
Explanation:
Under Article 368, the Parliament of India is empowered to amend the Constitution, subject to the limitations of the Basic Structure doctrine.
82. What is the primary function of the 'Sarkaria Commission' (1983)?
Correct Answer: a) To review the working of Centre-State relations
Explanation:
The Sarkaria Commission was set up in 1983 by the central government to examine and review the working of Centre-State relations and suggest changes.
83. Which article of the Constitution allows Parliament to form new states or alter areas, boundaries, or names of existing states?
Correct Answer: c) Article 3
Explanation:
Article 3 relates to the formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries, or names of existing states by law passed in Parliament by a simple majority.
84. What is the status of 'Right to Property' under the Indian Constitution today?
Correct Answer: b) It is a legal right under Article 300A in Part XII.
Explanation:
The 44th Amendment Act, 1978 removed the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights and made it a legal right under Article 300A.
85. Who has the power to prorogue either House of Parliament?
Correct Answer: c) The President of India
Explanation:
Under Article 85(2)(a), the President has the power to prorogue from time to time either House of Parliament or dissolve the Lok Sabha.
86. Which of the following constitutional offices is NOT mentioned in the original text of the Constitution?
Correct Answer: c) Deputy Prime Minister
Explanation:
The post of Deputy Prime Minister is not mentioned in the Constitution; it is an extra-constitutional political office created by governments based on political expediency.
87. Which article empowers the President to consult the Supreme Court on questions of law or fact?
Correct Answer: b) Article 143
Explanation:
Article 143 confers advisory jurisdiction on the Supreme Court, enabling the President to seek its opinion on matters of public importance.
88. What is the main purpose of the 'Zero Hour' in parliamentary proceedings?
Correct Answer: b) To raise matters of urgent public importance without prior notice immediately following the Question Hour
Explanation:
Zero Hour is an Indian parliamentary innovation starting around 12 noon where MPs can raise urgent issues without the mandatory 10-day prior notice required for normal questions.
89. Which amendment added Fundamental Duties to the Indian Constitution?
Correct Answer: a) 42nd Amendment Act
Explanation:
The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 added Article 51A in Part IV-A, introducing 10 Fundamental Duties (a 11th duty was added later by the 86th Amendment in 2002).
90. Which body is responsible for delimitation of electoral constituencies in India after every census?
Correct Answer: b) Delimitation Commission established by an Act of Parliament
Explanation:
Under Article 82, Parliament enacts a Delimitation Act after every census to set up an independent Delimitation Commission to readjust constituency boundaries.
91. Which article guarantees freedom of speech and expression as part of the Fundamental Rights?
Correct Answer: b) Article 19
Explanation:
Article 19(1)(a) guarantees to all citizens freedom of speech and expression, subject to reasonable restrictions under Article 19(2).
92. What is the primary function of the 'Attorney General for India'?
Correct Answer: b) To act as the highest law officer and chief legal advisor to the Government of India
Explanation:
Under Article 76, the Attorney General is appointed by the President to give advice on legal matters to the Union government and perform legal duties assigned by the President.
93. Which constitutional amendment added the provision for free and compulsory education for children between 6 and 14 years under Article 21A?
Correct Answer: b) 86th Amendment Act
Explanation:
The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 made elementary education a fundamental right under Article 21A and added a corresponding fundamental duty for parents/guardians.
94. Who can dissolve the Lok Sabha before the expiry of its normal 5-year term?
Correct Answer: b) The President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister
Explanation:
Under Article 85(2)(b), the President can dissolve the Lok Sabha prematurely, which is conventionally done on the advice of the Prime Minister.
95. Which part of the Constitution outlines the Directive Principles of State Policy?
Correct Answer: b) Part IV
Explanation:
Part IV of the Indian Constitution (Articles 36 to 51) contains the Directive Principles of State Policy.
96. Which of the following authorities decides disputes relating to the election of the President and Vice-President of India?
Correct Answer: b) Supreme Court of India
Explanation:
Under Article 71, all doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of a President or Vice-President are inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court.
97. What is the primary role of the 'Pro-Tem Speaker' in the Lok Sabha?
Correct Answer: b) To administer oaths to newly elected MPs and oversee the election of the regular Speaker
Explanation:
The Pro-Tem Speaker is a temporary officer appointed to conduct the oath-taking ceremony of new MPs and preside over the election of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
98. Which of the following features indicates that the Indian Constitution is federal in nature?
Correct Answer: c) Division of powers between Centre and States
Explanation:
The division of powers between the Union and the States (Seventh Schedule) is a primary federal feature, whereas single citizenship and integrated judiciary are unitary features.
